Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

blood bank > Blood Bank Exam 5 > Flashcards

Blood Bank Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Icterus gravis

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Immature RBCs in circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hydrops fetalis

A

Generalized term for edema in fetus/neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the various names of HDFN?

A

Hydrops fetalis, Icterus gravis, Erythroblastosis fetalis, Anemia of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most severe form of HDFN? Least severe?

A

Rh most severe
ABO lease severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Three main causes of HDFN

A

Rh, ABO, and other RBC antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the four conditions that must be met for HDFN to occur?

A
  1. Mother must be exposed to foreign antigen from pregnancy
  2. Exposure to foreign antigen results in immunization and antibody production
  3. Antibody has to have the ability to cross the placenta (IgG) in sufficient concentrations to cause rbc destruction
  4. Infant must possess the corresponding antigen and it must be well developed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Placental function

A

Exchanges oxygen, nutrients, waste products; serves as a barrier between fetal and maternal circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can Rh/other non-ABO antibodies cause HDFN in first pregnancy?

A

No, this is the stimulating pregnancy. Only ABO HDFN can occur in first pregnancy but can be mild.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can ABO HDFN occur in first pregnancy?

A

O mother giving birth to an A or B child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which pregnancy can Rh/Non-ABO antibodies cause HDFN?

A

Only the second pregnancy because IgG antibody can now cross the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are symptoms of HDFN?

A

Anemia, Increased bilirubin leading to kernicterus, Low hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is accumulation of bilirubin in the central nervous system called? What can it lead to? When would this occur?

A

Kernicterus –> can lead to deafness, mental retardation, death, heart failure. This would occur after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does bilirubin increase during HDFN?

A

Sensitized fetal RBCs are destroyed in the liver causing increase in bilirubin, fetus cannot conjugate bilirubin due to lack of glucuronyl transferase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the “other” types of HDFN? Why?

A

Anti-K, Anti-Duffy, Anti-Kidd, since these are IgG, able to cross the placenta, and well developed at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of HDFN can occur in any pregnancy?

A

ABO (Group O mothers with Group A or B infants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

S&S of infant with ABO HDFN

A

Elevated ESR
Increased osmotic fragility
Increased spherocytes
Mild to high bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ABO HDFN DAT

A

Usually weakly positive or negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some types of prenatal testing before birthing process to assess HDFN?

A

ABO, Rh, Weak D, Antibody screen, Antibody titrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to determine antibody titer?

A

Last positive result is your titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1st titer vs 2nd titer for prenatal antibody testing

A

1st titer is an estimate of maternal antibody concentration
2nd titer is run in parallel with 1st specimen; any change >2 steps is a significant increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Significant titers

A

16, 32 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How to test bilirubin in baby

A

Delta A450 test on Liley Graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the X and Y axis on a Liley Graph?

A

X axis = Weeks Gestation
Y axis = Delta OD450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do the zones mean on a Liley Graph? Where are they located?

A

Zone 1 (bottom third) means the baby is not affected
Zone 2 (middle) means the baby is affected, continue to monitor
Zone 3 (Top third) means the baby has life threatening anemia, consider induction of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Percutaneous umbilical blood samples (PUBS) aka? What can it perform?

A

Cordocentesis; Can perform hemoglobin, hematocrit, bilirubin, reticulocyte, DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are FDA AABB blood requirements for IUT?

A

Fresh blood <5 days old
CMV negative (leukoreduced)
Hemoglobin S negative
Irradiated
O Neg pRBC and AB FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are 2 ways to perform an IUT?

A
  1. Transfuse the fetus directly through abdominal wall into peritoneum
  2. Intravascular IUT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What 5 criteria is cord blood testing required for? (not all of them needed, just 1 is enough to perform cord bloods on)

A
  1. Infants with Rh negative mothers
  2. Infants from Group O mothers
  3. Infants in the NICU
  4. Infants born from mothers with clinically significant antibodies
  5. Infants born from mothers with no prenatal historu
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What tests are done on cord bloods?

A

ABO, Rh, Weak D on Rh negs, DAT, Elution if DAT is pos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can cause a false positive with cord blood testing?

A

Wharton’s Jelly, In vivo sensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the blocking phenomenon?

A

All D sites on baby’s D cells are blocked by maternal anti-D causing a false negative (D neg when they are actually D pos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is normal cord blood hemoglobin? What value indicates severe anemia?

A

14-20 g/dL
<8 = severe anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is normal cord bilirubin?

A

1-3 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is abnormal cord bilirubin? When should a fetal IUT occur? What indicates kernicterus?

A

Greater than 3.
Fetal IUT should occur if bilirubin is 16 mg/dL.
18-20 mg/dL or more = kernicterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the single most important serological test in the diagnosis of HDFN after birth?

A

DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can cord hemoglobin help us to determine?

A

Anemia and red cell destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can cord bilirubin help us to determine?

A

The need for exchange transfusion (IUT) and presence of kernicterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Neonatal treatments for HDFN

A

Phototherapy (UV light)
Exchange Transfusion
IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How to determine the selection of blood for exchange? (ABO)

A

Always give O blood (unless mom is A and baby is A or mom is B and baby is B, then give type specific)
Always match baby for FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How to determine the selection of blood for exchange (Rh)?

A

If mom and baby are positive, give positive.
If mom and baby are negative, give negative.
If mom is pos and baby is neg, give neg.
If mom is neg and baby is pos: give neg if infant has HDFN due to maternal anti D and give pos if ABO HDFN is suspected or other AB causing HDFN other than anti-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Standard dose of RhoGAM

A

300 micrograms intramuscularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is RhoGAM administered?

A

72 hours post delivery

44
Q

Candidates for the administration of RhoGAM

A

Rh negative women with Rh positive infants that are non-immunized (do not already have anti-D) OR
After invasive procedures (miscarriages, abortions, ectopic pregnancies, amniocentesis

45
Q

Non-candidates for the administration of RhoGAM

A

Rh negative moms with Rh negative infants
Rh negative moms who already have a real anti-D
Rh positive mothers

46
Q

How much blood will a 300ug dose of RhoGAM protect against?

A

30 mL of whole blood or 15mL of red cells of fetal blood in moms circulation

47
Q

What is the fetal screen test? What is a positive result?

A

Qualitative test to detect Rh positive cells in the fetus; positive if rosette formations/clumping is/are present

48
Q

What do you do next if the fetal screen is positive?

A

Kleihauer-Betke Test

49
Q

What is the Kleihauer-Betke test? What is a positive result?

A

Quantitative test to detect fetal hemoglobin in mom’s circulation; hot pink cells is a positive result and must quantify by counting 2000 cells

50
Q

If a DAT is positive on a cord blood, what could this mean and what additional testing should be performed?

A

In vivo sensitization (HDFN). Elution should then be performed.

51
Q

If you have a group O- mother, what are the next steps?

A

Cord blood testing; if baby is Rh +, must do fetal screening, then KB testing, then RhoGAM if those tests are positive

52
Q

What is the calculation for how many vials of RhoGAM is needed to give to a mother?

A

Count 2000 cells and calculate the # of fetal cells (# counted/2000).
Calculate volume of FMH by taking # fetal cells/5000
To determine dose of RHiG: volume of FMH/30
Round up if above 0.5 and add a safety vial
(Ex. if dose = 3.77, mother would get 5 vials of RHiG)

53
Q

What is HLA?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen

54
Q

Where is the Human MHC found?

A

Short arm of chromosome 6 (p arm)

55
Q

What are the three distinct gene regions found on chromosome 6 and what do they contain?

A

Class 1: A, B, C glycoproteins
Class 2: DP, DR, DQ glycoproteins
Class 3: complement and TNF

56
Q

What is in the 1st field of HLA?

A

Protein/allele groups

57
Q

What is in the 2nd field of HLA?

A

Specific allele variants

58
Q

What is in the 3rd field of HLA?

A

Synonymous DNA substitutions in coding (exons)

59
Q

What is in the 4th field of HLA?

A

Non-coding region differences (Introns and UTRs)

60
Q

How are HLA antigens inherited? What phenomenon also exists?

A

Codominantly (one haplotype from mom, one haplotype from dad); linkage disequilibrium also exists

61
Q

Which class of HLA alleles is more common?

A

Class I (A, B, C glycoproteins)

62
Q

What cells have HLA class I?

A

All nucleated cells (not mature RBC)

63
Q

What cells have HLA class II?

A

B cells, macrophage, dendritic cells (Antigen Presenting Cells)

64
Q

What are the HLA class I loci?

A

A, B, C

65
Q

What are the HLA class II loci?

A

DR, DP, DQ

66
Q

What is the source of antigens being screened by HLA class I?

A

Endogenous; inside of the cells (intracellular) ex. cancer, viruses

67
Q

What is the source of antigens being screened by HLA class II?

A

Exogenous; outside of the cell (foreign things that are extracellular such as bacteria or fungus)

68
Q

What is the structure of HLA Class I?

A

3 alpha chains covalently attached to Beta-2-microglobulin (antigen binding site between alpha 1 and alpha 2)

69
Q

What is the structure of HLA Class II?

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains (antigen binding site between alpha 1 and beta 1)

70
Q

What type of T cells does HLA class I interact with?

A

CD8+ and NK cells

71
Q

What type of T cells does HLA Class II interact with?

A

CD4+ cells

72
Q

What is occurring in the CDC assay?

A

Testing for HLA; donor lymphocytes are mixed with patient plasma and complement and AHG are added; if HLA antibodies are present complement may lyse cells

73
Q

What is engraftment monitoring for?

A

Monitoring signs for rejection and GvHD - easy way to assess for chimerism within blood

74
Q

What is chimerism?

A

Two sets of DNA; when both donor and patient T cells are present in bone marrow; assessed using Engraftment Monitoring

75
Q

GvHD in HLA

A

Can result from solid organ and BM transplantation –> organ rejection where graft recognizes host immune system as foreign and destroys it

76
Q

HvGD in HLA

A

Can result from organ or BM transplant –> host immune system recognizes graft as foreign and destroys it (better than GvHD)

77
Q

What is GvHD/HvGD based upon?

A

T mediated responses (Class I)
NK mediated responses (Class I)
Antibody mediated responses (Class II)
Complement activation

78
Q

Symptoms of Acute GvHD

A

Endothelial damage and cell death to skin, liver, and GI tract – rash, jaundice, diarrhea, hemorrhage

79
Q

GvHD treatment and prevention

A

HLA testing for best matches
Intense immunosuppression and steroids

80
Q

Direct vs indirect allorecognition of donor tissue

A

Direct more severe - acute graft rejection
Indirect weak - chronic graft rejection

81
Q

What are the genetic markers analyzed for paternity testing?

A

RBC antigens, HLA antigens, Enzymes, Serum proteins

82
Q

1st order of exclusion/direct exclusion for paternity testing

A

A characteristic present in the child that is absent from the mother and the alleged father

83
Q

2nd order of exclusion/indirect exclusion for paternity testing

A

A characteristic absent in the child that should be transmitted by alleged father given his observed phenotype

84
Q

What drug is associated with Drug Adsorption hemolytic anemia?

A

Penicillin most common; also Cephalosporin, Erythromycin, and Tetracycline

85
Q

What lab results are associated with Drug Adsorption hemolytic anemia? (DAT w/ polyspecific, DAT w/ IgG, DAT w/ C3)

A

pos DAT w/ polyspecific
pos DAT w/ IgG
neg DAT w/ C3

86
Q

What is the mechanism of Drug Adsorption hemolytic anemia?

A

Drug acts as a hapten (cannot be immunogenic without a protein carrier)–> extravascular hemolysis

87
Q

What drug is associated with Immune Complex hemolytic anemia?

A

Phenacetin, quinine, quinidine, sulfonamides, acetaminophen

88
Q

What lab results are associated with Immune Complex hemolytic anemia? (DAT w/ polyspecific, DAT w/ IgG, DAT w/ C3)

A

pos DAT w/ polyspecific
neg DAT w/ IgG
pos DAT w/ C3

89
Q

What is the mechanism of Immune Complex hemolytic anemia?

A

Drug and antibody combine to form a complex and causes intravascular hemolysis

90
Q

What drug is associated with Membrane Modification hemolytic anemia?

A

Cephalosporins, Keflex, Keflin

91
Q

What lab results are associated with Membrane Modification hemolytic anemia? (DAT w/ IgG, DAT w/ C3)

A

pos DAT with IgG
pos DAT with C3

92
Q

What is the mechanism of Membrane Modification hemolytic anemia?

A

non-immunologic action; no hemolysis

93
Q

What drug is associated with Unknown Mechanism hemolytic anemia?

A

Aldomet, L-DOPA, Ibuprofen

94
Q

What lab results are associated with Unknown Mechanism hemolytic anemia?(DAT w/ polyspecific, DAT w/ IgG, DAT w/ C3)

A

pos DAT with polyspecific
pos DAT with IgG
rarely pos DAT with C3

95
Q

What lab values are suggestive of intravascular hemolysis?

A

neg DAT with IgG
pos DAT with C3
Eluate Negative

96
Q

What lab values are suggestive of extravascular hemolysis?

A

pos DAT with IgG
neg DAT with C3
Eluate negative because RBCs destroyed `

97
Q

What is drug-induced hemolytic anemia?

A

Certain drugs inducing the formation of antibodies that can react against the drug itself or against red cell antigens (POSITIVE DAT)

98
Q

Adsorption vs Elutions

A

Adsorptions: removal of antibodies from serum
Elution: removal of antibodies from cells

99
Q

What lab findings correlate to immune hemolytic anemia?

A

Decreased hgb
Decreased hct
Increased retics
Increased bilirubin
Decreased haptoglobin
Increased serum LDH

100
Q

What is the most common immune hemolytic anemia?

A

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

101
Q

What is the most common warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Anti-e

102
Q

What is the most common cold hemaglutinin disease?

A

Anti-I

103
Q

Lab results for Cold Hemaglutinin Disease (Eluate, DAT w polyspecific, IgG, and C3)

A
  • Eluate
    pos DAT w/ polyspecific
    neg DAT IgG
    neg DAT C3
104
Q

Eluate results for Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A

Positive if red cells are coated with both IgG and C3 or just IgG

105
Q

Special Features of Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH)

A

Seen primarily in children; Positive DAT; Negative Eluate; Specific to auto-anti P

blood bank (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions