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Nursing III > Blood and Lymph Exam > Flashcards

Blood and Lymph Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

_______ is a blue-black discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin

A

Ecchymosis

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2
Q

_____ is the term used to describe swelling from blockage of lymph circulation

A

Lymphedema

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3
Q

Tiny hemorrhages into the skin creating a polka-dot appearance are called ____

A

petechiae

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4
Q

_____ is caused by hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs

A

Purpura

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5
Q

The patient with ______ has an increased risk for bleeding because of a lack of platelets

A

thrombocytopenia

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6
Q

These destroy pathogens in the lymph from the extremities before the lymph is returned to the blood

A

Lymph nodes

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7
Q

These collect tissue fluid from intercellular spaces

A

Lymph capillaries

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8
Q

These prevent backflow of lymph in larger lymph vessels

A

Valves

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9
Q

These destroy pathogens that penetrate mucous membranes

A

Lymph nodules

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10
Q

This empties lymph from the lower body and upper left quadrant into the left subclavian vein

A

Thoracic duct

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11
Q

May become any kind of blood cell

A

Stem cell

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12
Q

Essential for chemical clotting

A

Calcium ions

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13
Q

Release histamine

A

Basophils

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14
Q

A hematopoietic tissue

A

Red bone marrow

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15
Q

May become cells that produce antibodies

A

Lymphocytes

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16
Q

Large phagocytic cells

A

Macrophages

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17
Q

Promotes absorption of vitamin B12

A

Intrinsic factor

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18
Q

Its fragments become platelets

A

Megakaryocyte

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19
Q

Carries oxygen in RBCs

A

Hemoglobin

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20
Q

Pulls tissue fluid into capillaries to maintain blood volume

A

Albumin

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21
Q

What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?

a) Iron
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Calcium

A

d) Calcium

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22
Q

Through which of the following does lymph return to the blood?

a) Carotid arteries
b) Aorta
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Subclavian veins

A

d) Subclavian veins

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23
Q

Which of the following is a normal hemoglobin value?

a) 38% to 45%
b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL
c) 48 to 54 mg %
d) 27 to 36 g/dL

A

b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL

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24
Q

Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?

a) International normalized ratio (INR)
b) Prothrombin time
c) Partial thromboplastin time
d) Bleeding time

A

c) Partial thromboplastin time

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25
Q

Which blood product replaces missing clotting factors in the patient who has a bleeding disorder?

a) Platelets
b) Packed red blood cells
c) Albumin
d) Cryoprecipitate

A

d) Cryoprecipitate

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26
Q

Which of the following items are transported in blood plasma? (Select all that apply)

a) Oxygen
b) Nutrients
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hormones
e) Wastes
f) Electrolytes

A

b, c, d, e, f

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27
Q

A patient is on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy and has an INR of 1.6. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

a) Observe the patient for abnormal bleeding
b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose
c) Advise the patient to double today’s dose of warfarin
d) Administer vitamin K per protocol

A

b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose

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28
Q

Which gauge intravenous cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?

a) 18
b) 22
c) 24
d) 28

A

a) 18

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29
Q

A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells reports chest and back pain. How do you respond?

a) Do a complete head-to-toe examination
b) Ask the patient to rate the pain on a 0-10 scale
c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy
d) Administer an analgesic, as needed (PRN)

A

c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy

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30
Q

The nurse is preparing to assist the physician with a bone marrow biopsy. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to do before the procedure?

a) Explain the procedure to the patient’s family
b) Administer an analgesic to the patient
c) Observe the patient for bleeding
d) Drape the biopsy site

A

b) Administer an analgesic to the patient

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31
Q

The nurse is providing care for patients on a medical surgical unit. Which of the following patients is at increased risk for infection?

a) A 57 year-old whose white blood cell count = 6,500/mm3
b) A 63 year-old with a platelet count = 110,000/mm3
c) A 49 year-old with a hematocrit = 44%
d) An 88 year-old with neutrophil count of 32%

A

d) An 88 year-old with a neutrophil count of 32%

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32
Q

T/F - Anemia is a reduction in white blood cells

A

False

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33
Q

T/F - Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells

A

True

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34
Q

T/F - Pancytopenia is reduced numbers of all blood cells

A

True

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35
Q

T/F - Polycythemia is the production of excess blood cells

A

True

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36
Q

T/F - Phlebotomy is the excision of a vessel

A

False

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37
Q

T/F - Disseminated intravascular coagulation involves accelerated clotting throughout the circulation

A

True

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38
Q

T/F - Thrombocytopenia is an increase in platelets

A

False

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39
Q

T/F - Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the muscles

A

False

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40
Q

T/F - Leukemia literally means “white blood”

A

True

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41
Q

T/F - Cancer of the lymph system is called lymphemia

A

False

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42
Q

T/F - Abnormalities in B cells and T cells can result in lymphoma

A

True

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43
Q

T/F - Enlargement of the spleen is called splenomegaly

A

True

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44
Q

Which of the following foods will best help provide dietary iron for a patient who has iron-deficiency anemia?

a) Fresh fruits
b) Lean red meats
c) Dairy products
d) Breads and cereals

A

b) Lean red meats

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45
Q

A 50 year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse best observe for pallor?

a) Scalp
b) Axillae
c) Chest
d) Conjunctivae

A

d) Conjunctivae

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46
Q

Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?

a) Palpitations
b) Glossitis
c) Pallor
d) Weight loss

A

a) Palpitations

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47
Q

For which of the following problems should the nurse monitor in the patient with multiple myeloma?

a) Uncontrolled bleeding
b) Respiratory distress
c) Liver engorgement
d) Pathological fractures

A

d) Pathological fractures

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48
Q

Which of the following interventions can help minimize complications related to hypercalcemia?

a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
b) Have the patient cough and deep breathe every 2 hours
c) Place the patient on bedrest
d) Apply heat to painful areas

A

a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily

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49
Q

A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of vitamin K ordered before surgery?

a) To correct clotting problems
b) To promote healing
c) To prevent postoperative infection
d) To dry secretions

A

a) To correct clotting problems

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50
Q

A 27 year-old African American man is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following events most likely contributed to the onset of the crisis?

a) He started a new job last week
b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday
c) He had seafood for dinner last night
d) He has not exercised for a week

A

b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday

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51
Q

A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is examined?

a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes
b) Webbing between fingers and toes
c) Purplish discoloration of hands and feet
d) Deformities of the wrists and ankles

A

a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes

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52
Q

The nurse has taught a patient with thrombocytopenia how to prevent bleeding. Which of the following is the best evidence that the teaching has been effective?

a) The patient states the importance of avoiding injury
b) The patient can list signs and symptoms of bleeding
c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor
d) The patient lists symptoms that should be reported to the doctor

A

c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor

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53
Q

Which of the following conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following splenectomy?

a) A low platelet count
b) An incision near the diaphragm
c) Early ambulation
d) Early discharge

A

b) An incision near the diaphragm

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54
Q

Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the following symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?

a) Bruising around the operative site
b) Irritability
c) Pain
d) Fever

A

d) Fever

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55
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. The patient asks the nurse why the low hemoglobin causes shortness of breath. Which response is the best?

a) “Anemia prevents your lungs from absorbing oxygen effectively.”
b) “You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues.”
c) “You don’t have enough blood to feed your cells.”
d) “You have lost a lot of blood, and that has damaged your lungs.”

A

b) “You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues.”

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56
Q

A patient with a history of hemophilia A arrives in the emergency department with a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?

a) Palpate the patient’s elbow to assess for swelling
b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIIII
c) Prepare the patient for an x-ray examination to determine whether bleeding is occurring
d) Apply heat to the patient’s elbow and wait for the physician to examine the patient

A

b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII

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57
Q

A patient with a new diagnosis of lymphoma is experiencing fatigue. Which of the following is the best way to assess the fatigue?

a) Observe the patient’s activity level
b) Monitor for changes in vital signs
c) Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0 to 10

A

d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0-10

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58
Q

A patient diagnosed with lymphoma is being discharged from the hospital. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

a) “It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection.”
b) “Taking a walk outside will help reduce your stress level.”
c) “It is important for you to increase your dietary intake of iron.”
d) “Your disease often affects the eyes, so television viewing should be minimized.”

A

a) “It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection.”

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59
Q

A patient is having difficulty coping with a new diagnosis of leukemia. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?

a) “Don’t worry. You’ll be okay.”
b) “The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better very soon.”
c) “Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?”
d) “Have you made end-of-life decisions?”

A

c) “Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?”

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60
Q

What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?

a) Avoid showering for 1 week
b) Sleep in a semi-Fowler’s position
c) Receive vaccines against infection
d) Stay on antibiotics for life

A

c) Receive vaccines against infection

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61
Q

____ is the study of blood and its parts, functions and abnormalities

A

Hematology

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62
Q

_____ includes the lymph nodes and nodules that destroy pathogens

A

The lymphatic system

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63
Q

What are the functions of blood??

A

Transportation of O2, nutrients and cellular waste products
Regulation of body temp, pH, and fluid balance
Production of cells that offer body protection

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64
Q

Blood brings in ___ and carries ___ away

A

O2, CO2

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65
Q

Our body holds _ to _ L of blood

A

4 to 6

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66
Q

46-63 %

A

Plasma

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67
Q

38%-48%

A

Formed elements

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68
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

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69
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

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70
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets

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71
Q

What is a normal pH?

A

7.35-7.45

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72
Q

What is the life span of an RBC?

A

80 to 120 days

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73
Q

4 to 7 million/mm3

A

Red blood cells

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74
Q

5,000 to 10,000/mm3

A

White blood cells

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75
Q

What is the lifespan of a white blood cell?

A

13-20 days

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76
Q

150,000 to 400,000/mm3

A

Platelets

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77
Q

What are the lifespan of platelets?

A

8-11 days

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78
Q

Blood cells are produced by _______, a blood producing tissue found in flat and irregular bones

A

red bone marrow

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79
Q

What are other blood producing tissues?

A

Lymph tissue of the lymph nodes, lymph nodules, spleen, thymus

80
Q

__% of plasma is water

A

91

81
Q

What is the function of plasma?

A

It is the transport mechanism for nutrients, waste, hormones, CO2 and antibodies

82
Q

___ is a product produced after the phagocytation of the RBCs.

A

Bilirubin

83
Q

____ acid and vitamin ___ are necessary for RBC production

A

Folic, B12

84
Q

The rate of production of RBCs is influenced by the __ ___ ____

A

blood oxygen level

85
Q

If there is hypoxia, the kidneys secrete _______ which increases the rate of RBC production and thus the O2 carrying capacity of the blood

A

erythropoetin

86
Q

12-18 g

A

Hemoglobin

87
Q

38-54%

A

Hematocrit

88
Q

What is MCV? What does it do?

A

mean corpuscular volume.

It measures the size on a RBC count

89
Q

What is MCH? What does it do?

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

It measures the color

90
Q

What is the function of a white blood cell?

A

Fight infection, produce, transport and distribute antibodies

91
Q 
What does "Never let monkeys eat bananas" stand for?
N
L
M
E
B
A 
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
92
Q

What do lymphocytes do?

A

React to viral infections

93
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Turn into macrophages and phagocytize pathogens and dead tissue

94
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

They phagocytize pathogens

and they are the most numerous WBC

95
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

They respond to parasitic infections

96
Q

What do basophils do?

A

They release histamine during an allergic reaction

97
Q

What are bands?

A

Baby neutrophils

98
Q

What are segs?

A

Adult neutrophils

99
Q

Heparin and antithrombin are in our system to prevent what?

A

excessive clotting

100
Q

What diseases cause an accelerated destruction of RBCs?

A

malaria and sickle cell anemia

101
Q

What are the major paired groups of lymph nodes?

A

Cervical, axillary, and inguinal

102
Q

In the fetus, the ____ produces red blood cells

A

spleen

103
Q

____, ____, and ____ ____ can accompany cancers of the lymph system

A

fatigue, malaise and weight loss

104
Q

____ ____ anemia occurs mostly in African Americans but also affects people of Mediterranean or Asian ancestry

A

sickle cell

105
Q

PT

A

prothrombin time

106
Q

INR

A

international normalized ratio

107
Q

PTT

A

partial thromboplastin time

108
Q

TCT

A

thrombin clotting time

109
Q

What is a direct antiglobulin test also known as?

A

Coombs’ test

110
Q

An accurate bone marrow specimen in an adult can be obtained from where?

A

sternum
the spinous process of the vertebrae
anterior or posterior iliac crest

111
Q

Less than 1.3

A

INR

112
Q

Male: 9.6 to 11.8 seconds
Female: 9.5 to 11.3 seconds

A

PT

113
Q

30-45 seconds

A

PTT

114
Q

10 to 15 seconds

A

TCT

115
Q

2.5-9.5 minutes

A

bleeding time

116
Q

Fewer than 10 petechiae appearing in a 2-inch circle after application of blood pressure cuff at 100 mmHg for 5 minutes

A

capillary fragility test

117
Q

What are packed red blood cells used for?

A

Severe anemia or blood loss

118
Q

What are frozen red blood cells used for?

A

Autotransfusion (blood taken from patient and saved for future surgery), prevention of febrile reactions

119
Q

What is fresh frozen plasma used for?

A

Provides clotting factors for bleeding disorders; occasionally used for volume replacement

120
Q

What are cryoprecipitates used for?

A

Bleeding caused by specific missing clotting factors

121
Q

_____ _____ is caused by rapid transfusion in a short period, particularly in older and debilitated patients. Usual signs and symptoms include chest pain, cough, frothy sputum, distended neck veins, crackles and wheezes in the lung fields, and increased heart rate

A

circulatory overload

122
Q

The most deadly, and fortunately, the rarest of the possible reactions from a blood transfusion is?

A

an acute hemolytic reaction

123
Q

What are the symptoms of an acute hemolytic reaction?

A

Back pain, chest pain, chills, fever, SOB, nausea, vomiting, or a feeling of impending doom

124
Q

What is the most common reaction from a blood transfusion?

A

Febrile reaction

125
Q

Clotting factors such as prothrombin are produced by which structure?

a) Red bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes

A

b) Liver

126
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of erythropoietin?

a) Increases production of platelets to promote clotting
b) Decreases production of platelets to prevent abnormal clotting
c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia
d) Decreases RBC production to prevent hypoxia

A

c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia

127
Q

Why is the return of tissue fluid to the blood important?

a) To maintain blood clotting
b) To maintain blood volume
c) To promote white blood cell formation
d) To promote red blood cell formation

A

b) To maintain blood volume

128
Q

Which of the following is the portion of the blood in which cellular elements are suspended?

a) Cytoplasm
b) Platelets
c) Plasma
d) Hemoglobin

A

c) Plasma

129
Q

Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a patient with a platelet count of 23,000/mm3?

a) Request an order for an anticoagulant
b) Protect the patient from injury
c) Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids
d) No action is necessary. This is a normal level

A

b) Protect the patient from injury

130
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient and finds small red-purple dots all most of his skin surfaces. The patient says that he has not noticed them before. Which action should the nurse take first?

a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician
b) Document the findings objectively in the medical record
c) Assist the patient to apply lotion
d) Administer an antihistamine as needed

A

a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician

131
Q

Which of the following checks should be done before starting a blood transfusion? (Select all that apply)

a) Ask the patient to state his or her name
b) Verify the correct room number
c) Check the patient’s arm band
d) Check the identifying information on the unit of blood
e) Check the temperature of the blood
f) Check the expiration date on the unit of blood

A

a, c, d, f

132
Q

A nurse is monitoring a patient during a blood transfusion. After the blood has been hanging for 30 minutes, the patient’s temperature rises from 98.6 degrees F (37.0 degrees Celsius) at baseline to 101.0 degrees F (38.3 degrees Celsius). The patient also experiences severe chills. Which action should the nurse take first?

a) Document the vital signs in the medical record
b) Administer acetaminophen for the fever
c) Notify the physician of the change
d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution

A

d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution

133
Q

Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find in a patient who has anemia?

a) Pain
b) Dyspnea
c) Vision changes
d) Skin rash

A

b) Dyspnea

134
Q

Which of the following activities is contraindicated for the patient with sickle cell anemia?

a) Riding in an elevator
b) Taking a long car trip
c) Running in a marathon
d) Listening to a concert

A

c) Running in a marathon

135
Q

Which explanation for bleeding should the nurse give to the family member of a patient with DIC?

a) “He is bleeding because he does not have enough RBCs.”
b) “He is bleeding because his white cells are depleted.”
c) “He is bleeding because his blood pressure is so high that it forces blood from mucous membranes.”
d) “He is bleeding because his body’s clotting factors have all been used up.”

A

d) “He is bleeding because his body’s clotting factors have all been used up.”

136
Q

Which instruction will help the mother of a child with hemophilia prevent bleeding episodes?

a) “Your son should avoid contact sports.”
b) “Your son will have to avoid all potentially irritating foods.”
c) “Your son must never shave.”
d) “Your son should always live near a major hospital system.”

A

a) “Your son should avoid contact sports.”

137
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient with thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply)

a) Avoid intramuscular injections
b) Keep visitors who are ill away from the patient
c) Encourage 4 L of fluid daily
d) Avoid use of aspirin and NSAIDs
e) Allow rest between activities
f) Encourage use of shoes or slippers

A

a, d, f

138
Q

Stage III Hodgkin’s disease is defined as which of the following?

a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
b) Localized involvement of more than two adjacent or nonadjacent regions on one side of the diaphragm
c) Diffuse involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs or tissues such as the bone marrow or liver
d) Localized involvement of a single lymph node site, usually located in the cervical or supraclavicular area

A

a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm

139
Q

Which circumstance places the patient at most risk for respiratory complications following a splenectomy?

a) Disturbance of clotting factors
b) Nothing by mouth (NPO) status
c) Need for frequent dressing changes
d) Location of surgical incision

A

d) Location of surgical incision

140
Q

In these blood types, an antigen is present

A

A, B, AB

141
Q

In this blood type, no antigen is present

A

O

142
Q

D antigen is present on RBC

A

Rh +

143
Q

D antigen is not present on RBC

A

Rh -

144
Q

The ratio of plasma to formed blood cell elements is

a) 1:2
b) 2:2
c) 3:2
d) 5:3

A

c) 3:2

145
Q

Which of the following types of blood cells is most numerous in the bloodstream?

a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Pink and purple blood cells

A

b) Red blood cells

146
Q

Which of the following conditions is considered a primary polycythemia?

a) Polycythemia vera
b) Chronic liver disease
c) Acute myelogenous leukemia
d) Hemolytic anemia

A

a) Polycythemia vera

147
Q

A patient who has had a recent blood loss would normally have an increase in which type of blood cell component?

a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Reticulocytes
d) Band cells

A

c) Reticulocytes

148
Q

The test that is done most often to determine blood loss is:

a) Red blood cell count
b) Hemoglobin
c) Hematocrit
d) Platelet count

A

c) Hematocrit

149
Q

The approximate hemoglobin level for a patient who has a hematocrit of 30% is

a) 8 g
b) 10 g
c) 12 g
d) 15 g

A

b) 10 g

150
Q

Which of the following situations may increase the eosinophil count?

a) An allergic reaction
b) Corticosteroid therapy
c) A viral infection
d) A bacterial infection

A

a) An allergic reaction

151
Q

Which of the following indicates a shift to the left on a WBC differential?

a) Decrease in lymphycytes
b) Increase in eosinophils
c) Increase in stab or band cells
d) Decrease in neutrophils

A

c) Increase in stab or band cells

152
Q

Physiological anemia of pregnant refers to a normal drop in hemoglobin that occurs in the

a) 1st trimester
b) 2nd trimester
c) 3rd trimester
d) two weeks after delivery

A

c) 3rd trimester

153
Q

In response to infection, WBC’s stimulate the bone marrow to produce more white blood cells by the secretion of:

a) Erythropoetin
b) T-lymphocytes
c) Colony stimulating factor
d) Macrophages

A

c) Colony stimulating factor

154
Q

Patients with which of the following types of anemia have a high amount of fetal hemoglobin?

a) Pernicious anemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Thalassemia major
d) Iron deficiency anemia

A

c) Thalassemia major

155
Q

Anemia in premature infants most often occurs because

a) Red blood cells have a short life span in newborns
b) Infants make few red blood cells in the first few weeks of life
c) Premature infants are unable to consume iron
d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss

A

d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss

156
Q

The primary harmful effect of anemia is

a) Pale conjunctiva
b) Tissue hypoxia
c) Susceptibility to easy bruising
d) Fatigue

A

b) Tissue hypoxia

157
Q

Which type of cell helps the body resist antigens by releasing heparin and histamine?

a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Neutrophils

A

a) Basophils

158
Q

Which of the following hemoglobin results is abnormal in a woman of any age?

a) 8 gm
b) 12 gm
c) 14 gm
d) 13 gm

A

a) 8 gm

159
Q

Which laboratory study measures the average size of red blood cells?

a) MCV
b) MCH
c) MCHC
d) PBR

A

a) MCV

160
Q

Which type of cell is the first line of defense against bacterial infection?

a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets

A

c) Neutrophils

161
Q

T/F - Polycythemia vera increases the risk of venous thrombosis

A

True

162
Q

T/F - A patient with iron deficiency anemia is likely to have a normocytic, normochromic form of anemia

A

False

163
Q

T/F - Scrupulous handwashing is the most effective method of preventing a life threatening infection in a patient with severe neutropenia

A

True

164
Q

T/F - “Nadir” is the term used to describe the lowest white blood cell count before the count starts to rise in a patient with chemotherapy

A

True

165
Q

T/F - Monocytes produce the antiviral substance interferon

A

True

166
Q

T/F - The nurse can use the “tilt test” to assess the cardiovascular effects of anemia before having a patient perform activities

A

True

167
Q

T/F - Fresh fruit and raw vegetables are eliminated from the diet in a patient with severe neutropenia to lessen the chance of infection

A

True

168
Q

Which of the following laboratory measurements is used to assess the effectiveness of glucose control of people with diabetes

a) HCT
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) Hgb A1C

A

d) Hgb A1C

169
Q

Low RBCs

A

Anemia

170
Q

High RBCs

A

Polycythemia

171
Q

Low WBCs

A

Leukopenia

172
Q

High WBCs

A

Leukocytosis

173
Q

Low platelets

A

Thrombocytopenia

174
Q

High platelets

A

Thrombocytosis

175
Q

Why would you give an iron supplement with orange juice?

A

Because the vitamin C in the orange juice aids in iron absorption

176
Q

What is a Sickledex test?

A

Shows sickling of RBCs when oxygenation is low

177
Q

____ is the destruction, or lysis of RBCs

A

Hemolysis

178
Q

A ____ ___ ____ (CBC) is done to determine the number of RBCs and WBCs per cubic milimeter

A

complete blood count

179
Q

Reduced numbers of all formed elements from the bone marrow - RBCs, platelets and WBCs)

A

Pancytopenia

180
Q

In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow is essentially dead, so when a bone marrow biopsy is performed, the result is pale, fatty, yellow, fibrous bone marrow instead of the red, gelatinous bone marrow that is normally seen. What is this called?

A

Dry tap

181
Q

Sickled cells survive only about __ to __ days

A

10 to 20

182
Q

___ ___ anemia is an inherited anemia in which the RBCs have a specific mutation that makes the hemoglobin in the red cells very sensitive to oxygen changes

A

sickle cell

183
Q

_____ _____ ____ (DIC) involves a series of events that result in hemorrhage. This syndrome is a catastrophic, overwhelming state of accelerated clotting throughout the peripheral blood vessels

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

184
Q

Abnormal bleeding without a history of a serious hemorrhagic disorder is a cardinal sign of ?

A

DIC

185
Q

____ is a group of hereditary bleeding disorders that result from a severe lack of specific clotting factors. There are two common types

A

Hemophilia

186
Q

Hemophilia _ accounts for 80% of all types of hemophilia and results from a deficiency in factor ?

A

A, 8

187
Q

Hemophilia _ is a factor _ deficiency, about 15% of people have this type.

A

B, 9

188
Q

Hemophilia A and B are inherited as _-linked recessive traits

A

X

189
Q

Acute ______ _____ ____ (ITP) results from increased platelet destruction by the immune system. Usually occurs after an acute viral illness, such as rubella or chickenpox.

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

190
Q

_____ _____ ____ (ALL) is the most common cancer in children and involves abnormal growth of the lymphocyte precursors (lymphoblasts)

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

191
Q

______ _____ ____ (AML) usually affects people over age 60 and has a poor prognosis

A

Acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia

192
Q

____ _____ ____ (CLL) predominantly affects the B and T lymphocytes and usually occurs in adults

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

193
Q

____ ____ is a deadly cancer of the plasma cells in the bone marrow. Almost half of the patients die within the first 3 months after diagnosis because of the silent and deadly nature of the disease

A

multiple myeloma

194
Q

What happens in multiple myeloma?

A

Cancerous plasma cells in the bone marrow begin reproducing uncontrollably. These cells infiltrate bone tissue all over the body and produce hundreds of tumors that begin to devour the bone tissue. There are holes in the bones that form a swiss cheese pattern

195
Q

_____ disease is a lymphoma. Its distinguishing feature is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

A

Hodgkin’s

196
Q

Which family member should not be permitted to visit a patient with newly diagnosed leukemia?

a) The one who has a new baby at home
b) The one who has a history of asthma
c) The one who has received recent radiation treatment for cancer
d) The one who has a runny nose

A

d) The one who has a runny nose

197
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions in a priority for the patient with multiple myeloma found in the ribs and femur?

a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls
b) Assist with all ADLs
c) Provide a high-protein, low sodium diet
d) Institute neutropenic precautions

A

a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls

Nursing III (6 decks)

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