Blood and Lymph Exam Flashcards
_______ is a blue-black discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin
Ecchymosis
_____ is the term used to describe swelling from blockage of lymph circulation
Lymphedema
Tiny hemorrhages into the skin creating a polka-dot appearance are called ____
petechiae
_____ is caused by hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs
Purpura
The patient with ______ has an increased risk for bleeding because of a lack of platelets
thrombocytopenia
These destroy pathogens in the lymph from the extremities before the lymph is returned to the blood
Lymph nodes
These collect tissue fluid from intercellular spaces
Lymph capillaries
These prevent backflow of lymph in larger lymph vessels
Valves
These destroy pathogens that penetrate mucous membranes
Lymph nodules
This empties lymph from the lower body and upper left quadrant into the left subclavian vein
Thoracic duct
May become any kind of blood cell
Stem cell
Essential for chemical clotting
Calcium ions
Release histamine
Basophils
A hematopoietic tissue
Red bone marrow
May become cells that produce antibodies
Lymphocytes
Large phagocytic cells
Macrophages
Promotes absorption of vitamin B12
Intrinsic factor
Its fragments become platelets
Megakaryocyte
Carries oxygen in RBCs
Hemoglobin
Pulls tissue fluid into capillaries to maintain blood volume
Albumin
What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?
a) Iron
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
d) Calcium
Through which of the following does lymph return to the blood?
a) Carotid arteries
b) Aorta
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Subclavian veins
d) Subclavian veins
Which of the following is a normal hemoglobin value?
a) 38% to 45%
b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL
c) 48 to 54 mg %
d) 27 to 36 g/dL
b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL
Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?
a) International normalized ratio (INR)
b) Prothrombin time
c) Partial thromboplastin time
d) Bleeding time
c) Partial thromboplastin time
Which blood product replaces missing clotting factors in the patient who has a bleeding disorder?
a) Platelets
b) Packed red blood cells
c) Albumin
d) Cryoprecipitate
d) Cryoprecipitate
Which of the following items are transported in blood plasma? (Select all that apply)
a) Oxygen
b) Nutrients
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hormones
e) Wastes
f) Electrolytes
b, c, d, e, f
A patient is on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy and has an INR of 1.6. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
a) Observe the patient for abnormal bleeding
b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose
c) Advise the patient to double today’s dose of warfarin
d) Administer vitamin K per protocol
b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose
Which gauge intravenous cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?
a) 18
b) 22
c) 24
d) 28
a) 18
A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells reports chest and back pain. How do you respond?
a) Do a complete head-to-toe examination
b) Ask the patient to rate the pain on a 0-10 scale
c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy
d) Administer an analgesic, as needed (PRN)
c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy
The nurse is preparing to assist the physician with a bone marrow biopsy. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to do before the procedure?
a) Explain the procedure to the patient’s family
b) Administer an analgesic to the patient
c) Observe the patient for bleeding
d) Drape the biopsy site
b) Administer an analgesic to the patient
The nurse is providing care for patients on a medical surgical unit. Which of the following patients is at increased risk for infection?
a) A 57 year-old whose white blood cell count = 6,500/mm3
b) A 63 year-old with a platelet count = 110,000/mm3
c) A 49 year-old with a hematocrit = 44%
d) An 88 year-old with neutrophil count of 32%
d) An 88 year-old with a neutrophil count of 32%
T/F - Anemia is a reduction in white blood cells
False
T/F - Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells
True
T/F - Pancytopenia is reduced numbers of all blood cells
True
T/F - Polycythemia is the production of excess blood cells
True
T/F - Phlebotomy is the excision of a vessel
False
T/F - Disseminated intravascular coagulation involves accelerated clotting throughout the circulation
True
T/F - Thrombocytopenia is an increase in platelets
False
T/F - Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the muscles
False
T/F - Leukemia literally means “white blood”
True
T/F - Cancer of the lymph system is called lymphemia
False
T/F - Abnormalities in B cells and T cells can result in lymphoma
True
T/F - Enlargement of the spleen is called splenomegaly
True
Which of the following foods will best help provide dietary iron for a patient who has iron-deficiency anemia?
a) Fresh fruits
b) Lean red meats
c) Dairy products
d) Breads and cereals
b) Lean red meats
A 50 year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse best observe for pallor?
a) Scalp
b) Axillae
c) Chest
d) Conjunctivae
d) Conjunctivae
Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?
a) Palpitations
b) Glossitis
c) Pallor
d) Weight loss
a) Palpitations
For which of the following problems should the nurse monitor in the patient with multiple myeloma?
a) Uncontrolled bleeding
b) Respiratory distress
c) Liver engorgement
d) Pathological fractures
d) Pathological fractures
Which of the following interventions can help minimize complications related to hypercalcemia?
a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
b) Have the patient cough and deep breathe every 2 hours
c) Place the patient on bedrest
d) Apply heat to painful areas
a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of vitamin K ordered before surgery?
a) To correct clotting problems
b) To promote healing
c) To prevent postoperative infection
d) To dry secretions
a) To correct clotting problems
A 27 year-old African American man is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following events most likely contributed to the onset of the crisis?
a) He started a new job last week
b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday
c) He had seafood for dinner last night
d) He has not exercised for a week
b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is examined?
a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes
b) Webbing between fingers and toes
c) Purplish discoloration of hands and feet
d) Deformities of the wrists and ankles
a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes
The nurse has taught a patient with thrombocytopenia how to prevent bleeding. Which of the following is the best evidence that the teaching has been effective?
a) The patient states the importance of avoiding injury
b) The patient can list signs and symptoms of bleeding
c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor
d) The patient lists symptoms that should be reported to the doctor
c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor
Which of the following conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following splenectomy?
a) A low platelet count
b) An incision near the diaphragm
c) Early ambulation
d) Early discharge
b) An incision near the diaphragm
Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the following symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?
a) Bruising around the operative site
b) Irritability
c) Pain
d) Fever
d) Fever
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. The patient asks the nurse why the low hemoglobin causes shortness of breath. Which response is the best?
a) “Anemia prevents your lungs from absorbing oxygen effectively.”
b) “You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues.”
c) “You don’t have enough blood to feed your cells.”
d) “You have lost a lot of blood, and that has damaged your lungs.”
b) “You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues.”
A patient with a history of hemophilia A arrives in the emergency department with a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a) Palpate the patient’s elbow to assess for swelling
b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIIII
c) Prepare the patient for an x-ray examination to determine whether bleeding is occurring
d) Apply heat to the patient’s elbow and wait for the physician to examine the patient
b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII
A patient with a new diagnosis of lymphoma is experiencing fatigue. Which of the following is the best way to assess the fatigue?
a) Observe the patient’s activity level
b) Monitor for changes in vital signs
c) Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0 to 10
d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0-10
A patient diagnosed with lymphoma is being discharged from the hospital. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
a) “It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection.”
b) “Taking a walk outside will help reduce your stress level.”
c) “It is important for you to increase your dietary intake of iron.”
d) “Your disease often affects the eyes, so television viewing should be minimized.”
a) “It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection.”
A patient is having difficulty coping with a new diagnosis of leukemia. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
a) “Don’t worry. You’ll be okay.”
b) “The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better very soon.”
c) “Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?”
d) “Have you made end-of-life decisions?”
c) “Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?”
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
a) Avoid showering for 1 week
b) Sleep in a semi-Fowler’s position
c) Receive vaccines against infection
d) Stay on antibiotics for life
c) Receive vaccines against infection
____ is the study of blood and its parts, functions and abnormalities
Hematology
_____ includes the lymph nodes and nodules that destroy pathogens
The lymphatic system
What are the functions of blood??
Transportation of O2, nutrients and cellular waste products
Regulation of body temp, pH, and fluid balance
Production of cells that offer body protection
Blood brings in ___ and carries ___ away
O2, CO2
Our body holds _ to _ L of blood
4 to 6
46-63 %
Plasma
38%-48%
Formed elements
What are erythrocytes?
Red blood cells
What are leukocytes?
White blood cells
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets
What is a normal pH?
7.35-7.45
What is the life span of an RBC?
80 to 120 days
4 to 7 million/mm3
Red blood cells
5,000 to 10,000/mm3
White blood cells
What is the lifespan of a white blood cell?
13-20 days
150,000 to 400,000/mm3
Platelets
What are the lifespan of platelets?
8-11 days
Blood cells are produced by _______, a blood producing tissue found in flat and irregular bones
red bone marrow
What are other blood producing tissues?
Lymph tissue of the lymph nodes, lymph nodules, spleen, thymus
__% of plasma is water
91
What is the function of plasma?
It is the transport mechanism for nutrients, waste, hormones, CO2 and antibodies
___ is a product produced after the phagocytation of the RBCs.
Bilirubin
____ acid and vitamin ___ are necessary for RBC production
Folic, B12
The rate of production of RBCs is influenced by the __ ___ ____
blood oxygen level
If there is hypoxia, the kidneys secrete _______ which increases the rate of RBC production and thus the O2 carrying capacity of the blood
erythropoetin
12-18 g
Hemoglobin
38-54%
Hematocrit
What is MCV? What does it do?
mean corpuscular volume.
It measures the size on a RBC count
What is MCH? What does it do?
mean corpuscular hemoglobin
It measures the color
What is the function of a white blood cell?
Fight infection, produce, transport and distribute antibodies
What does "Never let monkeys eat bananas" stand for? N L M E B
Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils
What do lymphocytes do?
React to viral infections
What do monocytes do?
Turn into macrophages and phagocytize pathogens and dead tissue
What do neutrophils do?
They phagocytize pathogens
and they are the most numerous WBC
What do eosinophils do?
They respond to parasitic infections
What do basophils do?
They release histamine during an allergic reaction
What are bands?
Baby neutrophils
What are segs?
Adult neutrophils
Heparin and antithrombin are in our system to prevent what?
excessive clotting
What diseases cause an accelerated destruction of RBCs?
malaria and sickle cell anemia
What are the major paired groups of lymph nodes?
Cervical, axillary, and inguinal
In the fetus, the ____ produces red blood cells
spleen
____, ____, and ____ ____ can accompany cancers of the lymph system
fatigue, malaise and weight loss
____ ____ anemia occurs mostly in African Americans but also affects people of Mediterranean or Asian ancestry
sickle cell
PT
prothrombin time
INR
international normalized ratio
PTT
partial thromboplastin time
TCT
thrombin clotting time
What is a direct antiglobulin test also known as?
Coombs’ test
An accurate bone marrow specimen in an adult can be obtained from where?
sternum
the spinous process of the vertebrae
anterior or posterior iliac crest
Less than 1.3
INR
Male: 9.6 to 11.8 seconds
Female: 9.5 to 11.3 seconds
PT
30-45 seconds
PTT
10 to 15 seconds
TCT
2.5-9.5 minutes
bleeding time
Fewer than 10 petechiae appearing in a 2-inch circle after application of blood pressure cuff at 100 mmHg for 5 minutes
capillary fragility test
What are packed red blood cells used for?
Severe anemia or blood loss
What are frozen red blood cells used for?
Autotransfusion (blood taken from patient and saved for future surgery), prevention of febrile reactions
What is fresh frozen plasma used for?
Provides clotting factors for bleeding disorders; occasionally used for volume replacement
What are cryoprecipitates used for?
Bleeding caused by specific missing clotting factors
_____ _____ is caused by rapid transfusion in a short period, particularly in older and debilitated patients. Usual signs and symptoms include chest pain, cough, frothy sputum, distended neck veins, crackles and wheezes in the lung fields, and increased heart rate
circulatory overload
The most deadly, and fortunately, the rarest of the possible reactions from a blood transfusion is?
an acute hemolytic reaction
What are the symptoms of an acute hemolytic reaction?
Back pain, chest pain, chills, fever, SOB, nausea, vomiting, or a feeling of impending doom
What is the most common reaction from a blood transfusion?
Febrile reaction
Clotting factors such as prothrombin are produced by which structure?
a) Red bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes
b) Liver
Which of the following best describes the function of erythropoietin?
a) Increases production of platelets to promote clotting
b) Decreases production of platelets to prevent abnormal clotting
c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia
d) Decreases RBC production to prevent hypoxia
c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia
Why is the return of tissue fluid to the blood important?
a) To maintain blood clotting
b) To maintain blood volume
c) To promote white blood cell formation
d) To promote red blood cell formation
b) To maintain blood volume
Which of the following is the portion of the blood in which cellular elements are suspended?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Platelets
c) Plasma
d) Hemoglobin
c) Plasma
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a patient with a platelet count of 23,000/mm3?
a) Request an order for an anticoagulant
b) Protect the patient from injury
c) Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids
d) No action is necessary. This is a normal level
b) Protect the patient from injury
A nurse is assessing a patient and finds small red-purple dots all most of his skin surfaces. The patient says that he has not noticed them before. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician
b) Document the findings objectively in the medical record
c) Assist the patient to apply lotion
d) Administer an antihistamine as needed
a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician
Which of the following checks should be done before starting a blood transfusion? (Select all that apply)
a) Ask the patient to state his or her name
b) Verify the correct room number
c) Check the patient’s arm band
d) Check the identifying information on the unit of blood
e) Check the temperature of the blood
f) Check the expiration date on the unit of blood
a, c, d, f
A nurse is monitoring a patient during a blood transfusion. After the blood has been hanging for 30 minutes, the patient’s temperature rises from 98.6 degrees F (37.0 degrees Celsius) at baseline to 101.0 degrees F (38.3 degrees Celsius). The patient also experiences severe chills. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Document the vital signs in the medical record
b) Administer acetaminophen for the fever
c) Notify the physician of the change
d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution
d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find in a patient who has anemia?
a) Pain
b) Dyspnea
c) Vision changes
d) Skin rash
b) Dyspnea
Which of the following activities is contraindicated for the patient with sickle cell anemia?
a) Riding in an elevator
b) Taking a long car trip
c) Running in a marathon
d) Listening to a concert
c) Running in a marathon
Which explanation for bleeding should the nurse give to the family member of a patient with DIC?
a) “He is bleeding because he does not have enough RBCs.”
b) “He is bleeding because his white cells are depleted.”
c) “He is bleeding because his blood pressure is so high that it forces blood from mucous membranes.”
d) “He is bleeding because his body’s clotting factors have all been used up.”
d) “He is bleeding because his body’s clotting factors have all been used up.”
Which instruction will help the mother of a child with hemophilia prevent bleeding episodes?
a) “Your son should avoid contact sports.”
b) “Your son will have to avoid all potentially irritating foods.”
c) “Your son must never shave.”
d) “Your son should always live near a major hospital system.”
a) “Your son should avoid contact sports.”
Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient with thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply)
a) Avoid intramuscular injections
b) Keep visitors who are ill away from the patient
c) Encourage 4 L of fluid daily
d) Avoid use of aspirin and NSAIDs
e) Allow rest between activities
f) Encourage use of shoes or slippers
a, d, f
Stage III Hodgkin’s disease is defined as which of the following?
a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
b) Localized involvement of more than two adjacent or nonadjacent regions on one side of the diaphragm
c) Diffuse involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs or tissues such as the bone marrow or liver
d) Localized involvement of a single lymph node site, usually located in the cervical or supraclavicular area
a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
Which circumstance places the patient at most risk for respiratory complications following a splenectomy?
a) Disturbance of clotting factors
b) Nothing by mouth (NPO) status
c) Need for frequent dressing changes
d) Location of surgical incision
d) Location of surgical incision
In these blood types, an antigen is present
A, B, AB
In this blood type, no antigen is present
O
D antigen is present on RBC
Rh +
D antigen is not present on RBC
Rh -
The ratio of plasma to formed blood cell elements is
a) 1:2
b) 2:2
c) 3:2
d) 5:3
c) 3:2
Which of the following types of blood cells is most numerous in the bloodstream?
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Pink and purple blood cells
b) Red blood cells
Which of the following conditions is considered a primary polycythemia?
a) Polycythemia vera
b) Chronic liver disease
c) Acute myelogenous leukemia
d) Hemolytic anemia
a) Polycythemia vera
A patient who has had a recent blood loss would normally have an increase in which type of blood cell component?
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Reticulocytes
d) Band cells
c) Reticulocytes
The test that is done most often to determine blood loss is:
a) Red blood cell count
b) Hemoglobin
c) Hematocrit
d) Platelet count
c) Hematocrit
The approximate hemoglobin level for a patient who has a hematocrit of 30% is
a) 8 g
b) 10 g
c) 12 g
d) 15 g
b) 10 g
Which of the following situations may increase the eosinophil count?
a) An allergic reaction
b) Corticosteroid therapy
c) A viral infection
d) A bacterial infection
a) An allergic reaction
Which of the following indicates a shift to the left on a WBC differential?
a) Decrease in lymphycytes
b) Increase in eosinophils
c) Increase in stab or band cells
d) Decrease in neutrophils
c) Increase in stab or band cells
Physiological anemia of pregnant refers to a normal drop in hemoglobin that occurs in the
a) 1st trimester
b) 2nd trimester
c) 3rd trimester
d) two weeks after delivery
c) 3rd trimester
In response to infection, WBC’s stimulate the bone marrow to produce more white blood cells by the secretion of:
a) Erythropoetin
b) T-lymphocytes
c) Colony stimulating factor
d) Macrophages
c) Colony stimulating factor
Patients with which of the following types of anemia have a high amount of fetal hemoglobin?
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Thalassemia major
d) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Thalassemia major
Anemia in premature infants most often occurs because
a) Red blood cells have a short life span in newborns
b) Infants make few red blood cells in the first few weeks of life
c) Premature infants are unable to consume iron
d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss
d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss
The primary harmful effect of anemia is
a) Pale conjunctiva
b) Tissue hypoxia
c) Susceptibility to easy bruising
d) Fatigue
b) Tissue hypoxia
Which type of cell helps the body resist antigens by releasing heparin and histamine?
a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Neutrophils
a) Basophils
Which of the following hemoglobin results is abnormal in a woman of any age?
a) 8 gm
b) 12 gm
c) 14 gm
d) 13 gm
a) 8 gm
Which laboratory study measures the average size of red blood cells?
a) MCV
b) MCH
c) MCHC
d) PBR
a) MCV
Which type of cell is the first line of defense against bacterial infection?
a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets
c) Neutrophils
T/F - Polycythemia vera increases the risk of venous thrombosis
True
T/F - A patient with iron deficiency anemia is likely to have a normocytic, normochromic form of anemia
False
T/F - Scrupulous handwashing is the most effective method of preventing a life threatening infection in a patient with severe neutropenia
True
T/F - “Nadir” is the term used to describe the lowest white blood cell count before the count starts to rise in a patient with chemotherapy
True
T/F - Monocytes produce the antiviral substance interferon
True
T/F - The nurse can use the “tilt test” to assess the cardiovascular effects of anemia before having a patient perform activities
True
T/F - Fresh fruit and raw vegetables are eliminated from the diet in a patient with severe neutropenia to lessen the chance of infection
True
Which of the following laboratory measurements is used to assess the effectiveness of glucose control of people with diabetes
a) HCT
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) Hgb A1C
d) Hgb A1C
Low RBCs
Anemia
High RBCs
Polycythemia
Low WBCs
Leukopenia
High WBCs
Leukocytosis
Low platelets
Thrombocytopenia
High platelets
Thrombocytosis
Why would you give an iron supplement with orange juice?
Because the vitamin C in the orange juice aids in iron absorption
What is a Sickledex test?
Shows sickling of RBCs when oxygenation is low
____ is the destruction, or lysis of RBCs
Hemolysis
A ____ ___ ____ (CBC) is done to determine the number of RBCs and WBCs per cubic milimeter
complete blood count
Reduced numbers of all formed elements from the bone marrow - RBCs, platelets and WBCs)
Pancytopenia
In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow is essentially dead, so when a bone marrow biopsy is performed, the result is pale, fatty, yellow, fibrous bone marrow instead of the red, gelatinous bone marrow that is normally seen. What is this called?
Dry tap
Sickled cells survive only about __ to __ days
10 to 20
___ ___ anemia is an inherited anemia in which the RBCs have a specific mutation that makes the hemoglobin in the red cells very sensitive to oxygen changes
sickle cell
_____ _____ ____ (DIC) involves a series of events that result in hemorrhage. This syndrome is a catastrophic, overwhelming state of accelerated clotting throughout the peripheral blood vessels
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Abnormal bleeding without a history of a serious hemorrhagic disorder is a cardinal sign of ?
DIC
____ is a group of hereditary bleeding disorders that result from a severe lack of specific clotting factors. There are two common types
Hemophilia
Hemophilia _ accounts for 80% of all types of hemophilia and results from a deficiency in factor ?
A, 8
Hemophilia _ is a factor _ deficiency, about 15% of people have this type.
B, 9
Hemophilia A and B are inherited as _-linked recessive traits
X
Acute ______ _____ ____ (ITP) results from increased platelet destruction by the immune system. Usually occurs after an acute viral illness, such as rubella or chickenpox.
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
_____ _____ ____ (ALL) is the most common cancer in children and involves abnormal growth of the lymphocyte precursors (lymphoblasts)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
______ _____ ____ (AML) usually affects people over age 60 and has a poor prognosis
Acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
____ _____ ____ (CLL) predominantly affects the B and T lymphocytes and usually occurs in adults
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
____ ____ is a deadly cancer of the plasma cells in the bone marrow. Almost half of the patients die within the first 3 months after diagnosis because of the silent and deadly nature of the disease
multiple myeloma
What happens in multiple myeloma?
Cancerous plasma cells in the bone marrow begin reproducing uncontrollably. These cells infiltrate bone tissue all over the body and produce hundreds of tumors that begin to devour the bone tissue. There are holes in the bones that form a swiss cheese pattern
_____ disease is a lymphoma. Its distinguishing feature is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
Hodgkin’s
Which family member should not be permitted to visit a patient with newly diagnosed leukemia?
a) The one who has a new baby at home
b) The one who has a history of asthma
c) The one who has received recent radiation treatment for cancer
d) The one who has a runny nose
d) The one who has a runny nose
Which of the following nursing interventions in a priority for the patient with multiple myeloma found in the ribs and femur?
a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls
b) Assist with all ADLs
c) Provide a high-protein, low sodium diet
d) Institute neutropenic precautions
a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls
