Blood and Immune Flashcards

1
Q

What are four barriers either physical or physiological?

A

Skin, mucocillary glands, low pH of stomach, lysozyme (tears and saliva).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 6 main components of blood?

A
  1. Cells
  2. Protein
  3. Lipids
  4. Electrolytes
  5. Vitamins/ Hormones
  6. Glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the respective percentages of plasma, RBCs and buffy coat?

A

Plasma - 55% RBCs - 45% Other < 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 main types of blood cells?

A
  1. Erthrocytes ~ 5-6 million/ mL
  2. Leukocytes ~ 10,000/ mL
  3. Platelets ~ 400000/mL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 2 serum proteins that are shown using electrophoresis?

A

Albumin and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 types of immunoglobulins seen in electrophoresis

A

α1, α2, ß, γ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disease can be detected using electrophoresis?

A

multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fibrinogen makes up what percentage of blood proteins?

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Myeloblast is the progenitor for which cells and what type of immunity do these cells provide?

A

The Basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil, monocyte (which becomes a macrophage). These provide innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the small lymphocyte a progenitor for and what immunity does this provide?

A

T- Lymphocyte and B- Lymphocyte (goes to plasma cell) these provide adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the three factors that drive haematopoiesis?

A

GM – CSF, EPO, G – CSF

GM- CSF : granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor

EPO: Erthropoietin

G- CSF: Granulocyte colony- stimulating factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are C3a, C4a and C5a?

A

Anaphylotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes opsinisation?

A

Conversion of C3 to C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

02What forms the lytic pore creating the MAC?

A

C5 cleaving to C5b. This combines with C6 C7 C8 C9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is gram positive bacteria?

A

Bacteria with a thick peptidoglycan wall, they require phagocytosis and can not be killed by complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is gram negative bacteria?

A

gram negative bacteria Have a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by in outer membrane these can be killed using compliment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the major blood proteins? (5)

A
  1. Albumin (~ 50% blood protein)
  2. Immunoglobulins
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Complement (There are 9 proteins of complement)
  5. Coagulation factors (There are 13 Coagulation proteins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three types of innate immunity?

A
  1. Complement
  2. Myeloid cells an phagocytosis
  3. Pattern recognition receptors (PRR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three main types of pathogens?

A
  1. Viruses
  2. Bacteria
  3. Parasites & protozoa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do Influenza, polio, small pox and HIV have in common?

A

They are all viruses who require cellular immunity to fight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do tuberculosis cholera Staphylococcus aureus and strep pyogenes have in common?

A

They are all bacteria and their defence is primarily mediated by innate mechanisms and phagocytose this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 5 steps of neutrophil extravasation?

A
  1. Activation: Chemokines (like anaphylotoxins) are released from site of injury or inflammation
  2. Tethering: The selectins on the capillary wall and the sialyl lewis x on the neurophil interact which slows the neutrophil.
  3. Adhesion: There is strong binding between the integrins on the neutrophil and the ICAM-1 on the endothelium
  4. Diapadesis
  5. Chemotaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 7 steps of antibody mediated phagocytosis?

A
  1. IgM and IgG bind to bacterial antigens
  2. The binding exposes the Fc region
  3. The neutrophil FcR binds multivalent Fc
  4. Phagocytosis is activated
  5. The membrane invaginates and forms a phagosome
  6. The phagosome fuses with lysosome(s) to fomr a phagolysosome
  7. The Acid from the lysosome acidifies and digests the bacteria
24
Q

Toll like receptors are and example of?

A

Pattern recognition receptors (there are 9 TLRs we need to know exsist)

25
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

A Pathogen associated molecular patterns that are unique to microbes and are recognised by PRRs. An example of a PAMP is G-ve bacteria

26
Q

What is Lipopolysaccharide?

A

Like a polysaccharide is a component of the shell of a gram negative bacteria. It is a highly complex molecule that stimulates TLR-4 cross-linking which stimulates a powerful immune response.

LPS is a pyrogen this means it causes fever rigour-hypertension and can be fatal it causes a condition called septic shock.

27
Q

What is the role of IgM?

A

IgM is the default antibody produced by all immature B cells, It is either in the membrane of the immature B cell or secreted by the immature B cell. Its role is to interact with antigens that the body has not encountered before. It exsists in a pentameric form.

28
Q

What is the role of IgG?

A

IgG is produced by B cells that have encountered an antigen. This is high affinity. It is only found in the plasma and is NOT membrane bound. It passes through the placenta to the fetus

29
Q

What is the role of IgD?

A

IgD is produced by Immature B cells, It is both Soluable and membrane bound.

30
Q

What is IgE?

A

IgE, it binds an antigen which activates a mast cell which in turn releases histomine. Histomine causes an inflammatory response.

31
Q

What is IgA?

A

IgA is a dimer, which is found in the serum in a soluable form as well as the mucosa. It is found in breast milk.

32
Q

How did adaptive immunity occur?

A

Jawless fish – transposon inserted into receptor gene the transposon moved away – the ancient transposons are called rag1 and rag2 - Recognition sequences are based pairs that are found at the end of the gene sequence and are identical in all species that possess adaptive immunity

33
Q

What does the Ig protein fold consists of?

A

To antiparallel ß sheets made up of seven or nine ß strands the two ß sheets live parallel. They are held together using disulphide bonds

34
Q

What is the total molecular weight of an IG molecule and what are the weights always a multiple of?

A

The heavy chains are between 50 -75kD each the light chains are 25kD a total IgG molecule is 150 kD and is always a multiple of 25kD

35
Q

What are the three discrete regions of the antigen binding site called?

A

Complementarity determining regions

36
Q

How many heavy and light chains are part of the antigen binding site and what is the size of the flat surface

A

Three heavy chains and three light chains that for my flat surface of 800Å

37
Q

What are the steps of genetic recombination in an immature B lymphocyte?

A

First the heavy chain D segment joins to a J segment

then a V segment joins to a D segment

this forms pre-RNA which is spliced to a C region segment.

This and precise joining leads to a huge diversity in the finally joined DNA sequence.

38
Q

What does VDJ join region code for?

A

CDR3

39
Q

What is the difference between clonal selection and somatic hypermutation?

A

Somatic hyper mutation is the act of making lots of individual keys and clonal selection is the process of choosing the best keys over time that will unlock a lock

40
Q

what are the relative percentages of CD8+ and CD4+ cells in the blood

A

CD8+ (cytotoxic) - 20%

CD4+ (Helper) - 80%

41
Q

What is positive T-cell selection

A

T-cells that HAVE recognised the right self-antigen but have responded too strongly thus are actively killed by apoptosis

42
Q

What is negative t-cell selection

A

Dying by neglect: T-cell hasn’t recognised the right antigen to allow it to activate and undergo mitosis which is

43
Q

What are the four types of CD4+ helper cells?

A
  1. Treg
  2. Th1
  3. Th2
  4. Th17
44
Q

What is the role of Treg

A

Suppress the immune response

45
Q

What is the role of Th1

A

Promotes cell mediated immunity

46
Q

what is the role of Th2

A

Promotes Antibody mediated immunity

47
Q

What is the role of Th17

A

Promotes inflammation

48
Q

What does the CD8+ cell look for when deciding to kill?

A

An MHC I molecule and a viral peptide

49
Q

What are cytotoxins that CD8+ cells release?

A

Perforin

granzyme B

50
Q

What are the 3 class I and II Human Leukocyte Antigens?

A

Class I: A B and C

Class II DR, DP, DQ

51
Q

What are five things that T helper cells do?

A
  1. Drive B cells to undergo affinity maturation
  2. Drive dendritic cells to process antigen
  3. Define what class of antibody is produced
  4. Make a night cells hyper responsive
  5. Define what type of immune response dominates for example more CTL or less CTL
52
Q

How many MHC polymorphic molecules are expressed on a cell?

A

12, six maternal and six paternal

53
Q

What are two major consequences of it MHC polymorphism?

A

Tissue transplantation is difficult except for identical twins, this requires careful matching and immuno suppressant drugs

MHC polymorphisms are strongly linked to most autoimmune diseases

54
Q

What do asthma eczema drugs food proteins nickel and insects all have in common?

A

They can all induce type one allergies

55
Q

how are allergies created?

A

When first exposed to an allergen the body mounts and inappropriate be so response that produces IgE the next time the individual comes into contact with the allergen the IgE stimulates mast cells which release histamine this causes an allergic reaction.