Block III - General Law & Claims Flashcards

1
Q

Cards labeled “PAC flashcard” denote flashcards pulled from my previous decks during PAC that may be useful and do not always contain information discussed in class.

PAC flashcard

A

Mark this one Blue (5).

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2
Q

Restate how Article 138, UCMJ complaints are processed. (W)

A
  • Initial Application to CC.
  • Commander’s Review
  • Commander Notifies Member
  • Member Makes Formal 138 Complaint
  • GCMCA’s Review
  • GCMCA Notifies Member & Forwards to JAA
  • SECAF Review (JAA)
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3
Q

Cite examples of situations giving rise to complaints under Article 138, UCMJ. (W)

A

Unlawful pre-trial confinement
Deferral of post-trial confinement
Admin actions in lieu of C-M or NJP
Decoration type items

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4
Q

Who is the final authority for final review of formal complaints?

A

AF/JAA is the authority for final review for formal complaints

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5
Q

Who is responsible for submitting the Article 138 complaint?

A

The member, BUT ADC may assist and submit on behalf of member

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6
Q

What AFI covers Article 138 complaints?

A

AFI 51-505

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7
Q

How long does the member have from discovery of the wrong to submit, in writing, the complaint to their CC?

A

90 days

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8
Q

What must or can the initial CC receiving the Art 138 complaint do?

A
  • Must consult with servicing SJA
  • May initiate inquiries necessary for response
  • May consider evidence in addition to matters member submitted before responding to member
  • Everything used by CC MUST be sent to GCMCA as well.
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9
Q

When does an Article 138 complaint go from informal to formal?

A

When it is submitted to the GCMCA

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10
Q

How long does the CC have to respond to the member?

A
  • No later than 30 days.
  • CC may notify of additional time for fact gathering (and must be sent to member every 30 days as needed)
  • Otherwise CC will notify of relief granted, relief denied in full or in part and CC must specify why, or of forwarding the complaint to appropriate office
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11
Q

When can the member submit the Article 138 complaint to the GCMCA?

A

When the informal complaint at the CC level dismisses the relief in whole or in part.

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12
Q

How long does the member have to apply in writing to the GCMCA review of the Article 138 complaint?

A

30 days from CC’s decision to dismiss the relief in whole or in part

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13
Q

What AFI and attachment must the member use to request GCMCA review of the Article 138 complaint?

A

AFI 51-505, attachment 3

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14
Q

Can the member add new allegations in the Article 138 complaint submitted to the GCMCA?

A

No

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15
Q

What must or will the GCMCA do upon receipt of the Article 138 complaint?

A
  • Consult with GCMCA SJA and obtain written legal review
  • May conduct an investigation as needed to respond
  • May consider other authority’s findings on collateral matters
  • must notify member, within 60 days of application for redress, of relief denied (and why), granted, part or whole, lack of authority and forwarding, or deferral for fact finding.
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16
Q

Who has ultimate authority on all Art 138 complaints?

A

AF/JAA

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17
Q

Who must the GCMCA send a copy of the Art 138 complaint file to, regardless of decision to grant in full or deny in whole or part?

A

AF/JAA

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18
Q

Who provides final decision to GCMCA for the Article 138 Complaint?

A

AF/JAA

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19
Q

What does AF/JAA notify member of?

A
  • Completion of their review
  • Further action on the complaint
  • Reasons for that action (if applicable)
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20
Q

Explain key principles of tort law. (W)

A
  • Tort
  • Civil Wrong
  • One party causes personal injury/damage to another
  • May be held liable for damages
  • Elements of tort
  • Duty to do / not to do certain acts
  • Breach or violation of that duty
  • Breach caused/was proximate cause of damage
  • Breach / violation caused damage, personal injury, death
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21
Q

Explain the statutory requirements of the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA). (W)

A

Stateside ONLY

  • Proper Claimants
    –Owners of property that was damaged, individual who was injured, an executor (if individual passed away), insurance company (subrogation)

-Improper Claimants
–Other federal agencies

  • Statute of Limitations
  • FTCA has a two-year limitation (Federal trumps state f/ Statute of limitations).
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22
Q

Differentiate between FTCA statutory and state law procedures. (W)

A

— State substantive law applies
* Damage limitation cause of action
* All defenses available to private person
* Cause of action (tort elements)
* Scope of employment

— Federal Procedural rules apply (and trump state)
* Two year statute of limitations
* Must file administrative claim first (some sort of written demand must be presented)

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23
Q

Explain the statutory requirements of the Military Claims Act (MCA). (W)

A

— Proper Claimants
* Citizens who are US inhabitants (dependents of military members)
* federal civilian employees temporarily assigned outside the U.S. on behalf of the U.S.,
* Military personnel and federal civilians

— Improper Claimants
* Governments of a foreign nation
* Inhabitants from a foreign country where damages occurred in a foreign country

— Statute of Limitations
* Two years (same as FTCA)

— Damages
* US not liable under strict liability rules
* Up to individual to prove what they claim
* No punitive damages are awarded. Only awards are for what it costs to bring the person/item back to whole.

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24
Q

Differentiate between the tort and non-combat provisions under the Military Claims Act (MCA). (W)

A

–MCA (Act of Grace) Negligent or Wrongful Act or Omission (tort)
* Requires negligent act or omission and scope of employment
* Claimant must prove negligence
* Claims arising in U.S. – State law where the act or omission occurred
* Claims arising overseas – multiple rules for determining

—Noncombat Activity
* Essentially military in nature (has no similar civilian equivalent activity).
* Sonic boom, EOD, etc
* No proof of negligence (causal connection)

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25
Q

In regards to Claims Administration what does the following term mean?

Tort

A

`A civil wrong in which one party causes personal injury or property damage to another and may be liable in damages. Some elements must be met for a tort, which are:

the duty to do or not to do a certain act;

a breach or violation of that duty occurred;

breach caused/was proximate cause of damage;

that breach or violation of duty caused property damage, personal injury or death

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26
Q

What does MCA apply to?

PAC flashcard

A

Settling claims against the US for damage to or loss of property, personal injury, or death, resulting from the negligent or wrongful act(s) or omission(s) of AF military or civilian personnel while acting within the scope of their employment, or otherwise incident to AF non-combat activities (NCA)

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27
Q

What are MCA exceptions?

PAC flashcard

A

Combat activities of US mil forces; personal injury or death of a mbr of armed forces of the US incident to service; and personal injury or death that results wholly from the claimants negligent or wrongful act(s)

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28
Q

Define Tortfeasor

PAC flashcard

A

One who commits or is guilty of a tort

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29
Q

Describe claims jurisdiction as it relates to the Federal Tort Claims Act

PAC flashcard

A

FTCA covers damage to or loss of property or personal injury or death resulting from the negligent or wrongful act(s) or omission(s) of AF military or civilian personnel while acting within the scope of their employment.

Claims under FTCA apply to accidents and/or incidents arising within the US and its territories.

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30
Q

What does FTCA NOT apply to?

PAC flashcard

A

Overseas claims or non-combat activities

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31
Q

Determine appropriate forms for claims under FTCA

PAC flashcard

A

SF 95, Claim for Injury, Damage, or Death

If the incident involved a vehicle accident, a SF 91, Motor Vehicle Accident (Crash) Report, will be required with the SF 95

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32
Q

Explain the statute of limitations for claims under FTCA

A

The statute of limitations is 2 years

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33
Q

Recall the difference between FTCA and MCA flow chart

PAC flashcard

A

This chart denotes which acts to use stateside or overseas based on the type of claim and who is making it

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34
Q

Discuss procedures to determine proper claimants under the Federal Tort Claims Act (FTCA)

PAC flashcard

A

Persons (typically civilians) suffering damage, injury, or death if a private person would be held liable.

Military and fed employees (rare circumstances)

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35
Q

Recall elements of FTCA

A

Injury to person or property
Due to negligence or wrongful act or omission
Employee of the United States Government (USG) AND acting within the scope of employment
Under circumstances where the USG, if a private person, would be liable

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36
Q

Can other federal agencies file a tort claim against another federal agency?

PAC flashcard

A

No

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37
Q

Define Comparative negligence

PAC flashcard

A

A rule applied by some states, which measures negligence in terms of percentage of liability, and limits each party’s recovery to the percentage caused by the other party (very few states use this)

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38
Q

Define Contributory negligence

PAC flashcard

A

When a party presenting a claim contributed to the cause of the accident (negligence), some states prohibit parties from recovering an amount, regardless of their degree of negligence

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39
Q

Define Negligence

PAC flashcard

A

Failure to act as a reasonably prudent person would if under the same or similar circumstances

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40
Q

Define Non-combat Activity

PAC flashcard

A

Activity other than combat, war, or armed conflict that is particularly military in nature, has little parallel in civilian pursuits and has been historically considered as furnishing the proper basis for a claim

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41
Q

How much advance payment can a claimant get through an MCA claim?

A

Up to $100,000

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42
Q

Can an advance payment be provided for an FTCA claim?

A

No

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43
Q

Where can MCA claims be made?

A

Overseas and Stateside

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44
Q

FTCA can only be claimed where?

A

Stateside

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45
Q

What is the statute of limitations for MCA?

A

Two years

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46
Q

Who are proper claimants for MCA?

A
  • Citizens who are US inhabitants (dependents of military members)
  • federal civilian employees temporarily assigned outside the U.S. on behalf of the U.S.,
  • Military personnel and federal civilians
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47
Q

What are the MCA Exceptions/Defenses?

A
  • Constitutional claims
  • Civilian employees for work related injuries or death
  • Claims resulting from negligence of claimant
  • Incident to service for injury or death (non-medical malpractice)
  • Combat Activities
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48
Q

What are the FTCA Exceptions/Defenses?

A
  • Discretionary Function
  • Permissible exercise of policy judgement
  • Two-part test
  • Was there an element of choice (did we prove all FTCA elements were met?)
  • Was it the kind Congress intended to protect
  • Damage incurred in performance of duty
  • Federal civilian employee claims of personal injury or death are barred
  • Damage/injury/death incurred incident to service (Feres Doctrine)
  • Rationale – peculiar relationship of soldiers and supervisors & effect on good order and discipline (Ex: medical doctors leaves a tool inside a person during surgery).
  • NDAA 2020 (added provisions that allowed for administrative relief.)
  • Derivative claims of family members
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49
Q

What’s the Air Force Claims Service Center website?

A

https://claims.jag.af.mil

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50
Q

Explain how to locate specific items on the Air Force Claims Service Center (AFCSC) Web Site. (W)

A

—Tort claims information
— Hot notices
-Outage to website or changes posted here

—Important information section (most used, claims for HHG and non-HHG)
* This is where those who are retired or separated or retiring/separating within 120 days can start their claim
* HHG (baggage, shipped motorcycles and vehicles)
* Non-HHG (disaster claims, food spoilage, thefts, vandalism, etc)
* User Guide – all the background needed to file
* Within User guide (left side) there is a lot of information such as before you move, what you need before filing, additional links, repair sources, etc.

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51
Q

Where can you find the AFCSC Action Officer Handbook?

A

FLITEKM > Civil Law > Claims > Claims Service Center

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52
Q

Define Personal injury

PAC flashcard

A

Applies to both bodily injury and death

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53
Q

Define Proximate cause

PAC flashcard

A

The dominant or primary cause of an injury or loss

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54
Q

Describe important steps in preparing and conducting a witness interview. (W)

A
  • Review all available witness and case information
    – Prepare for witness interview
    • ID yourself as AF representative
    • Take careful notes (body language, demeanor, behavior, statements, reactions).
    • Do not record the interview
    • If you suspect criminal activity - stop & contact JACC
  • Prepare open ended questions
  • Prepare pre-planned questions
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55
Q

Explain the importance of properly prepared/authenticated witness statements. (W)

A
  • Work product statement on EVERY PAGE. witness does not get a copy.
  • No recording without prior approval.
  • Purpose: memoralize interview
  • Full name
  • Current work and home telephone number
  • Current work and home address
  • If military: Last four of SSN, home of record, PCS information
  • Short description of witness involvement
  • Paralegal or Attorney signs and add to file
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56
Q

Identify appropriate uses of reports from other agencies in processing claims. (W)

A
  • Security Forces – Reports & Analysis section (G-claims, blotter)
  • Transportation Office – GOVs records (condition prior to incident)
  • Civil Engineering – structural records (buildings barriers)
  • Flight Operations – Sonic booms, aircraft flight times, etc
  • Commissary and AAFES – Video footage & incident reports. Slip and fall accidents
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57
Q

Explain the purpose of potential claims files. (W)

A
  • Preserve evidence
  • Maintain claimant information
  • Maintain continuity
  • Claimant has 2 years to file claim
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58
Q

With regard to claims investigation and interviews, who must you get permission from to record an interview of a witness?

A

JACC

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59
Q

With regard to claims investigation and interviews, if you are in the interview and suspect criminal conduct, what should you do?

A

Stop the interview and call JACC for further instruction.

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60
Q

What must be on every page of the witness interview memorandum?

A

the required work product statement.

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61
Q

When should you prepare the witness interview memorandum?

A

As soon as possible you can memoralize as much detail as possible.

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62
Q

What is this statement?
“This memorandum has been prepared by an Air Force Judge Advocate (or paralegal) while investigating a claim or potential claim for damages against the United States. The attorney’s (or paralegal’s) impressions and observations summarized herein were obtained in anticipation of future litigation involving the same incident, and this memorandum would not have been prepared in the normal course of Air Force business activities, but for the possibility that litigation might ensue.”

A

Work product statement

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63
Q

With regard to claims investigation and interviews, what details should be included about the witness?

A
  • Full name, current work and home phone numbers, current work and home address.
  • If military: last four of SSN, home of record, PCS information.
  • Short description of witness involvement
  • Signature of paralegal or attorney who drafted.
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64
Q

Does the claimant get a copy of the witness interview memorandum(s)?

A

NO They are not entitled to a copy of this/these statements (it’s attorney work-product).

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65
Q

What agencies may aid us in finding evidence?

A
  • Security Forces – Reports & Analysis section (G-claims, blotter)
  • Transportation Office – GOVs records
  • Civil Engineering – structural records
  • Flight Operations – Sonic booms, aircraft flight times, etc
  • Commissary and AAFES – Slip and fall accidents
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66
Q

When are potential claims files created?

A

An investigation is conducted to determine the amount of damages potential claimants may have incurred during a major accident, natural disaster, or military activity

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67
Q

When is a master claim file created?

A

When there may be 5 or more potential claimants as the result of damages incurred during a major accident, natural disaster, or military activity.

Ex: Hurricane destroys a bunch of property

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68
Q

Why are potential claims files created?

A
  • Preserve evidence
  • Maintain claimant information
  • Maintain continuity (claimant has 2 years to file)
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69
Q

Explain procedural requirements to properly settle tort claims. (W)

A
  • Administrative claim done on SF 95
  • Gov has 6 months to process/ amendments reset 6 month clock
  • If settlement is above $25k it must go to JACC
  • Once amount determined, send offer letter and settlement agreement (Settlement agreement MUST be signed)
  • Greater than $2.5k = judgement fund/ less than $2.5k= SF 1034 submitted to Claims Service Center (CSC).
  • If denying FTCA, letter must include title and legal citation of statute, if they have the option to file suit and how long to do so .
  • If denying MCA, Title and citation listed, notice that it’s the final denial of the administrative claim, that they can appeal within 60 days of the date of the letter, must be in writing.
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70
Q

Explain procedural requirements for processing appeals under the Military Claims Act. (W)

A
  • Claimant has 60 days to request an appeal.
  • Appeal goes to original office that denied claim
  • Must be in writing
  • Provide additional items claimant deems necessary
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71
Q

What must be included in an MCA denial letter?

A
  • Title & legal citation
  • This is the final denial
  • They can file an appeal within 60 days.
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72
Q

What form is the administrative claim done on?

A

SF 95

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73
Q

How much can a base SJA approve for a claim?

A

$25k

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74
Q

Can the SJA can delegate their $25k authority to a paralegal overseas?

A

No.

Only stateside

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75
Q

If the claimant amends their claim, what happens to the agencies timeframe to respond to the claim?

A

It resets the 6 month period.

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76
Q

When is an electronic submission sent to the judgement fund for an FTCA claim?

A

When the claim is GREATER THAN $2,500.00

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77
Q

When is an SF 1034 used to settle an MCA or FTCA claim?

A

When the claim is BELOW $2,500.00

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78
Q

What must be in the FTCA denial letter?

A
  • Title & Legal citation of statute
  • Notice that it’s the final denial
  • They can file in District Court
  • They have 6 months to file the suit
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79
Q

What must be in an MCA denial letter?

A
  • Title & citation
  • Notice that it’s the final denial of administrative claim
  • They may appeal and it must be within 60 days of the date of the letter
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80
Q

What can a claimant do when they get a denial letter of their FTCA claim?

A

Do nothing
Can sue in District Court
Or request reconsideration

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81
Q

What can a claimant do when they get a denial letter of their MCA claim?

A

Do nothing
CANNOT SUE
Request Appeal

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82
Q

What claims must immediately be sent to JACC?

A
  • Medical Malpractice
  • Personal Injury
  • Legal malpractice
  • Government Contractor Injury or Death
  • Admiralty Claims
  • Civil Air Patrol
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83
Q

Determine appropriate forms for claims under FTCA

PAC Flashcard

A

SF 95, Claim for Injury, Damage, or Death

If the incident involved a vehicle accident, a SF 91, Motor Vehicle Accident (Crash) Report, will be required with the SF 95

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84
Q

Can a base SJA delegate complete or partial settlement authority to a subordinate attorney or paralegal?

PAC Flashcard

A

Yes, as long as the claim is arising within the United States

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85
Q

List the documents required to properly settle tort claims

PAC Flashcard

A

Settlement offer - prepared by settlement authority and shows legal office review and offer for settlement to claimant

Settlement Agreement - attached to offer, and must be signed before payment. Includes claim number, brief description of facts, and settled dollar amount. Two copies must be signed with wet signature. Claimant must also fill out Electronic Funds Transfer form.

Denial letter - done if claimant is unwilling to accept the offer or the claim is not a payable claim. Claimant is informed of the statute under which their claim was reviewed and the rationale for the denial. If done under FTCA or MCA, claimant is informed of their right to sue or appeal, respectively.

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86
Q

What does MCA apply to?

PAC Flashcard

A

Settling claims against the US for damage to or loss of property, personal injury, or death, resulting from the negligent or wrongful act(s) or omission(s) of AF military or civilian personnel while acting within the scope of their employment, or otherwise incident to AF non-combat activities (NCA)

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87
Q

What are MCA exceptions?

PAC Flashcard

A

Combat activities of US mil forces; personal injury or death of a mbr of armed forces of the US incident to service; and personal injury or death that results wholly from the claimants negligent or wrongful act(s)

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88
Q

Explain guidelines for asserting, compromising, waiving, and finalizing Pro-Government Claims. (W)

A
  • Federal Claims Collection act gives Gov authority to go after tortfeasor to recover for damages.
  • Assert claims greater than $100 or less than $100 when easily collected
  • Do not assert g-claims against members who would pay via FLI, loss or damage to AAFES, DeCA, or other fed agency.
  • SJA settlement authority is $25,000
  • Waive or terminate when no merit or evidence
  • Forward to JACC when you cannot locate tortfeasor, or unable to collect funds.
  • Payment
  • DD Form 1131, Money goes to org responsible for repair, mx, or replacement
  • Repair in kind
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89
Q

What is covered under G-claims?

A

Any U.S. Government property and NAFI property

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90
Q

When does the government go after a tortfeasor?

A

When damage caused is greater than $100 or if less than $100, when the money is easily collected

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91
Q

What are non-assertable g-claims?

A
  • Reimbursement from military member/civilian employee for claim paid by USG due to negligence of member
  • Reimbursement from military member/civilian employee being held accountable under FLI
  • Loss or damage to AAFES, DeCA, or other federal agency
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92
Q

What are the procedures for a G-claim?

A
  • Identify the damage
  • Analysis of causation (who caused it, what hapened, etc), private insurance, amount of damages.
  • Assessment to see how much of the incident is the persons fault (state law)
  • Assertion - in writing Notice of Claim Memorandum (demand letter)
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93
Q

How long does the government have to go after the tortfeasor from date USG knew or should have known of property damage?

A

3 years

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94
Q

Where can you find templates and resources for G-claims?

A

FLITEKM > Civil Law > Claims > Pro-Government/ “G” Claims > Templates and Resources (on the right)

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95
Q

Who is the base settlement authority and how much?

A

Base SJA, up to $25,000k

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96
Q

If an individual asks for and secures a payment plan, is that considered paid in full?

A

Yes

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97
Q

If the person offers the full amount of the demand letter and it is over the SJAs authority amount, can the SJA accept?

A

Yes

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98
Q

When do you terminate a claim?

A

Claim is legally without merit
The evidence doesn’t substantiate claim

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99
Q

If you can’t locate a tortfeasor or the USG is unable to collect after exhausting all collection methods, what do you do?

A

Forward it to JACC

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100
Q

If the demand amount in a g-claim is for $30,000 and the individual wants to compromise for $27,500.00, what do you do?

A

It gets forwarded to JACC because it is above the SJAs authority.

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101
Q

Regardless of the amount of the g-claim, can the SJA collect in full?

A

YES

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102
Q

What is “repair in kind”

A

When the tortfeasor pays the third party repair or replacement service directly to repair or replace the damaged property.

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103
Q

Determine possible sanctions for unauthorized release of Privacy Act information. (W)

A

You may be subject to civil and criminal penalties for violating the Privacy Act.

Misdemeanor criminal charge, and a fine of up to $5,000 per incident.

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104
Q

Explain procedures for processing Privacy Act requests. (W)

A
  1. Receive request in writing, but doesn’t have to state PA or FOIA (must describe what they are wanting)
  2. Who is requesting the PA record? Verify their identity
  3. Do we keep those records? Use SORNS to ensure it’s records kept.
  4. Determine if there are there exemptions from SORNs
  5. 10 days to send acknowledgement letter
  6. 20 days to send records or denial
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105
Q

What is the procedure for processing PA requests from a third party?

A

*Who is requesting the PA record, why do they need it? Get request in writing.

*Subject:
* Has an exemption been claimed?
———–No – release complete record
———–Yes – process under FOIA

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106
Q

What does the Privacy Act apply to?

A

Applies to executive agency (government) records about individuals, maintained in a system of records.

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107
Q

With regard to the privacy act, what is a record?

A

Any item or collection of info about an individual which is maintained by an agency and which contains that person’s name or other identifying particulars.

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108
Q

With regard to the privacy act, what is a system of records?

A

A group of records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by name of the individual or some personal identifier.

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109
Q

With regard to the privacy act, what is a individual?

A

U.S. citizen or individual lawfully admitted for permanent residence.

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110
Q

Regarding privacy act, what is personal information?

A

The types of info protected by the PA. Protected information of an individual.

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111
Q

Regarding the privacy act, what is official information?

A

Information about an individual that is not protected under the PA.

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112
Q

Discuss privacy act request basics

A
  • No prescribed from
  • Requestor must identify records they want
  • Provide verification of identity (of the requestor).
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113
Q

Is it possible that if records cannot be released under Privacy Act that it could be released under FOIA instead?

A

Yes.

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114
Q

Can a denied privacy act request be sued over?

A

No, they have 60 days from the date of the denial letter to appeal.

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115
Q

What are some common Privacy Act for 1st party requester that are denied?

A
  • Classified information
  • Release would reveal confidential source
  • Requested info is data to determine suitability for federal service, contracts, or access to classified information
  • Requested information was used to determine promotability
  • Testing info if would compromise test
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116
Q

What are some commonly used exceptions to the “No disclosure to third parties” rule?

A
  • Disclosures within DoD
  • FOIA requires disclosure
  • Routine uses posted in fed register
  • Bureau of the Census
  • Statistical research or reporting
  • NARA/GSA
  • Law enforcement purposes
  • Emergency disclosures
  • Congress
  • General Accountability Office
  • Court order
  • Consumer Reporting Agencies
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117
Q

What’s the basic rule for FOIA or PA requests?

A

Analyze under both statutes; if it’s releasable under either, then release it.

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118
Q

Where can you reference for information on privacy act?

A

AFI 33-332, Privacy and Civil Liberties Program, which implements DoDD 5400.11, DoD Privacy and Civil Liberties Program; and DoD 5400.11-R, DoD Privacy Program

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119
Q

Explain the functions of Accident Investigation Boards (AIB). (W)

A
  • To provide a publicly releasable report of the facts and circumstances surrounding the accident with statement of opinion
  • To gather and preserve evidence for claims, litigation, and disciplinary actions/adverse administrative actions
  • Preliminary source of info f/ CC
  • For all other purposes
120
Q

Describe the composition and qualifications of the Accident Investigation Board. (W)

A

President - outside mishap wing, FGO or GO (fatality - GO), c/w AFSEC Board President Course

Legal Advisor - outside mishap wing, completed AIB Crse or Acc. Inves. Crse (Fatality = FGO)

Recorder - Enlisted or junior officer (Fatality = must have c/w AIC)

Conv. Auth. may direct add. mbrs:
Mx, Medical, Pilot, SMEs

121
Q

Cite examples of duties performed by the Accident Investigation Board (AIB) Recorder. (W)

A
  • Estb contact w/ base legal office
  • Set up work center
  • Contact AF/JAT for court reporter support
  • Asst Legal Advisor in checking privileged information so AIB don’t get conflicted out
  • Redact FOUO/PA information from a copy of Part 1
  • Copy Part I of the SIB for each member
  • Attend planning meetings
  • Schedule & attend witness interviews as needed
  • Conduct pre-interview briefings with witness’
  • Obtain Witness’ contact info for post interview memorandum
  • Gather evidence as needed
  • Asst in ensuring report including tabs are set up and appropriate for public release IAW applicable law
122
Q

Explain rules for preparing and distributing the Accident Investigation Board (AIB) report. (W)

A

Executive Summary - (BLUF)
written for easy understanding, brief summary, abbreviated opinion, president does not sign.

Summary of Facts -
Broken down by topic (51-307), each expert drafts a section, requires support from evidence, does not contain opinions.

Statement of Opinion - Presidents opinion alone & publicly releasable, uses specific facts from summary, must be approved by MAJCOM convening authority for approval.

Distribution:
* Cannot release until approved ( by MAJCOM/CC)
* Released to media/families/etc. after approval
* AIB President meets with next of kin

123
Q

When is an AIB required?

A
  • On-duty class A accidents involving AF aerospace assets.
  • Class A are those that result in:
  • Direct mishap cost of $2.5 million or more
  • Fatality or permanent total disability
  • DoD aircraft destroyed
  • Probable high public interest
  • Anticipated litigation for/against U.S. or government contractor
124
Q

How many days is the AIB supposed to be done in?

A

30 days

125
Q

Can the AIB release the report without permission from the Conv Auth (MAJCOM/CC)?

A

No

126
Q

Regarding an AIB, when is a witness’ testimony transcribed verbatim?

A

If witness’ testimony is critical or provides large amount of evidence for report

127
Q

Who should be used to transcribe audio recordings of witness interviews from an AIB?

A

Air Force court reporters

128
Q

Who has custody of AIB wreckage?

A

On-scene CC -> SIB President -> AIB President -> AIB to Installation CC of mishap wing

Must be in writing

129
Q

Who authorizes disposition/destruction/repair of wreckage?

A

JACC and MAJCOM/CC

130
Q

Explain step-by-step procedures for processing Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests. (W)

A

FOIA monitor recieves the request >
Sends request to OPR (Office who would have the record) >
If full record can be released, it is released
OR If full record cannot be released, a legal review of the partial or full denial must be done. >
IF we agree with the OPR on (full or partial), it goes to the Initial Denial Authority at the MAJCOM (second legal review is c/w) ultimate decision is made to release or not.

131
Q

What is the rationale for FOIA?

A

“The basic purpose of the FOIA is to ensure an informed citizenry, vital to the functioning of a democratic society, needed to check against corruption and to hold the governors accountable to the governed”

132
Q

What types of FOIA fees are there?

A
  • Commercial
  • Educational, non-commercial scientific institution, and news media
  • Others (if it’s not one of the top two categories)
133
Q

What are the references for FOIA?

A
  • 5 U.S.C. § 552
  • DoDM 5400.7
  • DoDM 5400.7_AFMAN 33-302
134
Q

What are the timelines for FOIA requests?

A

Statutory processing time: 20 workdays.
Starts no later than 10 days after received.
Can toll 20 day time for an attempt to obtain additional information from requester and to clarify fee assessments.

135
Q

What are the FOIA exemptions?

A

1 - Classified
2 - Internal Personnel Rules and Practices
3 - Statutory Exemptions
4 - Trade Secrets/Commercial Information
5 - Normally Privileged Documents
6 - Personal Information
7 - Law Enforcement Information
8 - Financial Records*
9 - Geological Information*

136
Q

What is the Glomar response?

A

For FOIA - neither confirm nor deny if the existence or non-existence of a record.

137
Q

Who is an appeal for a FOIA release?

A

SAF/GC

3rd legal review by JACL-IL

138
Q

Explain the purpose and functions of the the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). (W)

A
  • Combats fraud waste and abuse in healthcare delivery and improves access to healthcare services.
139
Q

Describe situations in which health care related information may be released without patient approval. (W)

A
  • As required by law (e.g., statutes, AFIs or higher, court orders)
  • Public health activities (e.g., FDA)
  • About victims of abuse, neglect or domestic violence
  • For health oversight (e.g., audits)
  • For judicial and administrative proceedings (e.g., court order)
  • For law enforcement purposes (e.g., investigation or prosecution)
  • About decedents (e.g., coroners, MEs, funeral directors)
  • For cadaveric organ, eye, or tissue donation purposes
  • For research involving minimal risk
  • To avert a serious threat to health or safety
  • For specialized government functions
  • For workers compensation
140
Q

With regard to HIPAA, what are some examples of PHI (Protected Health Information)?

A
  • Name
  • Address
  • Zip code
  • Phone number
  • SSN
  • Gender
  • Age
  • Race
  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
141
Q

When can PHI be used freely?

A

Treatment
Payment
Healthcare Operation

Answer = When used for TPO

142
Q

In regards to HIPAA, what are covered entities?

A
  • Healthcare providers who transmit health information in standard electronic transactions (e.g., MTF)
  • Health plans (e.g., TRICARE)
  • Healthcare clearinghouses (e.g., billing companies)
  • Business Associates
143
Q

In regards to HIPAA, what are business associates?

A
  • Those that act on behalf of a covered entity (MHS Genesis, which houses information)
  • HIPAA permits disclosure of PHI to business associates with a business associate agreement
  • Anyone subject to DOD regulation does not need a separate business associate agreement
144
Q

When can a CC get PHI?

A
  • To determine member’s fitness for duty (e.g., CDE)
  • To determine the member’s fitness to perform any particular mission, assignment, order, or duty, including compliance with any actions required as a precondition to performance of them (e.g., PRP)
  • To report casualties in military operations/activities
  • To carry out any other activity necessary to the proper execution of the mission of the Armed Forces
145
Q

Contrast Attorney-Client Privilege and Confidentiality. (W)

A
  • Attorney-Client Privilege (MRE 502) – A rule of evidence protecting confidential communications between a lawyer and a client from disclosure. CLIENT
  • Confidentiality – The basic ethical principle that a lawyer shall not reveal information relating to the representation of a client. ATTORNEY/PARALEGAL
146
Q

Differentiate between providing information and providing legal advice. (W)

A

Providing Legal Advice (ATTORNEYS ONLY):
* Evaluating the probable outcome of litigation, negotiations, or other proposed action for or with a client
* Outlining legal rights or responsibilities to a client
* Interpreting and applying statutes, decisions, or legal documents to a client

Providing information (Paralegals):
- Providing forms, handouts, explaining meaning of terms in documents.
- No analyzing statutes or applying law.

147
Q

Identify examples of situations that constitute the Unauthorized Practice of Law. (W)

A
  • Operating outside of jurisdiction (attorneys can’t do this)
  • Giving legal advice (paralegals can’t do this)
148
Q

Determine proper reporting procedures for professional misconduct and ethical violations. (W)

A
  • Attorneys shall inform the proper authority when they have knowledge of another attorney or judge’s conduct.
  • Proper Authority:
    –f/ Judges – Chief Trial Judge of the Air Force
    –f/ Attorneys – Senior Supervising Attorney
    —- SSA will notify TJAG’s Professional Responsibility Administrator (TPRA)
    —- TPRA then monitors the processing of the allegation
149
Q

Evaluate the importance of competence and diligence in legal practice. (W)

A

Competence - understanding the bounds of “dos” and “do nots”
* Legal Knowledge
* Skill
* Thoroughness
* Preparation
* SUPERVISOR makes the initial determination, but each legal professional must know their limits

Diligence:
* Constant and earnest effort to accomplish what is undertaken; persistent exertion of body or mind.
* The degree of care and caution required by the circumstances of a person.
* Lawyers shall act with reasonable diligence and promptness in representing a client.

150
Q

Identify common potential conflicts of interest in AF legal practice. (W)

A
  • Two spouses wanting to see the same attorney for matters in their divorce.
  • SVCs cannot represent multiple victims of the same case.
  • ADCs cannot represent multiple ACC’s in the same case.
  • Directly adverse to another client
151
Q

Definition of conflict of interest?

A
  • A situation that interferes with a lawyer’s ability to fulfill basic duties of candor, confidentiality, and loyalty to a client; conflicts may arise due to a lawyer’s own personal interests in a matter, another existing client’s interests, or a former client’s interests.
152
Q

Apply Joint Ethics Regulation (JER) rules to fact patterns presented in given scenarios. (W)

A

Cannot solicit for gifts except infrequent or special occasions (baby shower, white elephant). Not more than $480 total.

Gifts of more than $480 becomes property of the U.S.

Official speakers cannot be compensated. EXCEPTIONS: items of minimal value, fee waivers, meals, etc.

Travel benefits: if person volunteers to be bumped, can keep compensation. Cannot interfere with duties.
If involuntary - compensation belongs to the government.

153
Q

Describe legal issues discussed in a legal review of a fundraising request. (W)

A
  • Ensure they’re aware of any pre-existing federal fundraisers
  • No more than 3 fundraisers per qtr
  • No duplication of AAFES/NAFI
  • No alcohol, no gambling, not on duty hours, not in uniform
  • No soliciting funds on base
154
Q

Describe legal issues discussed in a review of a Private Organizations charter and by-laws. (W)

A
  • We do not advise POs, can review constitution and by-laws to ensure they’re operating appropriately and clearly described.
  • Ensuring they’re aware of financial liability (laid out in constitution and by-laws)
  • Responsibilities of Officers (Pres, VP, Secretary, Treasurer, etc)
  • Disposition of residual assets upon dissolution
  • Constitution and By-laws submitted every 2 years.
155
Q

Who does the Installation CC often delegate approval authority for private orgs?

A

MSG/CC or FSS/CC

156
Q

What is the legal office’s role with regard to private orgs?

A

Reviews and advises the installation commander.

157
Q

What are the contents and purposes of private org constitution & by-laws

A
  • Nature, Function, Objectives, Membership Criteria, Sources of Income
  • Mbrs Notified of Personal Financial Liability
  • Responsibilities of Officers
  • Disposition of Residual Assets Upon Dissolution
158
Q

Can private orgs use air force seals/logos/insignia?

A

No

159
Q

What two fundraisers always take priority over others?

A

CFC (Combined Federal Campaign) and AFAF (Air Force Assistance Fund)

160
Q

With regard to fundraisers, the CC may authorize continuous thrift shop sales, but cannot authorize what?

A

Frequent or continuous resale activities.

161
Q

Discuss some rules regarding fundraisers

A
  • No more than 3 fundraiser per qtr
  • No duplicating AAFES or NAFI
  • No alcohol
  • No soliciting funds on base (may accept gifts/donations)
162
Q

When is a private org allowed to use gambling fundraising?

A

Never.
An occasional and infrequent raffle may be done.

163
Q

With regard to uniform wearing members, what are the do-nots of fundraising?

A

Cannot be done in uniform, on duty or in the workplace

164
Q

What’s the disclaimer that should be used with PO’s?

A

“THIS IS A PRIVATE ORGANIZATION. IT IS NOT A PART OF THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE OR ANY OF ITS COMPONENTS AND IT HAS NO GOVERNMENTAL STATUS.”

165
Q

Regarding resources and private orgs, discuss meeting places and equipment.

A

Meeting place can be a government area but should be a reasonable duration and frequency.

Equipment, such as printing, should be extremely limited with the permission of leadership.

Sending emails: permission from leadership, disclaimer should be on email, email should NOT be signed as members official duty position (i.e. NCOIC of MJ) it should be President, VP, etc

166
Q

What is being examined during a legal review of a fundraising request?

A
  • Who can approve the fundraiser?
  • Type of fundraiser and is it away from the workplace?
  • Appearance of official endorsement?
  • Not in uniform and not on duty time?
  • Consider if it’s during official fundraising times (CFC, AFAF)
167
Q

Explain rules regarding discovery requests and responses in labor and employment law cases. (W)

A
  • Disc. happens in preparation of litigation.
    –Doc. Req, Electronic requests, statements made, Interrogatories, admissions, depositions
  • MSPB
    o Submit all proposed actions potentially appealable
    o Acknowledgement order to LLFSC
    o Secure potential evidence
    o Administrative assistance
    –we provide support to Labor Law Support Center

-EO Complaints
–Provide support to EEO as they work through complaints.

168
Q

State simple facts about reviews of disciplinary and adverse actions involving civilian employees. (W)

A
  • Ensure cause of action is reviewed
  • State specific reasons
  • Employee must be notified of purposed actions (reprimand, suspension, removal, reduction in pay or grade.) non-disciplinary (admonishment, security clearance suspension, medical).
  • Individual must receive materials to respond
  • After response, notify member of final decision. - – Inform of ability to appeal.
169
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

General Schedule (GS)

A

A pay system covering most white collar civilian fed. employees whose pay grades range from GS-1 to -15 positions, consisting of professional, technical, administrative and clerical positions.

170
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Wage Grade

A

A pay system covering federal blue collar civilian employees.

The Fed Wage System was developed to make the pay of fed blue-collar workers comparable to prevailing private sector rates in each local wage area.

171
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Senior Executive Services (SES)

A

A [ay grade in the civil service of the US Fed Gov and is similar in some respects to the ranks of general or admiral in the US Armed Forces.

SES includes most managerial, supervisory and policy decisions classified above GS-15 or equiv. positions in the exec. branch of the fed gov.

172
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Nonappropriated Fund (NAF)

A

Persons paid from NAF of instrumentatlities of the U.S.

Generally these employees work in organizations that are responsible f. the enhancement of the QoL f/ personnel of the Armed Forces.

173
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Federal Civil Service employees

A

Includes all appointed positions in the executive, judicial, and legislative branches of the Gov of the U.S., except positions in the uniformed services.

The US Civil Service includes both competitive service and excepted service.

Employees who receive a career or career-conditional appointment, and who have not previously completed probation serve a 1-year probation period.

174
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Civil Service Reform Act (CSRA) of 1978

A

Reformed the Civil Service of US fed gov. The CSRA became effective 11 Jan 1979 and replaced the Civil Service Commission w/ 3 new independent agencies:
Office of Personnel Management (OPM)
Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA)
Merit Sys. Protection Board (MSPB)

175
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Office of Personnel Management (OPM)

A

The OPM primarily provides management guidance to the various agencies of the executive branch and issues regulations that control federal human resources.

The OPM is responsible for personnel management, which includes insurance, retirement, examinations, job classifications, and administration of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

176
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB)

A

IAW the MSPB at mspb.gov, the Board’s missi is to protect Fed merit systems and the rights of individuals w/in those systems.

MSPB carries out its statutory responsibilities and authorities primarily by adjudicating individual employee appeals and by conducting merit systems studies.

MSPB hears the appeals of fed employees who are disciplined or otherwise separated from their positions. The board review significant actions of OPM to assess te degree to which those actions may affect merit.

177
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Contractor Labor Relations

A

AFI 64-106 details the authorized union activities on installations and the duties and responsibilities of AF personnel when a labor dispute occurs.

Discusses what the AF does about labor dispute demonstrations on AF installations and at overseas commands and activities.

178
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Administrative Grievance System (AGS)

A

the AF AGS establishes a processu nder which an employee, or a group of employees acting as individuals, may request personal relief in any matter of AF management.

The AGS covers requests f/ personal relief in any matter or concern or dissatisfaction regarding their employment subject to the control of DoD management.

179
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Workers Compensation

A

The Fed. Employees Compensation Act (FECA) provides benefits to fed employees who sustain disabling injuries as a result of their federal employment

180
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Unemployment Compensation (UC)

A

The Dept. of Labor has entered into agreements w/ all of the states and jurisdictions, including the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands. The agreements provide f/ the states to administer the UC prgrms and allow the State Employment Security Agencies to determine and pay UC claims, review appeals, and conduct due process hearings based on the app. State UC law.

181
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Adverse Action

A

AFI 36-704, provides instructions f/ maintaining discipline and f/ taking discipline and adverse actions against certain civilian employees paid w/ appropriated funds only.

Suspensions, removals, furlough f/ 30 days and in some cases, reductions in grade or pay.

182
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Disciplinary Action

A

AFI 36-704, is an action management takes to correct an employee’s delinquency or misconduct.

Oral admonishment, reprimands, suspensions, removals, and in some cases, reductions in grade or pay.

183
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Cause of ACtion

A

A recognizable offense against the employee-employer relationship such as a violation of rule, regulation, or procedure.

184
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Furlough

A

A nondisciplinary action placing an employee in a temporary nonduty and nonpay status because of lack of work or funds or for other nondisciplinary reasons.

It is an adverse action if it is f/ a period of 30 calendar days or less.

185
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Nexus

A

Reasonable connection or factual relationship between the reasons for the action taken and the efficiency of the service.

186
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Federal LAbor Relations Authority

A

FLRA exercises leadership under the statute to promote stable, constructive labor relations that contribute to a more effective and efficient Government.

Mission is to carry out 5 primary statutory responsibilities as efficiently as possible and in a manner that gives full effect to the rights afforded employees and agencies under the statute.

187
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

US Office of Special Counsel

A

Independent fed investigative and prosecutorial agency. Basic authorities come from 4 federal statutes.

Primary mission is to safeguard the merit sys. by protecting fed. employees and applicants from prohibited personnel practices, especially reprisal f/ whistleblowing.

188
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

A

EEOC responsible f/ ensuring fed. laws that make it illegal to discriminate against a job applicant or an employee because of the person’s race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information.

189
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Equal Opp. Director

A

Individual (mil or civ) who reports directly to the installation/center commander to manage the EO complaints program f/ which the CC/director is responsible.

190
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)
Equal Employment Opportunity- Individual Complaint

A

A written complain of discrimination filed by an individual employee who believes he or she has been discriminated against because of race, color, sex, national origin, religion, age, disability, or reprisal.

191
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

A

ADR is any procedure that is used to resolve issues in controversy by mutual agreement of the parties, including but not limited to facilitation, mediation, and fact finding.

Gen purpose is to maintain a productive work environment in which disputes are avoided or settled quickly and at the lowest possible organizational level, and is essential to the effective functioning of the AF and accomplishment of its national security mission.

192
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Collective Bargaining

A

Negotiations between organized workers and their employer concerning wages, hours, etc. Both the agency and the union have the duty to bargain in good faith regarding conditions of employment.

193
Q

Match the labor/employment law term to its definition. (W)

Unfair Labor Practice (ULP)

A

The relationship among federal agencies, represented employees, and the unions representing those employees. A ULP as defined by AFI 36-701, is basically an action by either an employer, an employee, or union which violates the provisions of labor relation laws, such as refusal to bargain in good faith.

194
Q

How many types of information are there release authorities for?

A

Three

Official information
Classified information
Witness Testimony

195
Q

Explain the proper authority for release of information for litigation purposes. (W)

Official Information

A
  • Official Information:
    –Litigation Division (JACL) when US is a party to litigation or has direct/indirect interest.
    – MLC release f/ unclass. factual info of medical and other records. (If no MLC then it’s SJA)
    – Contracting Officers f/ info to be used at Armed Services Board of Contract Appeals.
    – SJA for all other matters including unclass. factual info.
196
Q

Explain the proper authority for release of information for litigation purposes. (W)

Classified Information

A

-Classified Information:
–Must first be authorized by proper security office or be declassified prior to release. NO ONE CAN RELEASE W/O THIS STEP.
– Foreign Courts follow same procedures as traditional courts unless otherwise specified by component command SJA.

197
Q

Explain the proper authority for release of information for litigation purposes. (W)

Witness Testimony

A

-Witness Testimony:
–AF/JAA - state and local legislative bodies
–AFLOA/JAC - matters in civil litigation
–AFLOA/JAQ - matters in commercial litigation
–MLC - medical providers/personnel testifying.
–Litigation Division or AFLOA/JACL is US is party or direct/indirect interest
–SJA f/ all other matters.

198
Q

With regard to litigation release, define Litigation

A

All pretrial, trial and post-trial stages of existing or anticipated judicial or administrative actions

199
Q

With regard to litigation release, define Private Litigation

A

Litigation in which the U.S., in an official capacity, is NOT a party and has no interest (divorce, custody, neighbors arguing about property lines)

200
Q

With regard to litigation release, define Official Information

A
  • All info of any kind, however stored, that is in the possession, custody or control of covered personnel in the AF.

Covered personnel: AD, reserve and duty or training status, guard and fed in title 10 status, civilian employees, cadets, retired and former personnel, direct/non-direct non-US national contractors.
Other ex: classified information, training records, paper, photographs etc about DoD property.

201
Q

Regarding litigation release, discuss what the DoJ and US Attorneys do.

A

Represent the gov’s interest in judicial proceedings involving the AF

202
Q

Regarding litigation release, discuss what happens when defending denials?

A

SJAs may consult w/ DoJ or US Attorney to defend denials

203
Q

Regarding litigation release, discuss releasing official information to DoJ

A

SJAs may release unclassified official info that is not privileged to DoJ or the US Attorney on request
SJAs must follow appropriate release rules for requests for classified info prior to release to DoJ

204
Q

What kinds of questions are asked when analyzing if information will be released?

A
  • Request unduly burdensome or otherwise irrelevant?
  • Does request specify remedial info that is inadmissible under the rules of evidence or is the info otherwise inappropriate under the applicable court rules?
  • Would disclosing the info be appropriate under the rules of procedure governing the case and under the relevant substantive law?
  • Would disclosing the info violate any statute, executive order, regulation, directive, or policy?
  • Would disclosing the info reveal classified or other restricted info?
  • Would disclosure interfere with ongoing enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, reveal confidential informant, disclose trade secrets or similarly confidential commercial or financial info?
205
Q

Regarding complying with subpoenas, what does the SJA do?

A
  • Give legal advice to AF personnel under subpoena to testify about official info
  • Determine subpoena was issued by competent court
  • Make/negotiate an adequate response or appear before court
  • Where another release authority is involved, SJA consults w/ that authority.
206
Q

Where are subpoenas from foreign courts requiring records, files, or docs reported to?

A

DoJ OFL

(Office of Foreign Litigation)

207
Q

If a subpoena calls for classified or unreleasable information outside their release authority, and SJA must do what?

A

Consult with responsible litigation division or AFLOA/JACL

SJA may then communicate w/ the counsel requesting the subpoena, explain restrictions, give the attorney releasable info, suggest withdrawing the subpoena.

208
Q

Discuss exemptions from Jury duty?

A

10 USC 982 provides when AF members are exempt from jury duty
-Categorically exempt: GOs, CCs, operating forces personnel in training and personnel overseas
- Not Categorically exempt: duty interferes w/ military duty or adversely affects the readiness of the unit.

209
Q

What are the procedures for obtaining exemption?

A
  • Af member informs immediate CC
  • If AF mbr not categorically exempt, the immediate CC decides if exemption applies.
    –If exemption is appropriate = forward to SPCMCA
    -SPCMCA may request advice from SJA
    -SPCMCA makes decision. If exemption is appropriate, mbrs immediate CC notifies state or local official.
210
Q

Match common Fiscal Law terms to the corresponding definition. (W)

A

Appropriation

211
Q

Describe the general principles of Fiscal Law. (W)

A
  • Roots trace back to Constitution
  • Constitution separates responsibilities of power among the 3 branches of government through federal statutes and regulatory guidance.
  • Appropriation is getting the money, authorization is HOW you spend the money.
  • Everything comes from a certain pot of money used for those specific acts.
    -Authorization Acts: Statutes passed by congress that authorizes the use of funds for programs, services, etc.
    -Appropriations Acts: Statutory authorization to incur obligations and make payments out of the US Treasury.
212
Q

Describe the process in which DoD receives annual funding. (W)

A

Appropriations Statute from (Congress) ->
Apportionment (OMB)(President) ->
Formal subdivision (@ HAF/MAJCOM) ->
Informal subdivision (@NAF and Wings)

213
Q

Explain the Fiscal Law principles of Time, Purpose and Amount. (W)

A

Time: Used within certain amount of time (can’t use FY23 funds for FY24 projects)
Purpose: Used for certain purpose
Amount: certain amount of money. Not overspending.

214
Q

Differentiate between the common categories of appropriations within DoD. (W)

A
  1. O&M - things for the unit (toilet paper, etc) - annual
  2. Personnel pay & allowances - annual
  3. RDT&E - (Research development test and evaluation) of new computer systems software - 2 years
  4. Procurement of weapons, aircraft, ships, missiles - 3 yrs
  5. MILCON
    –$6million for 5 years (Specified Military Construction)
    –$2million-$6million for 5 years (UMMC)
    –<2million for 1 year (O&M Funds for Construction
215
Q

Describe the rules for funding military construction projects. (W)

A
  • MILCON Projects (Specified Military Construction)
    –Specific Projects over $6M
    –Funds available for 5 years
    –Report breaks down appropriations by project

Unspecified minor military projects (UMMC)
– Ex: adding new wing to a building
– Between $2M and $6M
– Funds avail f/ 5 years

O&M funds
–Under $2M
– Funds avail f/ 1 year

216
Q

Differentiate between construction and maintenance/upkeep projects. (W)

A

Construction : Building something new

Repair: Restoring, painting, filter, light bulb, etc.

217
Q

Explain the Anti-Deficiency Act. (W)

A
  • Violating the Time, Purpose and Amount rules constitutes a violation of the ADA.

3 levels that can be violated.
- Appropriation - do not obligate funds in advance or in excess

  • Apportionment - Control rate of obligations, delegated to president OMB, distribution of amounts available in appropriation.
  • Formal subdivision - Agency establishes controls, restricts obligations and expenditures, and fixes responsibility.
218
Q

Identify authorized punishments for the Anti-Deficiency Act. (W)

A

Administrative sanctions (not willful):
Admonishment, Reprimand, Suspension without pay, Relief of command, Adverse EPR/OPR. Good faith is no defense.

Criminal Sanctions (willful violation [fraud]):
may result in $5k fine, 2 yrs prison, or both.

219
Q

What is the DAFI for separations?

A

DAFI 36-3211

220
Q

What DAFI tells who can approve or disapprove a separation?

A

DAFI 36-3211

221
Q

Describe the various basis’ for enlisted administrative separations. (W)

A
  • 7B – Involuntary Convenience of the Government
  • 7C – Defective Enlistment
  • 7D – Entry Level Performance
  • 7E – Unsatisfactory Performance
  • 7F – Substance Abuse
  • 7G – Misconduct
222
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7B - Invol. Convenience of the Gov

A
  • Parenthood*
  • Insufficient retainability for required training
  • Conditions that interfere w/ Mil Service (sleep walking, extreme ADHD, etc)

*Preprocessing rehab required! (must be allowed to try to fix issue first)

223
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7C - Defective Enlistment?

A
  • Enlistment of minors
  • Void enlistment
    –Not enlisting under correct basis (went awol from another branch)
  • Erroneous Enlistment *
  • Fraudulent entry *

*MANDATORY PROCESSING OR WAIVER REQUEST

224
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7D- Entry Level Performance*?

A

–Only used w/in first 365 days

  • Unsat performance
  • Failure to adapt
  • Fail to progress in mil training
  • Lack of self-discipline
  • Minor disciplinary infractions
    *Preprocessing rehab required!
225
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7E - Unsat performance* ?

A
  • Unsat duty performance*
  • Fail to maintain standards (dress/appearance)*
  • Fail to progress in mil trng*
  • Irresponsibility w/ finances*
  • Unsanitary habits*
  • Fail to meet minimum fitness standards*

*Preprocessing rehab required!

226
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7F - Substance Abuse Treatment Failure?

A
  • Airmen in prgrm of rehab for drugs/alcohol
  • Fail to complete the progrm (Inability, refusal to participate, unwillingness to cooperate)
227
Q

What are some of the basis for an individual to be separated under 7G - Misconduct?

A
  • Minor Disciplinary Infractions*
  • Pattern of Misconduct*
  • Civilian Conviction* (mandatory)
  • Commission of a serious offense
  • Drug Abuse* (Mandatory)
  • Sexual Assault* (Mandatory)
    *Preprocessing rehab required!
    *MANDATORY processing or waiver request
228
Q

Explain each of the possible service characterizations resulting from administrative separation actions. (W)

A

+ Separations with characterization
1. Honorable (fitness standards)
2. Under Honorable Conditions (General)
3. under other than honorable conditions (UOTHC)

+Separation without characterization
1. Entry Level Separation

229
Q

Describe the required steps and documents required in processing a notification discharge case file. (W)

A

Initiating CC & member

CC:
- Decertification f/ PRP
- EPR due
- Serve notification memo
- Schedule ADC
- Schedule medical exams
- Let them know of their ineligibility to re-enlist
- preparing CC recommendation letter
- Obtain and maintain response from member (member has 3 duty days to respond)
- Send case file for processing

Action by the member:
- Acknowledges receipt of notification
- Reports for medical
- Consults ADC
- Submits response/statement(s) if any

230
Q

Explain the information required in the commander’s notification letter. (W)

A
  • Proposed discharge
  • Reason(s) for action
  • Ineligible to reenlist
  • Sexual assault reporting statement
  • Right to counsel w/ appt date/time
  • Right to submit statements
  • Failure to seek counsel/submit statement
  • Medical exam w/ appt date/time
  • Privacy Act
  • Where a copy of AFI can be found
231
Q

Discuss the discharge process timeline and case file contents.

A
232
Q

Describe the contents of a legal review of an administrative discharge action. (W)

A
  • BLUF / Introduction
  • Facts (Evidence for the Government)
  • Member’s Response (Evidence for the Respondent)
  • Law and Analysis - Answer 4 Qs! (Basis f/ discharge, appropriateness f/ discharge, service characterization, should mbr get P&R?)
  • Errors and Irregularities
  • Options for separation authority
  • Recommendation from JAG
233
Q

Describe the conditions that entitle airmen to discharge boards. (W)

A
  • NCO
  • 6 Years
  • National Security type incident
  • UOTHC
234
Q

Identify the proper composition for an administrative discharge board. (W)

A

– Voting Members
* Minimum of 3 Officers (1 FGO)
* If Respondent requests enlisted, enlisted on panel
—————————-
– Nonvoting Members
* Legal Advisor (Similar to MJ)
* Recorder (Government)
*Respondent’s Counsel (Defense)

235
Q

Describe the administrative discharge board process. (W)

A
236
Q

Identify basis and service characterizations for officer separation actions. (W)

A

Basis: Substandard Performance of Duty, Misconduct/Moral or Professional Dereliction

Characterization:
Honorable;
Under Honorable Conditions (General); and
UOTHC

237
Q

Describe the steps required to process an officer separation action. (W)

A
238
Q

What are the two-types of involuntary separations for officers?

A

Not for Cause; and
For Cause

239
Q

Discuss examples of Not for Cause officer discharges

A
  • Reserve officers reach age limit
  • Non-selection for promotion
  • Lose ecclesiastical indorsements (Chaplains)
  • Reached max years service / service in grade
  • Officers who don’t complete medical education or training
  • Licensure
240
Q

Discuss examples of For Cause basis for Substandard Performance of Duty officer discharges

A
  • Failure to show acceptable qualities of leadership
  • Failure to achieve acceptable standards of proficiency
  • Failure to discharge duties
  • Unacceptable record of effectiveness
  • Marginal service over an extended period of time
  • Apathy or defective attitude/unwillingness effort
  • Mental disorders
  • Failure to conform to standards of dress/appearance
  • Family care responsibilities
  • Unsatisfactory progress or failure in, or disenrollment from an active status skills-awarding education or training program
241
Q

Discuss examples of For Cause basis for Misconduct/Moral or Professional Dereliction officer discharges

A
  • Failure to meet financial obligations
  • Mismanagement of personal affairs
  • Drug abuse
  • Serious or recurring misconduct
  • Neglect/failure perform duties or complete training
  • Misconduct resulting in loss of professional status
  • Intentionally misrepresenting/omitting facts in statements
  • Fear of Flying
  • HIV Related Reasons
  • Interests of National Security
  • Unprofessional Relationship (Serving in position of trust)
242
Q

What are the characterizations an officer can receive with a discharge?

A
  • Honorable
  • Under Honorable Conditions (General)
  • Under Other than Honorable Conditions (UOTHC)

NO ENTRY LEVEL

243
Q

What is the difference between a probationary officer or a non-probationary officer?

A
  • Probationary Officer: Less than six years on AD.
  • Non-Probationary Officer: Six years on AD or more
244
Q

Who is the FINAL authority for officer separations?

A

SECAF

245
Q

What does the Show-Cause Authority do?

A

determines whether the information or evidence presented warrants initiation of discharge action

246
Q

MAJCOM/CCs delegate SCA authority to who?

A
  • WG/CCs (if General Officer)
  • GCMCAs for WGs that don’t have General Officer/CC
247
Q

When officer receives notification memo for separation, how long do they have to respond and submit matters?

A

10 CALENDAR days

248
Q

Once the SCA receives any submitted matters and considers them, what are the options?

A

Refers the case to AFPB or BOI; OR
Retain the officer

249
Q

When does the SCA (Show Cause Authority) send a case to the AFPB?

A
  • Probationary officers (< 6 yrs AD) when SCA recommends Honorable or General
250
Q

If the AFPB thinks that the case sent to them regarding a probationary officer should go to a BOI, what happens?

A

The AFPB notified SCA of that opinion and SCA re-evaluates.

251
Q

When does a Show Cause Authority (SCA) send a case to BOI?

A
  • Nonprobationary officers (6 years or more AD) REGARDLESS of recommended characterization.
  • Probationary officers when SCA recommends UOTHC
  • If SCA determines it would be appropriate
252
Q

What happens at AFPB?

A
  • Convened from officers at AFPB Agency
  • Officer may be asked for testimony
  • Makes recommendations and sends to Officer of Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF is FINAL authority)
253
Q

What happens at BOI?

A
  • Convened by SCA, and has 3 voting officers
  • Legal advisor and recorder
  • Officer may be present w/ ADC
  • BOI makes recommendation/sends to OSAF f/ final action.
254
Q

What is the metric for processing officer discharges?

A

“as efficiently as possible”

255
Q

Recap the Officer

A

See image.

256
Q

Recognize the principle functions and the relationship between the Legal Assistance Website and the AF Estate Planning Process. (W)

A

the LAWS website allows customers to prepare ticket numbers for greater efficiency in the estate planning process (POAs and wills).

Client and Admin side
Client side: feedback & worksheets, FAQs
Admin: review feedback, system tools to retrieve will worksheets.

257
Q

Describe the purpose of estate planning. (W)

A

*Testators intentions clearly spelled out
* Provide for minor beneficiaries (separate trust vs. single trust)
* Arrangements for minor children
* Appointment of agents/alternates
* gets an individuals estate to the right people at the right time.

258
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Domicile for military and for civilians

A

military: location where you have both physically resided and formed an intent to return to permanently to the exclusion of any other domicile.

Civilians: The residence where you have your permanent home or principal established and to where, whenever you are absent, you intend to return.

259
Q

Explain procedural requirements for conducting a will execution ceremony. (W)

A
260
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Testamentary

A

Relating to a will or given by a will

261
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Estate

A

All the possessions of one who has died that are subject to probate administration and distribution to heirs and beneficiaries, including property and debts.

262
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Codicil

A

A supplement or an addition to a will used to explain, modify, add, subtract, qualify, alter, restraing or revoke provisions in a will. Has the same execution requirements as a will change executors, gifts without changing the will. This is not done in the Air Force

263
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Beneficiary

A

A person named in a will to receive specified propertly. Someone who benefits from the will

264
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Adeem

A

When a gift fails or goes away. When ademption occurs, the estate is not liable for the value of the gift to the intended beneficiary

265
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define disclaim

A

Deny interest in or connection with; refuse to accept a testamentary gift from the estate. You can’t compel someone to take a gift.

266
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Issue

A

All persons who have descended from a common ancestor (kids/grandkids)

267
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Guardian

A

A person lawfully vested with the power and charged with the duty of taking care of managing the person and/or property of another who, because of age, understanding, or self-control, is determined to be incapable of administering their own affairs. Not just for kids could also be for elderly and or handicapped.

268
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Guardian Ad Litem

A

Person appointed by the court to look out for the best interests of the child during the course of legal proceedings. Can be volunteers or social workers.

269
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define virtual representation

A

That a person can be represented in a legally binding manner by other’s decisions. The legal process is used for minors and others who are legally incapable of making decisions.

270
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Community Property

A

Property owned in a common by husband and wife where each spouse owns a undivided one-half interest in the community property.

271
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Real Property

A

Land and everything that is permanently affixed to land, such as structures and fixtures within structures.

272
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Devise

A

a testator giving real property land and house are devised

273
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define personal property

A

all intangible property that is movable, and thus not real property

274
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define bequeath

A

a testator giving personal property

275
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define residuary estate

A

The portion of the estate that is not otherwise devised or bequeathed, or used to pay debts and administrative expenses.

276
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Executor/Executrix

A

A person named by the testator/testatrix who is responsible for administering their estate upon their death. Could also be known as a personal representative

277
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Fiduciary

A

A person acting primarily for another’s benefit in confidence, good faith, prudence, and fair dealing, such as trustee or executor. Works for Estate

278
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Exonerate

A

To clear of an accusation; to relieve from an obligation or duty

279
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Per capita

A

the property shall be distributed in equal shared among living desendants who are the same level of relationship to the testator to the exclusion of all other, i.e. all living children, or living grandchildren if there are no surviving children.

280
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Per Stirpes

A

Property shall be distributed in equal shares among the children, with the issues of deceased children dividing their deceased parent’s share equally.

281
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define trust

A

A right of property created by the trustor, and held by the trustee, for the benefit of at least one beneficiary.

282
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define trustor

A

The individual who established the trust, who transferred the property into the trust. For your purpose this will be the testator/testatrix.

283
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define trustee

A

The individual who is responsible for holding and keeping the trust property for the benefit of the beneficiaries.

284
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Testamentary Trust

A

A trust created in the deceased’s will

285
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define inter-vivos trust

A

a living turst. This trust begins at the time of the trust instrument, during the life of the trsutor. It can entail the distribution of assets to the beneficiary during and after the truster’s lifetime such as tax benefits.

286
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define separate trusts

A

When a trustor creates more than one trust, and each trust has different beneficiaries. Typically, there would be one trust for each beneficiary. Separate trusts may have different trustees. Good to use in families with huge age gaps.

287
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define single trust

A

When a trustor creates one trust, with pooled assets for all the beneficiaries, with one trustee

288
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Supplemental Needs Trust

A

A trust that is designed IAW law to ensure that the existence of that trust does not eliminate the trust’s beneficiary from eligibility for government provided health care assistance. Individual in a government run facility. Money being bequeathed directly will result in taxes; this trust preserves the right to benefits.

289
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Pre-residuary Trust

A

A trust that is funded with specific assets or a specific amount of assets from the estate

290
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Execution

A

Actual signing and notarizing of a will according to procedural requirements of applicable law

291
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Military testamentary Instrument

A

Instrument that is prepared with testamentary intent in accordance with AFI 51-504 and: (1) is executed IAW 10 USC 1044d by a person, as a testator, who is eligible for military legal assistance; (2) makes disposition of property of the testator; and (3) takes effect upon the death of the testator

292
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define self-proving affidavit

A

a notarized, written declaration signed by each witness and the testator/testatrix that attests to the circumstances under which the will was executed

293
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define living will

A

States a person’s desires regarding the termination of life support in the event of a terminal, incurable medical condition, during which the person is incapable of competently communicating their desires lecture to follow on importance of this.

294
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define Durable Springing Power of Attorney for Health Care

A

Appoints another person to make health care decisions should the client become incapacitated and unable to make decisions on his/her own

295
Q

Recognize common terminology associated with the estate planning process. (W)

Define lapse

A

to fail to occur, particularly a gift in a will. The termination of a gift or future distribution from a trust, caused by the death of the person to whom the gift was intended.

296
Q

Explain procedural requirements for conducting a will execution ceremony. (W)

A
  • Fasten pages together securely
  • Number of page of will, not affidavit
  • Ensure testator/testatrix’s understanding
  • Check ID cards
  • Testator and witness questions
  • Initials and date