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Histology > Block C > Flashcards

Block C Flashcards

1
Q

renin is secreted by

A

juxtaglomerular cells

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2
Q

how does urinary system regulate blood calcium

A

hydroxylation of vitamin D

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3
Q

inner layer of kidney capsule consists of mainly

A

myofibroblasts

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4
Q

between medullary rays are

A

cortical labyrinths

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5
Q

kidney lobule consists of

A

single medullary ray plus adjacent 1/2 of the cortical labyrinth on each side

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6
Q

a kidney lobule consists of

A

all nephrons associated with a single medullary duct

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7
Q

papillary duct of bellini opens into the

A

minor calyx at the renal papilla

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8
Q

where are thin parts of juxtamedullary nephron?

A

on ascending and descending sections

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9
Q

mid-cortical nephron extends to

A

inner stripe of outer medulla

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10
Q

where are thin parts of mid cortical nephron?

A

only the descending section

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11
Q

what is contained in outer stripe of outer medulla?

A

only thick tubular segments and outer medullary collecting ducts

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12
Q

what is contained in the inner stripe of outer medulla?

A

thick and thin tubular segments and outer medullary collecting ducts

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13
Q

uriniferous tubule =

A

nephron + collecting ducts

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14
Q

numerous uriniferous tubules are associated with a papillary duct, which makes up a

A

kidney lobule

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15
Q

the initial formed urine in bowman’s space is called

A

ultrafiltrate

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16
Q

_______ lie outside the glomerulus between arterioles and help maintain strucutre

A

extraglomerular mesangial cells/Lacis cells

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17
Q

do podocytes regenerate?

A

no

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18
Q

the basement membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule is continuous with the

A

basal lamina of the glomerular capillaries

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19
Q

glomerular basement membrane-

A

fused membrane with three layers representing the fusion of the basal lamina of the endothelial cells and the podocytes.

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20
Q

3 layers of glomerular basement membrane-

A

lamina rara externa, lamina densa, lamina rara interna

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21
Q

pedicels limit molecular passage by

A

slit size and anionic charge

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22
Q

filtration slit diaphragm is anchored into the pedicels via

A

nephrin

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23
Q

components of the glomerular basement membrane- (5)

A

type 4 collagen, laminin, fibronectin, heparin sulfate, proteoglycans

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24
Q

pedicels are anchored to the basal laminae by

A

integrin

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25
Q

_____ forms the core of the pedicels

A

actin

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26
Q

what 4 molecules join nephrin and actin to make the GFB

A

neph1, neph2, fat1 and fat2

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27
Q

mesangial cells secrete _________ to cause vasoconstriction

A

prostaglandins and endothelins

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28
Q

______ cells control GBM material turnover

A

mesangial cells

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29
Q

mesangial cells respond to _______

A

angiotensin II

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30
Q

lateral cell boundaries of proximal convoluted tubules are indistinguishable because of

A

lateral infoldings/plicae

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31
Q

where is the major site of reabsorption in nephrons?

A

proximal convoluted tubules

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32
Q

transcellular pathway-

A

main reabsorption pathway

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33
Q

what is reabsorbed via transcellular pathway?

A

Na (actively transported), big molecules, water

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34
Q

paracellular pathway is used to reabsorb what?

A

calcium, K, water, small moleules

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35
Q

where do peritubular capillaries come from?

A

efferent arteriole

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36
Q

Type ___ cells are found in short looped nephrons

A

1

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37
Q

type ______ cells are found in long looped nephrons

A

2, 3, 4

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38
Q

loop of henle reabsorbs ___% of water

A

15

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39
Q

distal convoluted tubules stain lighter because

A

they have less mitochondria

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40
Q

distal tubule contains Na sensitive ______ cells at the vascular pole

A

macula densa

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41
Q

distal convoluted tubules have ____ symport at their apical end and ______ pumps and mitochondria at their basal end

A
  • Na+/Cl-

- Na+/K+ ATPase pumps

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42
Q

distal tubule reabsorbs ____ % of water

A

7

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43
Q

proximal pars recta of distal tubule is sensitive to

A

aldosterone (allows for Na reabsorption from urine)

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44
Q

distal portion of distal convoluted tubule is sensitive to

A

ADH, which causes water reabsorption

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45
Q

collecting tubule is made of 2 types of cells-

A

intercalated (dark) and principal (light) cells

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46
Q

intercalated cells purpose-

A

part of buffering system, have a lot of mitochondria

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47
Q

principal cells purpose-

A

respond to aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

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48
Q

intercalated cells secrete ___ and reabsorb ___

A

H+ or HCO3-

K+

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49
Q

principal cells reabsorb _____ ad secrete ____

A

Na+ and water

K+

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50
Q

what kind of cells line papillary collecting duct?

A

columnar

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51
Q

lack of ADH can result in

A

diabetes insipidus

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52
Q

renal papilla surface cells-

A

simple columnar

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53
Q

renal calyx surface cells-

A

transitional epithelium

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54
Q

area where papilla meets calyx

A

area cribosa

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55
Q

efferent arterioles of what kind of glomeruli give off vasa recta capillaries?

A

G3

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56
Q

decrease in blood pressure will cause ____ cells to secrete renin

A

JG cells

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57
Q

renin converts _______ to ______

A

angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

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58
Q

_________ (produced by lungs) will convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

angiotensin converting enzyme

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59
Q

angiotensin II is a

A

vasoconstrictor

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60
Q

angiotensin II acts on the adrenal cortex to release

A

aldosterone

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61
Q

aldosterone does what?

A

acts on collecting tubules and distal tubules to increase Na absorption and water absorption

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62
Q

increased blood pressure is detected by

A

atrial cells of heart

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63
Q

atrial cells of hear release ANF which does what?

A

inhibits adrenal cortex release of aldosterone

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64
Q

lining of ureters

A

transitional epithelium

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65
Q

what muscular tunics do ureters have?

A

inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal

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66
Q

muscular tunic of bladder is

A

3 layers of smooth muscle in spirals

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67
Q

folded plaques in bladder form

A

apical vesicles

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68
Q

epithelium of prostatic urethra

A

transitional epithelium

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69
Q

epithelium of membranous urethra

A

stratified or pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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70
Q

epithelium of penile urethra

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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71
Q

epithelium of proximal female urethra

A

transitional epithelium

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72
Q

epithelium of terminal female urethra

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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73
Q

APUD-

A

amine precursor uptake decarboxylation. diffuse endocrine tissue

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74
Q

GEP-

A

gastroenterohepatic tissue. diffuse endocrine tissue

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75
Q

steroid hormones are derived from what germ layer

A

mesenchymal cells of mesoderm

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76
Q

protein hormones are derived from what germ layer

A

endoderm. Exception is that anterior pituitary hormones are from ectoderm

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77
Q

where are protein hormones secreted from?

A

pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, gut, lung, and APUD cells

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78
Q

amino acid analogues are derived from what germ layer?

A

neuroectoderm

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79
Q

amino acid analogues are secreted from where?

A

thyroid, parafollicular cells, adrenal medulla

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80
Q

the hypothalamus secretes ______ that influences the pituitary to secrete _______

A

releasing hormones

stimulating hormones

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81
Q

parts of posterior pituitary

A

infundibulum, pars nevosa, and median eminence

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82
Q

what develops into anterior pituitary?

A

oral ectoderm (rathke’s pouch)

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83
Q

hypophyseal portal system has how many capillary beds?

A

2

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84
Q

blood supply to pars nervosa

A

inferior hypophyseal artery

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85
Q

blood supply to infundibulum and median eminence

A

superior hypophyseal artery

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86
Q

blood supply to pars distalis-

A

secondary capillary plexus

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87
Q

3 cell types of pars distalis-

A

basophils, acidophils, chromophobes

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88
Q

3 types of basophils of pars distalis in descending order of prevalence:

A

corticotropes 20%, gonadotropes 10%, thryotropes 5%

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89
Q

2 types of acidophil cells of pars distalis-

A

somatotropes 50% and lactotropes 20%

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90
Q

chromophobes-

A

a basophil or acidophil that has secreted its hormones

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91
Q

somatotropes secrete

A

growth hormone

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92
Q

lactotropes secrete

A

prolactin

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93
Q

basophils of pars intermedia contain what hormones?

what do they do?

A
  • alpha and beta endorphins

- secrete melanocyte stimulating hormone

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94
Q

what cells border colloid in pars intermedia?

A

folliculostellate cells

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95
Q

axons from ________ innervate posterior pituitary

A

supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei from hypothalamus

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96
Q

supraoptic and paraentricular nuclei produce __________ and store it in their axon terminals in pars nervosa for release

A

ADH and oxytocin

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97
Q

herring bodies-

A

axon terminals of paraverntricular and supraoptic nuclei

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98
Q

pineal gland is downward projection of

A

diencephalon

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99
Q

pineal gland is innervated by

A

postganglionic fibers from superior cervical ganglion

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100
Q

brain sand is made of

A

calcium carbonate deposits

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101
Q

pineal gland secretes

A

melatonin

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102
Q

what vessels supply adrenal capsule

A

capsular arterioles

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103
Q

what vessels supply adrenal cortex

A

fenestrated cortical sinusoidal capillaries

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104
Q

what vessels supply adrenal medulla?

A

medullary arterioles. Important- they bypass cortex to get oxygen rich blood to medulla

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105
Q

important concept of adrenal blood supply is

A

some blood goes through both cortical and medullary capillaries before leaving adrenomedullary vein, but the medulla also gets blood from medullary arterioles that bypass cortex

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106
Q

zona glomerulosa produces-

A

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

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107
Q

zona fasiculata produces-

A

glucocorticoids (cortisol)

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108
Q

zona reticularis produces-

A

gonadocorticoids (androgens)

109
Q

adrenal medulla prodiuces-

A

epineph. and norepineph.

110
Q

long term hormonal response of adrenal medulla is to

A

stimulate hypothalamus to secrete corticotrophin releasing hormone, which induces anterior pituitary to release ACTH, which acts on adrenal cortex

111
Q

Salty, sweet, sex correspond to what layers

A

3 layers of adrenal cortex

112
Q

adrenal medulla cells function as __________ because they are innervated by _______ sympathetic fibers

A
  • modified sympathetic ganglion

- preganglionic sympathetic fibers

113
Q

how to convert norepinephrine to epinephrine

A

glucocorticoids induce phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase to convert norep. into ep.

114
Q

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is stimulated in what 2 situations?

A

macula densa detects low Na+ or JG cells detect low blood pressure

115
Q

glucocorticoids negatively feedback to stop release of

A

ACTH

116
Q

androgens negatively feedback to stop release of

A

CRH

117
Q

thyroid colloid is made of

A

thyroglobulin

118
Q

parafollicular cells secrete

A

calcitonin

119
Q

apex of thyroid follicular cells are joined by

A

junctional complexes

120
Q

big difference between parafollicular and follicular cells?

A

follicular border colloid and parafollicular have granules

121
Q

____ is most physiologically active form of thyroid hormone but not as prevalent

A

T3

122
Q

T4 is converted to T3 in the

A

liver

123
Q

in children, hypothyroidism leads to

A

cretinism

124
Q

in adults, hypothyroidism leads to

A

myxedema

125
Q

hyperthyroidism can be caused by

A

graves disease

126
Q

_______ facilitates thyroglobulin’s transport into colloid

A

thyroid peroxidase

127
Q

how does iodide enter follicular cells?

A

via ATP pump in basolateral membrane, where it then migrates cell to the colloid

128
Q

TSH dual purpose

A

stimulate thyroid hormone production and stimulate release

129
Q

iodothyroglobulin is taken up by follicular cells through endocytosis, then _________ fuses with vesicle and cleaves hormone into its 2 active parts

A

lysosome

130
Q

Graves disease mechanism-

A

antibodies bind to active site of TSH receptor, leading to unregulated production of iodothyroglobulin

131
Q

which is essential for life, calcitonin or PTH?

A

PTH

132
Q

2 types of parathyroid cells

A

chief cells an oxyphil cells

chief are clustered and basophilc, oxyphil are larger and eosinophilic

133
Q

chief cells produce

A

PTH. contained in granules

134
Q

PTH stimulates osteoblasts to release ______, which converts monocytes into osteoclasts

A

Macrophage colony stimulating factor (M-CSF)

135
Q

PTH overactivity results in

A

osteitis fibrosia cystica

136
Q

PTH underactivity results in

A

tetany = death

137
Q

PTH increases urinary excretion of

A

phosphate

138
Q

beta cell granule appearance

A

irregular looking crystalloid surrounded by clear zone

139
Q

Alpha cell granule appearance-

A

dense circular core surrounded by lighter staining zone

140
Q

delta cell granule appearance-

A

evenly stained grey color

141
Q

delta cell hormone-

A

somatostatin

142
Q

somatostatin inhibits secretion of:

A

insulin, glucagon, and HCL

143
Q

F cells synthesize:

A

pancreatic polypeptide

144
Q

pancreatic polypeptide stimulates ______, inhibits ______ and decreases ________

A
  • gastric chief cells
  • release of somatostatin
  • bile secretion, gut motility, and acinar pancreas bicarbonate secretion
145
Q

D1 cells secrete:

A

vasoactive intestinal peptide

146
Q

EC cells are antagonists of

A

F cells

147
Q

Epsilon cells secrete

A

ghrelin

148
Q

EC cells secrete:

A

secretin and motilin

149
Q

what element is found with mature insulin granules?

A

zinc

150
Q

blood supply to islets of langerhans is via

A

acinar portal system

151
Q

islet cells have a paracrine effect on ________

A

pancreatic acinar cells. Via acinar portal system. Insulin stimulates them, glucagon inhibits them

152
Q

insulin receptors are what type?

A

RTK

153
Q

Type 1 diabetes-

A

autoimmune, beta cells are killed, no insulin is produced

154
Q

type 2 diabetes-

A

insulin resistance. not enough receptors to bind with insulin so glucose is not adequately taken up

155
Q

GI mucosa epithelium is usually

A

squamous or simple columnar

156
Q

mucosal epithelium of stomach, small intestine, and colon is

A

simple columnar epithelium

157
Q

what nerve plexus is located in submucosa of GI

A

meissner’s plexus (of the enteric nervous system)

158
Q

what nerve plexus is located between inner and outer layer of muscularis externa

A

Auerbach’s plexus

159
Q

what kind of neurons are in auerbach’s plexus?

A

post-ganglionic parasympathetics

160
Q

what parts of GI don’t have serosa?

A

thoracic esophagus, duodenum, ascending and descending colon, rectum

161
Q

esophageal glands are located in what layer?

A

submucosa

162
Q

pH of esophageal gland secretions:

A

slightly acidic

163
Q

esophageal cardiac glands are located in what layer?

A

lamina propria of mucosa

164
Q

pH of esophageal cardiac gland secretion

A

neutral

165
Q

parietal cells produce

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

166
Q

chief cells secrete

A

pepsin

167
Q

enteroendocrine cells secrete

A

digestive hormones

168
Q

most common site of ulcers in stomach

A

cardiac region

169
Q

epithelium of small intestine is chiefly

A

enterocytes

170
Q

4 types of small intestine epithelial cells

A

absorptive, goblet, endocrine, and paneth

171
Q

Paneth cells release

A

antibacterial enzymes

172
Q

enterocyte main function

A

absorb nutrients and transport them to circulation

173
Q

purpose of Brunner’s glands-

A

secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize stomach acid

174
Q

main site of nutrient absorption

A

jejunum

175
Q

Ileum mainly absorbs

A

water and electrolytes

176
Q

_______ disease leads to mega colon

A

Hirschsprung disease

177
Q

Hirschsprung disease is a result of absence of

A

auerbach and meissner plexi

178
Q

albumins-

A

regulate plasma volume and maintain colloid osmotic pressure in blood

179
Q

lipoproteins-

A

transport triglycerides from liver to other organs

180
Q

glycoproteins

A

proteins involved in iron transport

181
Q

vitamin K important for

A

prothrombin synthesis

182
Q

liver stores 3 important vitamins

A

ADK

183
Q

fat soluble toxins are detoxified with

A

cytochrome p450 enzymes

184
Q

vessels in liver travel in __________

A

connective tissue stromas

185
Q

spaces between sinusoidal epithelium and hepatocytes

A

perisinusoidal spaces/space of disse

186
Q

sinusoidal capillaries are lined with

A

simple squamous epithelium

187
Q

central veins of lobules drain into _______, which then drain into ________

A
  • sublobular veins

- inferior vena cava

188
Q

bile duct composed of

A

simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium

189
Q

bile canaliculi merge to form ______

A

bile ductules

190
Q

chronic alcohol exposure can cause what in pancreas?

A

pancreatitis

191
Q

chronic alcohol exposure can wear out hepatocytes as well as _______ cells

A

kupffer

192
Q

the sphincter of the gall bladder

A

sphincter of Oddi

193
Q

invaginations of mucosa extending into muscularis externa of gall bladder

A

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

194
Q

bile contains organic components such as

A

lecithin, cholesterol, and bilirubin

195
Q

when acidic chyme enters the duodenum, enteroendocrine cells release ______ and ________

A
  • secretin

- cholecystokinin

196
Q

cck and secretin induce the secretion of

A

pancreatic juices, bicarbonate ions, bile release

197
Q

2 main types of cells in exocrine pancreas

A

centroacinar and acinar

198
Q

centroacinar cells secrete _____, which neutralizes stomach acid

A

bicarbonate ions

199
Q

pancreatic acinar cells secrete: (4)

A

pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase, trypsinogen, and chymotrypsinogen

200
Q

exocrine pancreatic secretion: acinar –> intercalated duct–> _______–> _________

A
  • intralobular duct

- interlobular duct

201
Q

cck is released in response to

A

fatty acids, peptides, and amino acids

202
Q

base of exocrine pancreas cells contain lots of

A

rER

203
Q

apical portion of pancreatic exocrine cells contains

A

zymogen secretory granules

204
Q

epilthelium of pancreatic ducts transitions from _____ to _____ down the course of the duct system

A

low cuboidal to cuboidal to low columnar

205
Q

leptotene-

A

condensation of chromatin and pairing of sister chromatids

206
Q

the order of steps in prophase 1 of meiosis in males

A

LZPDD. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis

207
Q

zygotene-

A

synaptonemal complex formation (binds chromosomes together)

208
Q

pachytene-

A

crossing over

209
Q

diplotene-

A

synaptonemal complex dissolves, chiasmata forms

210
Q

diakinesis-

A

nuclear envelope dissolves

211
Q

3 phases of spermatogenesis

A

spermatogonial, spermatocyte, and spermiogeneis phase

212
Q

spermatogonial phase-

A

mitotic division of spermatogonia to provide basal cell lineage for spermatocytes

213
Q

spermatoycte phase-

A

meiotic division to create haploid germ cells

214
Q

spermiogenesis phase-

A

maturation of spermatids

215
Q

spermiogenesis phase is subdivided into 4 phases

A

golgi, cap, acrosome, and maturation phase

216
Q

golgi phase-

A

coalescence of pro-acrosomal granules into the acrosomal vesicle

217
Q

cap phase-

A

acrosomal vesicle spreads over nucleus

218
Q

acrosome phase-

A

things that make a sperm look like a sperm happen, minus there still being too much cytoplasm

219
Q

maturation phase-

A

reduction in cytoplasm and sperm unstick from each other

220
Q

distinguishing feature in EM of leydig cells

A

crystals of Reinke

221
Q

order from basal lamina to lumen in seminiferous tubules of cell phases is

A

spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, early spermatid, late spermatid

222
Q

_______ cells establish blood-testis barrier

A

sertoli cells

223
Q

sertoli cells contain inclusion bodies of

A

Charcot-Bottcher (possibly involved in lipid transport)

224
Q

1st stage of human seminiferous development

A

late spermatids maturing

225
Q

2nd stage of human seminiferous development

A

late spermatids released

226
Q

3rd stage of human seminiferous development

A

starting over, spermatogonium begin maturation

227
Q

4th stage of human seminiferous development

A

spermatogonium become primary spermatocytes

228
Q

5th stage of human seminiferous development

A

primary spermatocyte becomes early spermatid

229
Q

6th stage of human seminiferous development

A

early spermatid becomes late spermatid

230
Q

what are halo cells?

A

lymphocytes in the epidydymis

231
Q

vas deferens is surrounded by what composition of muscular layers?

A

inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal

232
Q

bulbourethral glands resemble _____ glands

A

mucous

233
Q

layer between germinal epithelium and ovarian cortex

A

tunica albuginea

234
Q

a primordial, primary, and secondary follicle all contain a _____ oocyte

A

primary

235
Q

primordial follicles are surrounded by a single layer of

A

squamous follicle cells

236
Q

FSH stimulates _____ and _____ to begin estrogen secretion

A

granulosa and thecal cells

237
Q

LH stimulates the release of

A

progesterone

238
Q

corpus luteum secretes

A

estrogen and lots of progesterone

239
Q

If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum will secrete estrogen and progesterone until

A

placenta starts to produce these hormones on its own

240
Q

when a primordial follicle becomes a primary follicle, follicular cells become ______ and are now called _____

A
  • stratified cuboidal cells

- granulosa cells

241
Q

______ begins to develop in a primary follicle

A

zona pellucida

242
Q

Theca interna-

A

inner vascularized layer of primary follicle that responds to LH by secreting estrogen precursors

243
Q

theca externa-

A

made of smooth muscle and collagen

244
Q

ZP-3 function-

A

sperm binding receptor and inducer of acrosome reaction

245
Q

________ = the stem holding the follicle in place

A

cumulus oophorous

246
Q

layers of ovum from inside to outside-

A

zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata

247
Q

main ingredient of Plan B

A

levonorgestrel

248
Q

polycystic ovaries can lead to an endocrine imbalance including:

A

elevated androgens and decreased estrogens and progesterones. also, problems with diabetes

249
Q

most common cause of female infertility

A

polycystic ovary syndrome

250
Q

hirstism-

A

increased hair growth on manly places

251
Q

most common type of follicle cyst

A

graafian follicle cyst

252
Q

possibly very painful type of ovarian cyst-

A

hemorrhagic cyst/blood cyst

253
Q

3 layers of oviduct

A

tunica mucosa, tunica muscularis, and tunica serosa

254
Q

what do peg cells do?

A

secrete nutrient rich fluid to nourish sperm, eggs, and zygotes

255
Q

what kind of musculature does oviduct have?

A

inner circular and outer longitudinal layer

256
Q

estrogen increases ______ in oviduct, progesterone increases _______

A
  • ciliogenesis

- peg cell formation

257
Q

2 uterine phases

A

estrogenic/proliferative and progestational/secretory

258
Q

progestational phase of uterus corresponds to _______ phase of ovary

A

luteal

259
Q

uterine fibroids aka

A

leiomyomas

260
Q

uterine fibroids grow in response to

A

estrogen

261
Q

GnRH agonists are used to treat

A

fibroids

262
Q

which HPV types cause most nether region cancers

A

16 and 18

263
Q

which HPV types cause most genital warts?

A

6 and 11

264
Q

mammary glands are modified

A

apocrine sweat glands

265
Q

path of milk from boobs

A

acini–>duct–>ampulla–>nipple

266
Q

non lactating mammary glands have lots of _____ tissue around ducts

A

adipose and fibrous connective

267
Q

can lipids cross the placenta?

A

yes

268
Q

what produces hCG for first 2 months of pregnancy

A

syntrophoblast

269
Q

synctiotrophoblast is lined by

A

cytotrophoblast

Histology (3 decks)

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