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Histology > Block A > Flashcards

Block A Flashcards

1
Q

4 subunits that can make intermediate filaments

A

keratin, laminin, neurofilaments, and vimentin

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2
Q

up to ____% of protein in cell is actin

A

20

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3
Q

Actin filaments require 3 things for polymerization

A

K+, Mg2+ and ATP

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4
Q

cut actin filaments are called

A

gelsolin

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5
Q

an actin capping protein

A

tropomodulin

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6
Q

an actin cross-linking protein

A

spectrin

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7
Q

are intermediate filaments polar?

A

no

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8
Q

Keratins have highly conserved ____ domain and highly variable _____ domain

A

globular (terminal)

central

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9
Q

most abundant IF

A

vimentin

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10
Q

IF protein mostly found in muscle

A

desmin

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11
Q

keratins will span the cytoplasm of _____ cells

A

epithelial

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12
Q

Microtubules are a circle composed of ____ alpha/beta tubulin dimers

A

13

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13
Q

formation of microtubule at MTOC is characterized by the presence of ____ tubulin

A

gamma

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14
Q

____ tubulin is at the minus end of a microtubule

___ tubulin is at the positive end

A

alpha

beta

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15
Q

do minus end of microtubules grow?

A

no

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16
Q

microtubule remodeling is linked to a pattern of ___ hydrolysis

A

GTP

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17
Q

all microtubules can be disassemble by

A

putting them in the cold

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18
Q

proteins responsible for transport along microtubule track

A

molecular motor proteins

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19
Q

molecular motor protein that moves toward minus end of microtube

A

dynein

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20
Q

molecular motor protein that moves toward plus end of microtube

A

kinesin

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21
Q

centrioles are built from what subunits

A

9 microtubule triplets

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22
Q

keratin IFs can connect with the keratins of other cells via

A

desmosomes

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23
Q

IFs form ________ filaments (only 1 type of protein)

A

homopolymeric

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24
Q

easiest way to distinguish between centriole and cilia

A

cilia has doublet in middle

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25
Q

each cilium requires a ____ as its organizing center

A

basal body

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26
Q

basal body is formed by:

A

repeated replications of the centrioles and their migration to the apical surface

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27
Q

during mitosis, _____ microtubules are formed around each centriole. they are crucial for alignment of the mitotic spindle

A

astral

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28
Q

Centrosome cycle-

Describe disengagement, duplication, engagement, maturation, and separation.

A

Disengagement- 2 centrioles break up, but are still tethered
duplication- each centriole makes a new centriole
engagement- new centrioles mature and the mother/daughter centrioles detach from each other
maturation- 2 individual centrosomes now mature and collect raw materials
separation- 2 centrosomes make spindle fibers between themselves

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29
Q

astral microtubules assure that:

A

centrioles are oriented properly

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30
Q

polar microtubules do what?`

A

help push dividing cells apart

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31
Q

colchicine-

A

prevent microtubule polymerization and also depolymerize microtubules.

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32
Q

what non cancer use does colchicine have?

A

treats gout

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33
Q

vincristine-

A

inibits spindle formation

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34
Q

taxol-

A

stabilizes and prevents depolymerization of microtubules

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35
Q

Cytochalasin B & D

A

disrupts actin microfilament and activates the p53 dependent pathways

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36
Q

lipofuscin-

A

brownish gold pigment seen in H&E preps. conglomerate of lipids, metals, and organic molecules. sign of cellular stress

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37
Q

lipofuscin is often seen in

A

neurons

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38
Q

hemosiderin is seen often where?

A

where there is red blood cell destruction (like spleen)

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39
Q

crystalline inclusions are often seen in _____ cells

A

sertoli and leydig cells of the testis

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40
Q

the five basic histone proteins

A

H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4

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41
Q

nuclear lamins are in what class?

A

intermediate filaments

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42
Q

nucleolus stains intensely with what chemical?

A

hematoxylin

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43
Q

fibrillar centers-

A

contain DNA of 5 chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21, 22), RNA polymerase I and transcription factors

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44
Q

fibrillar material (pars fibrosa)-

A

contains ribosomal genes actively undergoing transcription and large amounts of rRNA

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45
Q

granular material-

A

site of initial ribosome assembly

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46
Q

nuclear pores are _____ nm in diameter

A

70-80

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47
Q

nuclear pores contain about ___ different proteins

A

50

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48
Q

nuclear pores are cytoplasmic rings with protruding ______

A

protein fibrils

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49
Q

_____ and _____ fibers form in prophase

A

astral and spindle

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50
Q

nuclear envelope is broken down in _______

A

prometaphase

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51
Q

3 ways cells can proceed from mitotic arrest:

A

spindle depolarizes, apoptosis, or misaligned chromosomes realign

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52
Q

mitotic checkpoint is after

A

metaphase

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53
Q

Leptotene -

A

condensation of the chromatin and sister chromatids are paired to each other.

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54
Q

Zygotene -

A

close association of the homologous chromosomes (synapsis) by the formation of the synaptonemal complex.

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55
Q

Pachytene -

A

crossing-over (recombination)

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56
Q

Diplotene -

A

synaptonemal complex dissolves; chiasmata (junctions between homologous chromosomes) seen

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57
Q

Diakinesis -

A

homolog chromos condense, shorten, nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope dissolves

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58
Q

glycocalyx-

A

surface molecules that establish extracellular microenvironment. have receptors and enzymatic activity

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59
Q

P-face in freeze fracture

A

internal face, looks bumpy

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60
Q

linker proteins-

A

anchor extracellular matrix to intracellular cytoskeleton

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61
Q

phagocytosis requires rearrangement of:

A

actin cytoskeleton

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62
Q

does phagocytosis use clathrin?

A

no

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63
Q

adaptin is involved in

A

endocytosis

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64
Q

familial hypercholesterolemia-

A

defect in receptor prevents initiation of receptor-mediated edocytosis of protein-bound cholesterol

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65
Q

pH of early endosomes

A

slightly basic

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66
Q

late endosomes pH

A

acidic

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67
Q

multivesicular bodies-

A

transport substances between early and late endosomes

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68
Q

chaperone-mediated direct transport-

A

selective interaction of particles to be degraded with heat shock chaperone protein and its subsequent transport to lysosome

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69
Q

tay sachs disease-

A

missing enzymes to break down lysosomes, so lysosomes accumulate. first acts on neurons

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70
Q

Krabbe disease-

A

lysosome causes problems with myelin sheath

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71
Q

can genes of the nucleus influence mitochondria?

A

yes

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72
Q

mitochondria are important in the initiation of _____ after sensing cell stress

A

apoptosis

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73
Q

3 enzymes in outer mitochondrial membrane-

A

PLC A2, monoamine oxidase, acetyl CoA synthase

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74
Q

3 enzymes in intermembrane space of mitochondria

A

creatine kinase, adenylate kinase, and cytochrome C

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75
Q

cytochrome C initiates-

A

apoptosis

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76
Q

Zellweger syndrome-

A

inability to import proteins into the peroxisome, leads to early death because perxisomes lack the necessary enzymes

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77
Q

Pyronin G stain color

A

red

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78
Q

Acid fuchsin stain color

A

red

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79
Q

eosin stain color

A

red

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80
Q

H&E most darkly stains what material?

A

genetic

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81
Q

PAS stands for

A

periodic acid schiff

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82
Q

PAS best stains what molecules?

A

carbs

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83
Q

actin bundles from microvilli extend down into apical cytoplasm and form the _____ with ______

A

terminal web with intermediate filaments

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84
Q

Structure of cilia

A

made of microtubules in a 9+2 configuration

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85
Q

axoneme-

A

microtubule based internal structure of motile cilia

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86
Q

_____ generates the sliding force in axonemes

A

dynein

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87
Q

are primary cilia motile?

A

no

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88
Q

what is the structure of primary cilia

A

9+0

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89
Q

primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

lack of dyneisn proteins, no motion

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90
Q

stereocilia are actually

A

microvilli

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91
Q

tight junctions are near the ____ surface of epithelial cells

A

apical

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92
Q

hemidesmosomes anchor ___ to ____

A

IF to ECM

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93
Q

basement membrane =

A

basal lamina + reticular lamina

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94
Q

basal lamina is composed of (4)

A

laminins, collagens, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

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95
Q

epidermolytic hyperkeratosis-

A

excessive keratinization causes breakdown of epidermis

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96
Q

merocrine secretion-

A

secretory product in membrane bound vesicles

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97
Q

apocrine secretion-

A

large secretion released in the apical portion of the cell

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98
Q

holocrine secretion-

A

whole cell fills with secretion, which is released when cell dies

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99
Q

hydration is a function of _______ tissue

A

connective

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100
Q

mesenchymal stem cells are derived from

A

epiblast

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101
Q

mesenchymal stem cells are precursors to other cell types, including

A

mesoderm and CT

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102
Q

mucous CT has a _____ appearance

A

stellate/star like

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103
Q

mucous CT nuclei have a _____ shape

A

pyramidal

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104
Q

mucus CT nuclei appear euchromatic or heterochromatic?

A

heterochromatic

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105
Q

mucous CT contains ground substance called

A

whartons jelly

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106
Q

_____ are the primary cell type of CT

A

fibroblasts

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107
Q

loose CT is known as

A

areolar tissue

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108
Q

loose CT is sparse in _____ and abundant in _____

A

collagen/elastin

ground substance

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109
Q

LCT provides structural support to what tissues

A

fragile tissues like capillaries

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110
Q

basal lamina is secreted by:

A

overlying epithelial cells

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111
Q

LCT synthesizes _____ which resides below basal lamina

A

reticular lamina

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112
Q

reticular lamina is composed of _____ fibers

A

collagen

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113
Q

dense irregular CT has much more ___ than LCT

A

collagen

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114
Q

Dense regular CT has much more ____ than LCT

A

collagen

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115
Q

nuclei of DRCT appear:

A

squished in between collagen fibers

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116
Q

DRCT has good or poor vascularization?

A

poor

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117
Q

what type of CT makes up ligaments, tendons

A

DRCT

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118
Q

nuclei of DRCT as opposed to skeletal muscle

A

nuclei of DRCT are more squeezed/linear

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119
Q

tendinocyte process-

A

wraps around collagen fiber and is important in maintaining the fibers and recycling/replacing them when called for

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120
Q

how to differentiate btw LCT and DCT?

A

LCT tends to line ducts

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121
Q

fibrillar matrix

A

ECM that cells suspend in to make up CT

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122
Q

composition of fibrillar matrix-

A

collagen, reticular (type 3) collagen, and elastin

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123
Q

structural organization of collagen: from large to small

A

fascia, tendons, ligaments–> collagen bundle–> collagen fiber–> collagen fibril–> packed collagen molecules–> collagen molecule–> amino acids

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124
Q

collagen is not connected end to end, rather the fibrils are ______

A

cross linked

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125
Q

if striations are seen on high power EM, you are probably looking at:

A

collagen fibril striations

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126
Q

Type 1 collagen is found in (7 places)

A

CT of skin, bone, tendon, dentin, sclera, fascia, and organ capsules.

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127
Q

Type 2 collagen found in (3 places)

A

cartilage (hyaline and elastic), the notochord, and IV disks

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128
Q

Type 2 collagen provides resistance to

A

intermittent pressure

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129
Q

Type 3 collagen is found in (6 places)

A

LCT, organs, smooth muscle, blood vessels, endoneurium, and fetal skin

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130
Q

Type 3 collagen forms _____ which are arranged as a loos mesh of thin fibers to provide a scaffold for specialized cells

A

reticular fibers

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131
Q

Type 4 collagen is found in (3 places)

A

basal lamina of epithelia, kidney glomeruli, lens capsules

132
Q

type 4 collagen provides support and a _____ barrier

A

filtration

133
Q

________ collagens are resistant to tensile force and capable of regulating other collagen molecules

A

fibrillar

134
Q

Collagen types __ and ___ are fibrillar

A

1 and 3

135
Q

FACITs

A

fibril associated collagens with interrupted triple helixes

136
Q

collagen molecules are arranged as a _____ helix

A

triple

137
Q

Type ____ collagen is an example of a FACIT

A

IX

138
Q

Type IX collagen stabilizes networks of Type II collagen fibers to produce ______

A

hyaline cartilage

139
Q

FACITs are usually associated on:

A

the surface of other collagen fibrils

140
Q

Hexagonal Network forming collagen-

A

developmental collagens (like at epiphyseal plate)

141
Q

example of Hexagonal network forming collagen-

A

type X

142
Q

transmembrane collagens-

A

interact with cell membrane and other extracellular matrix proteins

143
Q

example of transmembrane collagen-

A

type XVII interacts with integrin to anchor hemidesmosomes

144
Q

multiplexins and basement membrane forming collagens-

A

interact with the cell membrane and other ECM proteins

145
Q

example of multiplex/basement membrane forming collagens-

A

Type VII collagen, which secures the basal lamina to the underlying type III collagen that compose the reticular lamina

146
Q

during collagen synthesis, prepro-collagen undergoes ______ to render it unreactive to other rER contents

A

hydroxylation

147
Q

collagen hydroxylation requires ______

A

vitamin C

148
Q

hydroxylation is necessary for the formation of ____ bonds

A

H

149
Q

_______ proteins prevent intracellular aggregation of collagen

A

chaperone

150
Q

cleavage, alignment, and polymerization of collagen occurs where?

A

ECM

151
Q

Type III/Reticular collagens are just like type 1 except

A

they are thinner and have more branching

152
Q

Brittle bone syndrome-

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

153
Q

collagen affected in osteogenesis imperfecta (fibrillar class)

A

type 1

154
Q

Type 4 collagen disorder (fibrillar class)

A

Ehlers-danlos

155
Q

Type X collagen disorder (Hexagonal network forming class)-

A

Schmid Metaphysal Dysplasia

156
Q

Type XVII collagen disorder (Transmembrane class)-

A

Generalized Atrophic Benign Epidermolysis Bullosa (GABEB)

157
Q

Elastic fibers are composed of what 2 types of fibers

A

elastin and fibrillin

158
Q

elastic fibers are sythesized by

A

fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

159
Q

Type IX (facit class) collagen disorder

A

Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia

160
Q

the backbone for ground substance-

A

hyaluronan

161
Q

GAGs are attached to _____ which are attached to ______

A

core proteins

hyaluronan

162
Q

multiadhesive glycoproteins stabilize ______

A

ECM

163
Q

Multiadhesive glycoproteins are associated with

A

basal lamina

164
Q

myofibroblasts-

A

differentiated fibroblast (contractile and secretory)

165
Q

anthracosis-

A

process where macrophages stain black from eating carbon

166
Q

distinct feature of plasma cells-

A

have clock faced arrangement in their nuclei

167
Q

type of cartilage made depends on the secretions of

A

chondrocytes

168
Q

Type __ collagen is most common type found in cartilage

A

2

169
Q

Hyaline cartilage is basically all cartilage except for which 2 places

A

ear, epiglottis, and IV discs

170
Q

______ is dense connective tissue that surrounds hyaline cartilage

A

perichondrium

171
Q

Hyaline cartilage matrix contains (6 things)

A

perichondrum, type 2 collagen, proteoglycans (protein core), GAGs, multiadhesive glycoproteins, and isogenic groups

172
Q

2 types of GAGs

A

chondroitin and keratin sulfate

173
Q

isogenic groups-

A

clusters of chondrocytes within cartilage derived from division of a single chondrocyte. Clustered in pairs or groups of 4

174
Q

lacunae-

A

empty spaces due to prep (cell shrinkage usually)

175
Q

Capsular matrix zone-

A

immediately surrounding chondrocyte (mostly type VI)

176
Q

Territorial matrix zone-

A

contains type 2 cartilage, stains dark blue

177
Q

interterritorial zone-

A

surrounds territorial matrix zone and occupies space btw groups of chondrocytes

178
Q

Fibrocatilage contains which 2 collagens

A

type 1 and 2

179
Q

fibrocartilage is located in:

A

IV discs

180
Q

elastic cartilage contains type ___ collagen

A

2

181
Q

_______ + ______ = elastic cartilage

A

hyaline cartilage + elastin

182
Q

with silver stain, elastin appears as

A

black fibers

183
Q

location of elastic cartilage

A

epiglottis and ear

184
Q

elastic and hyaline cartilage are associated with a ______. fibrocartilage is not

A

perichondrum

185
Q

appositional growth-

A

new cartilage forms on surface of existing cartilage

186
Q

interstitial growth-

A

new cartilage forming within existing cartilage

187
Q

what kind of stem cells can differentiate into fat cells?

A

mesenchymal stem cells

188
Q

nuclei of white fat are where?

A

periphery

189
Q

nuclei of brown fat are robust and located where?

A

not the periphery

190
Q

_____ regulates appetite and body energy expenditure

A

leptin

191
Q

_____ increases insulin resistance.

A

resistin

192
Q

______ is linked to obesity and type 2 diabetes

A

resistin

193
Q

non-muscle contractile cell in the seminiferous tubules

A

myoid cells

194
Q

3 common non-muscle contractile cells

A

myoepithelial, myofibroblasts, pericytes

195
Q

myoepithelial cells stain how?

A

brightly red

196
Q

visceral striated muscle-

A

basically skeletal muscle not attached to bones (its in esophagus)

197
Q

list the hierarchy of muscle from smallest to biggest, starting with myofibers

A

myofilaments–> myofibrils–> myofibers–>fascicle–> muscle

198
Q

______ carries blood supply, innervation, and lymphatics that supply blood vessels

A

perimysium

199
Q

perimysium surrounds:

A

fascicles

200
Q

within each myofiber, myofibrils are suspended in the

A

sarcoplasm

201
Q

where are fibroblast nuclei located

A

extracellularly, outside of muscle cells

202
Q

Red fibers undergo _____ as main energy source

A

oxidative phosphorylation

203
Q

white fibers undergo ____ as main energy source

A

glycolysis

204
Q

sarcomere is defined as distance between

A

adjacent Z lines

205
Q

length of a sarcomere ranges from ___ to ___

A

1.5-2.5 um

206
Q

Terminal Cisternae of Junctional Sarcoplasmic Reticulum-

A

tube-like structures at A/I junction that serve as the reservoir for storage of Calcium outside of the cytoplasm but in the SR

207
Q

Transverse tubule invaginates at site where:

A

A and I bands overlap

208
Q

Triad is at the site of the _____ junction in muscle cells

A

A-I

209
Q

Triad = _____+_____

A

1 Transverse Tubule + 2 Terminal Cisternae

210
Q

how many triads per sarcomere?

A

2

211
Q

in the terminal cisternae, calcium binds to:

A

calsequestrin

212
Q

nonjunctional SR appears as:

A

squiggly lines running transversely between triads

213
Q

Accessory proteins of the thin filament

A

tropomyosin, tropomodulin, troponin complex

214
Q

list the components of the troponin complex (3)

A

TnT, TnC, TnI

215
Q

tropomyosin lies where?

A

in the groove on F-actin

216
Q

tropomodulin does what?

A

binds both F-actin and Tropomyosin

217
Q

when calcium binds to TnC, ______ moves to expose active site

A

tropomyosin

218
Q

each myosin has a tail with ___ chains, and a head with _____ chains.

A

2 heavy

4 light

219
Q

+ end of actin filament faces:

A

Z line

220
Q

Z line is made of

A

alpha-actinin

221
Q

M line is made of:

A

C protein and myomesin

222
Q

what do proteins on M line do?

A

they stabilize the sarcomere through interactions with thick filaments

223
Q

Titin-

A

protein taht anchors thick filament to Z line

224
Q

Nebulin-

A

protein that anchors thin filament to Z line

225
Q

how does nebulin attach to thin filament?

A

spirals around it

226
Q

5 stages of muscle contraction cycle:

A

attachment, release, bending, force generation, and reattachment

227
Q

describe muscle contraction stage 1

A

Attachment. rigor. Myosin is bound to actin in bent position

228
Q

describe muscle contraction stage 2

A

release. ATP binds to myosin head. Myosin is released from actin

229
Q

describe muscle contraction stage 3

A

bending. ATP hydrolysis cocks myosin head

230
Q

describe muscle contraction stage 4

A

force generation. phosphate is released, causing myosin to bind to actin and power stroke. then ADP is released.

231
Q

describe muscle contraction stage 5

A

reattachment. rigor again

232
Q

terminal branches of axon contact muscle fiber at the _______ of the neuromuscular junction

A

motor end plate

233
Q

motor unit

A

a single motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it innervates

234
Q

junctional folds-

A

finger like projections coming up from muscle cell in synaptic cleft

235
Q

external/basal lamina around neuromuscular junction produce what enzyme?

A

acetylcholinesterase

236
Q

muscle spindle apparatus-

A

sensing unit of muscle that responds to stretch. stretching in morning fine tunes this apparatus

237
Q

muscle spindle apparatus contains what kind of nerve fibers?

A

afferent and efferent

238
Q

muscle spindle apparatus is inserted inside

A

middle of muscle fiber

239
Q

nuclear bag fibers-

A

cells with central collection of nuclei

240
Q

nuclear chain fibers-

A

cells with linear arrangement of nuclei

241
Q

intrafusal fibers-

A

modified striated muscle fibers within the spindle apparatus

242
Q

extrafusal fibers-

A

normal muscle fibers outside of the spindle apparatus

243
Q

Golgi tendon organ contains what kind of nerve fibers?

A

afferent only

244
Q

which component of proprioception has both afferent and efferent nerve fibers?

A

muscle spindle apparatus

245
Q

what component of proprioception has only afferent fibers?

A

golgi tendon organ

246
Q

golgi tendon organ detects

A

contraction

247
Q

3 cardiac muscle cell types-

A

atrial cardiomyocytes, ventricular cardiomyocytes, purkinje fibers

248
Q

ventricular cardiomyocytes mostly have how many nuclei?

A

2

249
Q

cardiac muscle cells are not fused like skeletal muscle, but they do function as a:

A

synctium

250
Q

how does size of cardiac transverse tubules compare to skeletal muscle?

A

they are larger

251
Q

Where is calcium stored in cardiac muscle?

A

T tubules

252
Q

_____+______= dyad in cardiovascular muscle

A

1 TT + 1 SR

253
Q

Fascia adherens-

A

broader areas of tight connections with IF, only found in heart intercalated discs

254
Q

2 things in lateral component of intercalated discs-

A

macula adherens and gap junctions

255
Q

fusiform-

A

football shape of smooth muscle cells

256
Q

what stores calcium in smooth muscle?

A

caveolae

257
Q

calcium is bound to _____ in smooth muscle

A

calmodulin

258
Q

smooth muscle cells communicate via

A

gap junctions

259
Q

what anchors IF and myofibrils in smooth muscle?

A

dense bodies

260
Q

dense bodies are similar to ______ in skeletal muscle

A

z lines

261
Q

smooth muscle myosin in relaxed state looks like?

A

golf club coiled into a hoop

262
Q

______ is directly bound to dense bodies in SM

A

actin

263
Q

instead of a bipolar thick filament, smooth muscle myosin is

A

side-polar thick filament. thick filaments are pulled in opposite directions

264
Q

Describe the process of smooth muscle cell contraction, starting with depolarization/receptor binding.

A

either of the aforementioned methods will trigger calcium release, which will bind with calmodulin. this complex will then activate myosin light chain kinase, which will phosphorylate myosin light chains, which releases them from their looped configuration. the myosin is now active. phosphatases will dephosphorylate MLCK to inactivate muscle contraction

265
Q

name 2 ways smooth muscle contraction is triggered

A

hormones or autonomic (depolarization)

266
Q

some skeletal muscle regeneration can occur via _____ cells

A

satellite

267
Q

amount of muscle in large vessels is high or low?

A

low

268
Q

does tunica intima have smooth muscle?

A

sometimes

269
Q

smooth muscle cells of tunica media can secrete

A

collagen and elastin

270
Q

in disease processes, _________ break down in tunica media

A

collagen and elastin

271
Q

nerve supply to tunica adventitia

A

nervi vascularis

272
Q

blood supply to tunica adventitia

A

vasa vasorum

273
Q

identifying layer of large arteries

A

large tunica media with alternating layers of smooth muscle cells and elastic tissue

274
Q

what does tunica adventitia of arterioles look like?

A

thin and ill defined

275
Q

endothelial cells of arteries are connected by

A

junctional complexe

276
Q

what is condition of basal lamina in fenestrated capillaries?

A

still intact

277
Q

neuron cell bodies are also referred to as

A

perikaryon

278
Q

nissl bodies

A

stacks of rER and ribosomes asociated with cells undergoing lots of translation and protein synthesis

279
Q

sympathetic chain ganglia nuclei are polarized, meaning they appear

A

shifted to one side due to large amounts of rER

280
Q

branches of dendrites in purkinje cells are called

A

arborizations

281
Q

3 types of dendrites

A

unencapsulated, encapsulated, and epithelial cell associated

282
Q

pacinian corpuscles

A

encapsulated axon terminals that detect deep pressure

283
Q

meissner’s corpuscles

A

encapsulated axon terminals that detect light pressure

284
Q

3 types of receptors associated with sensory neuron dendrites

A

exteroreceptors, enteroreceptors, and proprioceptors

285
Q

________ establishes the blood-nerve barrier

A

perineurium

286
Q

perineurium shares a common basal lamina with

A

the endothelial cells lining the lumen of blood vessels

287
Q

kinesins participate in _____ transport

dyneins participate in _______ transport

A

anterograde

retrograde

288
Q

nestin-

A

causes neurons to divide

289
Q

electrical synapse gap junctions are called

A

connexins

290
Q

terminal end of axon (chemical synapse) is called

A

synaptic bouton

291
Q

majority of NT removal is via

A

reuptake

292
Q

minority of NT removal is via

A

degradation

293
Q

perent of lung that is solid tissue

A

10

294
Q

surface area of lung

A

80-100 square meters

295
Q

lungs inspire how many liters per day

A

10000

296
Q

3 types of epithelium of nasal cavity

A

stratified squamous, and respiratory and olfactory pseudostratified columnar

297
Q

olfactory mucosa =

A

epithelium + lamina propria

298
Q

sustenacular cells-

A

columnar support cells

299
Q

basal cells-

A

stem cells

300
Q

brush cells-

A

general sensation cells

301
Q

does olfactory epithelium have direct blood supply?

A

no, nutrients and O2 have to diffuse throughconnective tissue

302
Q

5 cell types in respiratory epithelium

A

ciliated, mucous, basal, brush, and small granule

303
Q

turbinates-

A

nasal conchae (nasal cavities) (increase surface area of nasal cavity)

304
Q

basal bodies consist of a ________ microtubule arrangement of triplets

A

9+0

305
Q

3 types of epithelium in larynx

A

stratified squamos, simple columnar, and pseudostratified columnar

306
Q

where does respiratory epithelium change from ciliated pseudostrat columnar to stratified squamous?

A

at the larynx

307
Q

4 layers of trachea

A

mucosa, submucosa, cartilaginous layer, and adventitia

308
Q

BALT

A

bronchial-associated lymphatic tissue

309
Q

MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

310
Q

when primary bronchi branch into secondary bronchi, cartilaginous rings are replaced by

A

plates

311
Q

as diameter of secondary bronchi decreases, amount of smooth muscle _______ and cartilaginous plates _______

A

increases

decreases

312
Q

secondary bronchi have what kind of epithelial cell?

A

pseudostratified columnar and simple columnar epithelium

313
Q

what glands disappear in secondary bronchi?

A

submucosal glands

314
Q

in what branches of airway do cartilage plates and submucosal glands disappear?

A

tertiary bronchioles

315
Q

what respiratory segment do clara cells first show up in?

A

tertiary bronchioles

316
Q

what kind of epithelial cells do tertiary bronchi have?

A

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

317
Q

what kind of epithelial cells do terminal bronchioles have?

A

simple ciliated columnar or cuboidal epithelium

318
Q

when do clara cells start to disappear?

A

in respiratory bronchioles

319
Q

type 1 alveolar cell function

A

gas exchange

320
Q

what kind of epithelium are type 1 alveolar cells?

A

very flat squamous cells

321
Q

shape of type 2 alveolar cells?

A

cuboidal

322
Q

where are type 2 alveolar cells found?

A

at septal junctions

323
Q

which is more prolific, type 1 or 2 alveolar cells?

A

type 2

324
Q

what plays a part in collateral ventilation in the alveoli?

A

Alveolar pores of Kohn

325
Q

alveolar macrophages are also known as

A

dust cells

326
Q

foreign body giant cell-

A

several macrophages that fuse together to encapsulate large particles

327
Q

emphysema will lead to an increase in _____ tissue in the lungs

A

fibrotic

Histology (3 decks)

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