Block B Flashcards
Hematocrit:
% volume of packed erythrocytes
buffy coat
layer of leukocytes and platelets
unformed elements-
liquid part of blood
is plasma acidic or basic
slightly alkaline
plasma is ___% water
90
the most abundant leukocyte is:
neutrophils
the second most abundant leukocyte is:
lymphocytes
agranulocytes consist of:
lymphocytes and monocytes
granulocytes consist of:
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
platelets are aka:
thrombocytes
platelets are more numerous than ___ but less numerous than ____
WBC’s
RBC’s
how do you isolate plasma:
add an anticoagulant and centrifuge
if an anticoagulant is added before centrifugation, what layers will form from centrifugation?
plasma, buffy coat, packed RBC’s
if no anticoagulant is added before centrifugation then what layers will you get?
serum and a blood clot
what is difference between serum and plasma?
serum lacks fibrinogen
the main protein constituent of unformed blood components is:
albumin
name 3 proteins of unformed blood:
albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen
all WBC’s have ____ granules, but only granluocytes have ______ granules
- primary/azurophilic
- secondary/specific
Total erythrocyte count of adult-
4-6 million per cubic mm
total leukocyte count of adult-
5-9 thousand per cubic mm
if total leukocyte count is higher than ____, infection is indicated
10 thousand per cubic mm
during infection, total leukocyte count can reach as high as ______
40 thousand per cubic mm
differential leukocyte count
percentages of 5 given WBC/total leukocyte count
if neutrophil count is high, _____ infection is indicated
bacterial
if eosinophil count is high, _____ is indicated
parasitic infection, allergic reaction, or chronic infection
total lymphocyte count of adult-
2500/ cubic mm
total monocyte count of adult-
300 cubic mm
total neutrophil count of adult-
4400 cubic mm
total eosinophil count of adult-
200 cubic mm
total basophil count of adult-
5 cubic mm
life span of RBC’s
120 days
hemopoiesis-
generic name for the process that includes both red and white blood cell production
in sickle cell disease, misshapen RBC’s last _____ days
30-40
erythrocyte composition:
water-
lipids, carbs, etc-
hemoglobin-
66%
1%
33%
each hemoglobin molecule consists of ___ protein subunits
4
most prevalent type of hemoglobin in adults-
HbA
HbA is __% of hemoglobin in adults
96%
HbA2 is ___ % of hemoglobin in adults
1.5-3%
HbA is composed of what subunits
2 alpha and 2 beta
HbA2 is composed of what subunits?
2 alpha and 2 delta chains
HbF is composed of what subunits
2 alpha and 2 gamma chains
_____ is an important marker of diabetes
HbA1c
HbA1c is HbA irreversibly bound to _____
glucose
an HbA1c count greater than ____% over the last 3 months is indicative of diabetes
7%
What kind of hemoglobin is present in sickle cell anemia and what is its subunit composition?
HbS and it is 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains in which position 6 has a valine substituted for a glutamic acid
Sickle cell RBC’s alter cell shape at _________
low oxygen concentrations
RBC diameter on a blood smear
8.2 micrometers
RBC diameter on tissue section
7 micrometers
tissue sectioned RBC diameter less than 6 micrometers is called a
microcyte
tissue sectioned RBC diameter greater than 8 micrometers called a
macrocyte
if you increase RBC size, it is less efficient at oxygen transport because:
you decease SA/V ratio, which means you decrease surface area available for gas exchange
if you decrease size of RBC, it is less efficient at oxygen transport because
you decrease oxygen carrying capacity of individual RBC’s
RBC’s biconcave disc shape adds ___% more surface area
20-30%
total RBC surface area is ______ times surface area of exterior body
2,000
circulating erythrocyte:
diameter-
central thickness-
edge thickness-
7.8 micrometers
.8 micrometers
2.6 micrometers
crenation-
spiky appearance of RBC’s caused by decreased ATP, lysolecithin, and some fats in cell membrane. not necessarily due to hypertonicity
all humans have enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the ___ antigen, but the enzymes that alter glycosylation of this antigen vary
O
someone with blood type AB has __ antigens that are glycosylated with _______
O
A and B antigens
when mother is Rh- and fetus is Rh+, ______ can occur
erythroblastosis fetalis
______ is a structural protein that keeps RBC’s distinctive shape
spectrin
spectrin is an accessory protein for _____
actin
deficiencies in spectrin can cause RBC morphological alterations like (2)
hereditary ellipsocytosis and hereditary spherocytosis
3 surface associated proteins of RBC’s
spectrin, Band 3, and Glycophorin
Band 3 is a _________ channel
anion transporter
Band 3 does what?
allows HCO3- to cross plasma membrane in exchange for Cl-. this exchange facilitates the release of CO2 in the lung
_________ are the 2 main transmembrane proteins exposed to the outer surface of the red blood cell
glycophorin C and Band 3
ankyrin-
anchors spectrin scaffold to band 3
anisocytosis-
change in RBC size
poikilocytosis-
change in RBC shape
hypochromia-
decrease in hemoglobin content (cells appear lighter because there is less iron)
hypochromic microcytic anemia-
smaller cell and decreased hemoglobin content
hyperchromia-
increase in hemoglobin content (cells appear darker because there is more iron)
hyperchromic macrocytic anemia-
larger cell with increased hemoglobin content
anemia-
clinically, a decrease in normal hemoglobin content; hence, RBC’s are not providing adequate oxygen to body tissues
primary anemia-
RBC count is down
secondary anemia-
RBC count is constant, but Hb concentration is down
macrocytic anemia-
RBC count is down, and RBC size is larger
difference between hypoxia, anemia, and ischemia:
hypoxia refers to low levels of oxygen in tissues, anemia is a reduction in ability to transport oxygen to tissues, and ischemia is a reduction of blood flow
are leukocytes in circulation differentiated?
no
leukocytosis-
pathological increase in WBCs
leukopenia-
pathological decrease in WBC’s
do agranulocytes contain granules?
yes, just primary granules
lymphocyte size varies from _____ micrometers
6-18
small lymphocytes make up ___% of lymphocytes
90
___ and ____ cells are small lymphocytes
T and B
NK cells are large/small lymphocytes?
large
lymphocytes comprise ___% of circulating WBC’s
30
cytoplasm is ___philic
baso
lymphocytes circulate in blood for ___ hours
8
can lymphocytes recirculate?
yes
exposure to antigens stimulates ____ in lymphocytes
asymmetric mitosis
B lymphocyte:
____ % of circulating lymphocytes
responsible for ____ immune response
has ________ receptors in membrane
- 15
- humoral
- immunoglobulin
in connective tissue, B lymphocytes differentiate into ____ cells
plasma
T lymphocyte:
____ % of circulating lymphocytes
responsible for _______ immunity
differentiate into ____ and _____ cells
- 80
- cell mediated
- memory and effector
T lymphocytes recruit other cells for immune responses via
cytokines
T lymphocytes arise from _____ in fetal life
thymus
NK cells:
___% of circulating lymphocytes
involved in ______ and ______ response
- 5%
- antiviral and anti-tumor
T lymphocytes differentiate into 4 effector cell types:
cytotoxic CD8 cells, Helper cells (CD4), regulatory/suppressor CD8/CD45RO cells, and gamma/delta cells
Cytotoxic CD8 recognizes _____ and does what?
foreign antigen
lyses cells
graft rejections are due to ____ cells
cytotoxic CD8 cells
Helper CD4 cells assist ____ cells by _____
- B cells
- secreting lymphokines to induce immune response
HIV targets ____ cells
CD4
Suppressor CD8/CD45RO cells do what? (2)
decrease immune response and regulate marrow
gamma/delta cells originate in the _____.
*they are intraepithelial lymphocytes
thymus
monocytes spend ___ days in circulation
2
monocytes differentiate into ______ in connective tissue, where they can live for _______
- macrophages
- months-years
monocyte cytoplasm is _____, meaning it has a foamy appearance
vacuolar
macrophages are involved in ______ healing
bruise
osteoclasts-
perform bone resoprtion
alveolar macrophages are found where-
in the lung
kupffer cells are found in
the liver
function of macrophages
bacterial phagocytosis
macrophages perform bacterial inactivation via
respiratory burst activity
macrophages produce cytokines for:
communication and recruitment of other lymphocytes to area
macrophages process and present antigens via formation of
foreign body giant cell
monocytes have _____ nucleoplasm
flocculent
granulocytes are collectively referred to as ______
microphages
granulocytes contain _______ nuclei
heterochromatic
how do neutrophil granules stain?
they do not stain
how long do neutrophils last in connective tissue?
days
finding stab or band form neutrophils in blood smears is indicative of
big infection, because upon infection marrow will pump out lots of neutrophils that havent had time to fully develop yet
primary granules are lysosomes that contain-
myeloperoxidase, acid hydrolases, defensins, and cathelicidin
secondary granules contain _________, such as: (4)
- antimicrobial agents
- lysozyme, lactoferrins, phospholipase, and complement activators
what is the last granule to be synthesized by neutrophils
tertiary granules
tertiary granules contain (3)
gelatinase, phosphatases, and collagenases
tertiary granules facilitate:
contact with and phagocytosis of bacteria
tertiary granules break down _____ and go through bacterial membranes
glycocalyx
list the order of release of neutrophil granules:
tertiary, secondary, primary
neutrophils:
teritiary granules _________, then secondary granules ______, then primary granules ______
identify, kill, and clean up
at the site of injury, neutrophils recognize foreign substance. if they cannot recognize it, the substance must be _______. Then the foreign body is _______. After digestion of foreign body, the trash is either ______ or _____
- opsonized
- internalized
- stored in residual bodies or exocytized
at the same time that neutrophil granules are killing a foreign body, the neutrophil is synthesizing ______ to recruit other immune cells
leukotrienes
usually the first WBC to arrive and kill bacteria
neutrophil
after neutrophils kill bacteria, ______ cleans up the debris and _______ repairs the area
- macrophages
- fibrblasts
presence of basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes in wounds indicates _______
chronic infection
eosinophils:
___% of circulating WBC’s
larger/smaller than neutrophil?
- 2-4
- larger
Eosinophil specific granules contain (5):
major basic protein, lysosomal enzymes, collagenase/cathepsins, histaminases, aryl sulfatase
major basic protein-
anti-parasitic protein
eosinophils counteract the action of ______
basophils
aryl sulfatase-
counteracts slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
SRS is produced by _____, and can lead to ____
- basophils
- anahylactic shock
what leukocyte number increases during skin infections?
eosinophils
eosinophil levels have a ____ rhythm
diurnal
eosinophil numbers increase during ____ and decrease during ____
- day
- night
eosinophils are good at phagocytizing ____ and bad at phagoctizing _______
- antigen-antibody complexes
- bacteria
eosinophils respond chemotactically to ____ and ____
basophils and mast cells
eosinophils counteract the effect of ______ and _____ degranulation
basophil and mast cell
basophils share lineage with _____ cells
mast cells
Basophils:
___% of circulating WBCs
_____ micrometer diameter
- .5-1%
- 1.8-10
basophilic granules have a dark appearance due to
heparin sulfate
heparin sulfate is a _______
vasodilator
basophil specific granules contain (4):
heparin sulfate, leukotrienes, histamines, and SRS
leukotrienes are involved with _______
smooth muscle constriction in airways
histamines are a _______
vasodilator
SRS is a potent ______
vasodilator
SRS can cause anaphylactic shock, which occurs because
rapid peripheral vasodilation causes blood pressure to drop and capillaries to collapse. even if you save person, irreversible damage can be caused to the peripheral body
interleukins promote ____ antibodies
IgE
Eosinophils and neutrophils produce chemotactic factors such as ____ and _____, which recruit more ____ and ____ to the area. Immune cells that will ______ the response are also recruited.
- cytokines and chemokines
- eosinophils and neutrophils
- balance or terminate
when mast cells and basophils bind with IgE’s they become ________. Reexposure to antigens for the IgE’s attached to these cells leads to _______.
- sensitization
- degranulation
platelets are fragments of
megakaryocytes
shape of platelets
biconvex disc
circulation time for platelets
10 days
platelets develop where?
in bone marrow
a platelet is divided into the ______ and ______
granulomere and hyalomere
hyalomere-
peripheral region of platelet that contains a ring of microtubules to maintain shape and stiffness. also contains microfilaments for clot contraction
granulomere-
center region of platelet that has specific granules and membranous organelles
what are granules of granulomere for?
what’s in them?
- the create the clotting cascade
- alpha-fibrinogen, clotting factors, gamma-ADP, ATP, serotonin, histamine, and gamma-hydrolytic enzymes
alpha-fibrinogen and clotting factors-
initiate clotting cascade and initiate production of fibrin to make a clot
gamma-ADP, ATP, serotonin, and histamine from platelets do what?
facilitate adhesion of clot formation and constriction of blood vessels
gamma-hydrolytic enzymes do what?
involved in production and resorption of clot
platelet organelles (2)
dense tubular system and open canalicular system
dense tubular system is similar to
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
dense tubular system sequesters
Ca2+
is dense tubular system connected to surface?
no
is open canalicular system connected to surface?
yes
open canalicular system is important in interacting with
plasma
open canalicular system is similar to
T tubule system in muscle
Degranulation of platelets is stimulated by
contact with collagen fibers in connective tissue
after platelet degranulation there is a multistep conversion of _____ to _____ to ______
thromboplastin to prothrombin to thrombin
thrombin catalyzes conversion of _____ into _____
fibrinogen into fibrin
white thrombus-
platelets only (primarily fibrinogen)
red thrombus-
platelets + fibrin
______ initiates thrombus breakdown
plasmin
4 phases of hemopoietic development
yolk sac phase, liver phase, spleen phase, and adult phase
duration of yolk sac phase-
conception-3 months
duration of liver phase
1-9 months
duration of spleen phase-
adult phase
in the yolk sac phase, cells from _____ form _______ in wall of yolk sac and seed numerous CFUs
embryonic mesoderm
blood islands
during development, erythrocytes remain nucleated until
birth
is the liver still hemopoietic in adults?
not normally, but can in some cases
in the spleen, ________ continues postnatally
lymphopoiesis
myeloid tissue-
tissue in bone supporting RBC and WBC development
lymphoid tissue-
tissue supporting lymphocyte development
3 locations of lymphoid tissue
thymus, GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue), and lymph nodes
CFUs are derived from
mesenchymal reticular tissue
name the 5 types of CSFs we must know
GM-CSF, G-CSF, M-CSF, EPO, TPO
GM-CSF
granulocyte/monocyte CSF
G-CSF
granulocyte CSF
M-CSF
monocyte CSF
EPO
erythropoietin
TPO
thrombopoietin
what organ produces EPO
kidneys
renal failure can lead to anemia because
the kidneys will stop producing EPO
CFU makes up 1/_______ nucleated marrow cells and 1/________ nucleated peripheral cells
- 1,000
- 1,000,000
potency-
potential of given cell to differentiate into other cell types
Hematopoietic Stem cell–> _________–> ______–> _________–> Mature blood cell
Hematopoietic stem cell–> multipotential HSC (myeloid)–> porgenitor cell (CFU)–> Precursor cell–> Mature Blood cell
progenitor cells:
Multipotential or unipotential?
self renewing or not?
unipotential and self renewing
precursor cells:
multi or unipotential?
self renewing or not?
unipotential and not self renewing
medullary cavities of bone-
site of normal adult hemopoiesis
red marrow-
hemopoietically active
Yellow marrow-
reduced hemopoietic activity; adipocytes dominate
transient cells-
developing blood cells in interstitial spaces between fixed cells and fibers; these cells move in and out of sinusoids
sinuses/sinusoids-
spaces in the discontinuous epithelium of the marrow where cells can enter circulation
erythroblastic islets-
clusters of CFUs that give rise to a particular lineage
most predominant cell type being produced in marrow
neutrophils
second most predominant cell type being produced in marrow
RBCs
common progenitor of neutrophils and monocytes
CFU-GM
granulocyte stages of development:
myeloblast–> promyelocyte–> myelocyte–> metamyelocyte–> band cell–> mature cell
granulocytes differentiate at the _____ stage
myelocyte
during granulocyte differentiation, the amount of nuclear heterochromatin decreases/increases?
increases
CFU get larger/smaller when they develop into myeloblast?
larger
do myeloblasts have azure granules?
no
should you see myeloblasts in the periphery?
no
the first granulocyte identifiable in lab
promeyelocyte
what kind of granules does a promyelocyte have?
azure granules
do promyelocytes have nucleoli?
yes
why is there a decline in azure granule amount from promyelocyte to myelocyte?
azure granule production has stopped but mitosis continues
do myelocytes have golgi?
yes, white area near nucleus
do myelocytes have nucleoli?
no
myelocyte nucleus shape
slightly indented and eccentric
what is the first granulocyte stage where mitosis ceases
metamyelocyte
Band/stab cells are a type of
metamyelocyte
granulocyte development time
14 days
Describe development of macrophage
CFU–> lymphoblast–> lymphocyte–> promonocyte–> macrophage
what cells are the progenitors for mature erythrocytes?
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
during development of erythrocytes, what increases and decreases:
heterochromatin
cytoplasmic organelles
cytoplasmic hemoglobin
incerases
decreases
increases
low levels of iron can lead to
microcytic anemia
vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to
pernicious anemia
increased peripheral RBC count decreases
EPO synthesis
Development sequence of erythrocytes
CFU–> proerythroblast–>basophilic erythroblast–> polychromatic erythroblast–> orthrochromatiophilic erythroblast–> polychromatophilic erythrocyte–> erythrocyte
does basophilic erythroblast have nucleolus?
yes, usually
last stage of erythrocyte development to divide:
polychromatophilic erythroblast
mixed staining of polychromatophilic erythroblast leads to a _____ color cytoplasm in polychromatophilic erythroblast
grey
howell-Jolly Body-
nuclear DNA remnant appears as a basophilic spot on the otherwise eosinophilic erythrocyte.
howell-Jolly bodies will persist in people with
functional hyposplenia or asplenia
1% of circulating erythrocytes will contain residual RNA. these cells are called
polychromatophilic erythrocytes
iron in hemoglobin is retrieve by spleen as
ferritin
heme secreted from body by gall bladder as
bilirubin
Platelet development sequence
MEP–> megakaryocyte progenitor–> megakaryoblast–> megakaryocyte–> platelets
what stage of platelet development is released into the bloodstream?
mature platelets
megakaryocyte size
30-100 micrometers
megakaryocytes have a lobed, polyploid nucleus (32-64N) generated by
endomitosis
______ form in the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, defining boundaries
demarcation channels
megakaryocyte cytoplasm protrudes into membrane channels, which go into _____ cavity and shed platelets
marrow
hair can stand up due to
erector pili
endocrine function of skin
production of Vitamin D
derivatives of the integumentary system project into the ______ but originate in the _____
dermis
ectoderm
skin’s thickness is determined by _______, not overall thickness
epidermis
dermis is composed of what kind of tissue
irregular fibroelastic connective tissue
dermis is derived from what germ layer
mesoderm
hypodermis-
subcutaneous CT that is looser than dermis
