Block 43 Flashcards

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1
Q

Tetralogy of fallot embryological defect

A

Deviation of the infundibular septum

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2
Q

What is the most useful measure for assessing the degree of mitral stenosis

A

A2 to opening snap(high frequency) interval

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3
Q

What is the major protective factor against giardia

A

Secretory IgA production.

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4
Q

What is the predisposing factor for sickling in sickle cell anemia.

A

Sickling is promoted by conditions associated with low oxygen levels, increased acidity, or low blood (dehydration).
-organs with particularly high metabolic demands such as the (brain, muscle, placenta) promote sickling by extracting more oxygen from the blood (oxygen unloading).

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5
Q

Serum leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

A

Can be normal or increased in leukemoid reaction, but its usually low in CML.
-the peripheral smear in leukemoid reaction can show dohle bodies which are light blue (basophillic) peripheral granules in neutrophils.

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6
Q

DNA polymerase I in prokaryotics

A
  • DNA polymerase I is unique as its the only prokaryotic polymerase that also has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity.
  • the activity functions to remove the RNA primer created by RNA primase and repair damaged DNA sequences.
  • DNA polymerase III has 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity however doesnt posses 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity.
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7
Q

Side effects of inhaled corticosteroids

A

Poor inhalation technique can cause much of the medication to be deposited on the oral mucous membranes, where its ineffective and can lead to oropharyngeal candidiasis.

  • patients can avoid this complication by using a spacer and rinsing the mouth after inhalation.
  • dysphonia unrelated to oral candidiasis can also occur due to myopathy of laryngeal muscles and mucosal irritation.
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8
Q

Tibial nerve injury

A
  • injury to the nerve at the popliteal fossa can cause weakness on foot plantarflexion because the nerve innervates the gastocnimius, soleus and plantaris muscles.
  • weakness may also be evident on foot inversion and toe flexion.
  • consequently, patients often present with the foot held in calceneovalgus position.
  • in contrast injury to the tibial nerve at the tarsal tunnel may cause sensory loss over the sole with intrinsic foot muscle weakness. However plantarflexion and inversion remain intact as fibers innervating these muscles branch off more proximally.
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9
Q

Hemoglobin A2 and HbA1c

A
  • in general conditions that alter RBC survival alters the HbA1c levels. (Hemolytic anemia, thalasemia …)
  • elevated Hemoglobin A2 precentage is suggestive of coexisting beta thalssemia. HbA2 becomes elevated in beta thalassemia to compensate for beta globin chain underproduction, but the resulting microcytic Red cells are prone to hemolysis . The increase in red cell turnover causes falsely low HbA1c levels.
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10
Q

CN III palsy

A

Symptoms of CN III palsy relate to the function of CN III
1. Somatic component innervates the inferior, superior and medial rectus, inferior oblique and levator palpebrae muscles.
Ptosis occur due to paralysis of the levator palpebrae and the unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique muscles leads to a down and out gaze.
2 .parasymphatetic fibers of CN III innervate the iris sphincter and cilliary muscle. Paralysis of these fibers causes a fixed, dilated pupil and loss of accommodation.

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11
Q

Lower extremities lymphatic drainage

A

In the lower extremities, the superficial lymphatic system is divided into medial and lateral tracks.
The medial tracks runs along the long saphenous vein up to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, by passing the popliteal nodes.
-consequently lesion on the medial foot causes inguinal lymphadenopathy.
-in contrast lateral lesion which drain via lateral track and communicates with the popliteal and inguinal nodes are more likely to cause lymphadenopathy in both popliteal and inguinal areas.

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12
Q

Anaphylaxis changes in cardiovascular system

A

Anaphylaxis causes widespread venous and arteriolar dilation along with increased capillary permability and third spacing of fluids. This result in significant drop in venous return.

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13
Q

Tetrodotoxin symptoms

A
  • parasethesia, weakness dizzenes and nausea.
  • history of fish consumption is strongle suggestive
  • tetrodotoxin binds to voltage gated sodium channels in nerve and cardiac tissue preventing sodium influx and depolarization.
  • symptoms occur quickly after ingestion.
  • treatment include supportive care and intestinal decontamination with gut lavage and charcoal.
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14
Q
Selective 
Differential
Enrichment
Reducing  
Medias
A
  1. Selective : eg include thayer martin selective medium which contains several antibiotics that kill potential contaminants in order to get pure culture of Neisseria
  2. Differential media help identify cultured organism based on their metabolic and biochemical properties such as macConkey agar and eosin methyline blue (pink on macconkey and black on eosin methyline blue)
  3. Entichment media contain special growth factors required for some organism. Eg include factor X and V required for H.infleunza
  4. Reducing media (eg, thioglycolate broth) removes oxygen and are used to culture anaerobic organisms.
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15
Q

Hepatic abscess

A
  • presence of fluid filled cavity, in the liver in conjuction with fevers, chills and RUQ pain is suggestive of abscess.
  • in underdevlloped countries hepatic abscess are usually caused by parasitic infections such as E.histolytica, and echinoccal infection.
  • in developed areas, abscesses are uncommon and usually caused by bacterial infection in about 80% of cases.
  • pyogenic bacteria can gain access to liver through following routes:
  • billiary tract infection, portal vein pyemia, hepatic artery , direct invasion from adjacent source or penetrating trauma or injury.
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16
Q

Achondroplasia

A
  • limb shortening with normal torso length.
  • craniofacial features such as frontal bossing and midface hypoplasia
  • autosomal dominant inheritence.(50% transmission chance)
  • point mutation in FGFR3 gene, 90% are denovo and 10% inherited.
  • achondroplasia affects endochondral ossification, the process that makes long bones and portion of the skull and face.
  • FGFR3 is normally responsible for limiting chondrocyte proliferation during endochondral ossification. In achnondroplasia, FGFR3 becomes constitutively activated causing exaggerated inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation that results in the characteristic bone shortening and craniofacial abnormalities.
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17
Q

In the treatment of radioactive iodine therapy, which drug should be given as a pretreatment to decrease effect of radiotherapy through competitive inhibition of iodine transportation

A

Potassium iodide (potassium percholrate)

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18
Q

Head pounding accompanied by involuntary head bobbing

A

Its found in aortic regurgitation.
-head bobbing can be a sign of widened pulse pressure (pulse pressure = peak systolic arterial pressure - end diastolic arterial pressure)

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19
Q

Treatment of acute C.diphtheriae infection

A
  1. Diphtheria antitoxin (inactivates all toxin but ineffective against toxins that have gained access to cardiac or neural cells) (this is called passive immunization- preexisting antibodies)
  2. Penicllin or erythromycin
  3. DPT vaccine
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20
Q

Adverse effects of succinylcholine

A
  1. Malignant hyperthermia (especially with halothane) in gentically susceptible patients.
  2. Severe hyperkalemia in patients with burns, myopathies and denervation(quaroplegia or guillain-barre syndrome), these pathalogic states causes upregulation of muscle nAChRs and or rhabdomyolysis which can result in release of large amount of potassium. In these patients vecuronium of rocuronium are better choices.
  3. Bradycardia from parasympathetic stimulation or tachycardia from symphathetic effects.
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21
Q

MVP click

A
  • the click results from sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as they are pulled taut by the balloning valve leaflets . The murmur is due to malalignment of the valve margins during systole.
  • primary MVP is most commonly a sporadic disorder and is charactrized by myxomatour degeneration( deterioration of the connective tissue) affecting the mitral valve leaflets and chordae tendineae.
  • secondary MVP is associated with inherited connective tissue disorders including marfan, ehlers danoles and osteogenesis imperfecta.
  • the myxomatous lesion are charactrized by proliferation of spongiosa of the valve leaflets, fragmentation of elastin fibers with increase mucopolysaccharide and type III collagen deposits.
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22
Q

Cons adenoma treament

A
  1. Surgery

2. Aldosterone antagonist

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23
Q

Lung biopsy shows macrophages containing a golden cytoplasmic granules that turn dark blue with prussian blue staining

A
  • this is caused by LV dysfunction
  • rise in pressure in the lung results in extravasation of RBC and alveolar hemorrhage. These RBC are eventually phagocytosed by macrophages and the iron from hemoglobin is converted to hemosiderin.
  • prussian blue stain detects intracellular iron.
  • thes are called HF macrophages or hemosiderin laden macrophages.
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24
Q

Myxoma

A
  • the most common primary cardiac neoplasm and approximately 80% arises in the left atrium.
  • histologically these tumors are composed of scattered cells within a mucopolysaccharride stroma, abnormal blood vessels and hemorrhaging.
  • myxoma produces large amounts of vascular endothelial growth factor which contribute to the angiogenesis, hemorrhaging and fibrility seen in these tumors.
  • myxomas also produce large amounts of IL-6, thus pts frequently present with constitutional symptoms(weight loss and fever)
  • they can lead to valve obstruction if they grow near valve, the symptoms are position dependent.
25
Q

B-hcg secreting testicular tumors

A

-nonseminomatous germ cell tumors which secrete very high levels of hCG. The elevated b-hcg may cause paraneoplastic hyperthyrodism due to the similarity between b-hcg and TSH

26
Q

Teratoma

A

Based on their histologic differentiation, teratoma can be divided into mature and immature types.
-mature teratomas of the ovaries are usually benign and contin cell lines of >1 germ layer. A diversity of tissues, including har follicles, skin, teeth , bones and other tissues can be seen on histologic examination.

27
Q

CKD calcium changes

A

In CKD, PO4 clearance declines —> binds to free serum Ca+ —> hypocalcemia —> PTH stimulation —> no intestinal Ca+ absorption as vitamin D is missing —> bone release of Ca+ —> Ca+ binds to PO4 again —> more PTH.
-hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia and hypoerparathyrodism is seen

28
Q

Thiazide side effects

A
  • hyponatremia, hypokalemia
  • hypercalcemia
  • hyperglycemia and hypercholesterolemia (decreased insulin secretion and increased insulin resistance)
  • hyperuricemia (increased reabsorption in proximal tubules)
  • increased LDL cholesterol and TAG levels possibly due to altered lipid metabolism from increased peripheral insuling resistance.
29
Q

Pulsatile administration of GnRH is used in

A

Treatment of infertility due to anaovulation as a result of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.

30
Q

Respiratory distress in infant that presented after treatment with neovascularization in vitreous

A
  • respiratory distress in premature neonate is treated with supplemental oxygen at high concentrations,.
  • one potential adverse effect of O2 therapy is retinal damage
  • temporary local hyperoxia in the retina is thought to induce changes that cause upregulation of proangiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factors upon returning to room air ventilation.
  • neovascularization and possible retinal detachment with blindness can occur.
  • its called retinopathy of prematurity or retolental fibroplasia.
31
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer

A
.1. Infection with high risk HPV stain (16.18,31,33)
2. History of STD
3. Early onset of sexual activity
4. Multiple high risk sexual partners
5. Immunosuppression 
6, OC use
7. Low socioeconomic status
8. Tobacoo use
32
Q

Blotting tecnhiques

A
  1. Northern _. RNA
  2. Southern _ DNA
  3. Western _ protein
  4. Southwestern_ DNA binding protein
33
Q

C-jun and c-fos

A

Nuclear transcription factors that directly bind DNA via leucine zipper motif. The genes that codes for c-jun and c-fos are protocogenes. And southwestern blots are used to identify them

34
Q

Polyhydroamnios causes

A
  • it can be due to decreased fetal swallowing or increased fetal urination.
  • impaired swallowing due to GI obstruction (esophageal, dudenal or intestinal atresia)
  • anencephaly (howevere, spina bifida which is posterior pole closure defect isnt associated with polyhydroamnios
35
Q

Acute rejection cells involved

A
  • its mediated by host T lymphocytes sensitization against graft MHC antigens and its charactrized by a dense infiltrates of mononuclear cells affecting the renal interstitium, tubules and arterial intima.
  • it can be prevented with using calcineurin inhibitors such as cyclosporines or tacrolimus.
36
Q

KRAS positive cancers and anti EGFR treatment

A
  • KRAS mutations are found in different types of cancer including large proportion of metastatic colonc cancers.
  • activating mutation in the KRAS gene causes consecutive downstream signaling even in the absence of EGFR stimulation.
  • this results in increased cell proliferation and growth that is resistnat to anti-EGFR therapy such as cetuximab and panitumumab.
  • as such genetic testing aimed at identifying tumors with wild type KRAS or mutated KRAS is recommended prior to initiatin therapy.
37
Q

Isoiazid adverse effect

A
  • its directly hepatotoxic, in 10-20% of patients it causes acute, mild hepatic dysfunction charactrized by transient increase in serum aminotransferases. This usually occurs in the first 4-6 months of treatment, and in most cases liver function tests return to baseline with continued isoniazid therapy.
  • in rare instances, frank hepatitis (similar to viral hepatitis) can form and sometime evolves into severe form with progressive liver dysfunction and death
38
Q

Ethambutol

A
  • decreased carbohydrate polymerization of myobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase
  • adverse effect is optic neuropathy.
39
Q

Sulfonyurea mechanism of action and side effects

A
  • they bind to their receptor on pancreatic beta cells to inhibit the ATP dependent Pottasium channel.
  • this alters the cells resting potential and allows calcium influx, leading to exocytosis of insulin.
  • the net result is increased insulin secretion by beta cells independent of blood glucose concentrations.
  • due to their mechanism, sulfonureas carry a significant risk of hypoglycemia. This risk is increased by exercise, missed meals, chronic malnourishment or organ dysfunction or after a hospital admission.
  • second generation sulfonylureas (glipizide, glyburide and glimepiride are equally effective in lowering blood glucose but have different duation of action. glipizide are short acting and has significantly lower incidince of hypoglycemia
40
Q

Rebound rhinorrhea

A
  • is described as nasal congestion without cough, sneezing of postnasal drip. Its associated with the use of topical decongestant for >3 days —> tachypylaxis that leads to excacerbation of congestion rather than curing it.
  • its common in a agonist agents such as pheynlephrine, oxymetazoline and xylometazoline.
41
Q

Metyrapone stimulation test

A

Is a sensetive indicator of hypothalamic pituitary adrenal (HPA) axis integrity.

  • metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis by inhbiting 11ß hydroxylase which converts 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol.
  • because 11-deoxycortisol lacks glucocorticoids activity, it does not inhibit pituitary ACTH secretion.
  • as a result, the reduction in cortisol levels following metyrapone administration cause an increase in pituitary ACTH secretion.
  • this leads to —> production of 11-deoxycortisol —> 17 hydroxycoticosteroids in liver —> urine accumulation.
42
Q

Trochlear nerve palsy

A
  • trochlear nerve causes the eye to inort and depress while adducted. Its particularly susceptible to injury due to its long course and small caliber.
  • patients typically present with vertical diplopia, which is noticable with the affected eye looks down and toward the nose (up-close reading, walking down stairs)
  • hypertropia may be present in severe cases.
43
Q

Salmonella virulent factor

A

Is a nonlactose fereminting oxidase negative, motile gram negative organism with a special capsule called the Vi antigen that protects it from opsinization and phagocytosis.

44
Q

Septic abortion

A

Refers to any type of abortion resulting in infected retained products of conception in the uterine cavity. In industrialized countries, its a rare complication of pregnancy termination and may occur with incomplete evacuation of products of conception.

  • pts typically have fever, abdominal pain, uterine tendreness and or foul smelling vaginal discharge.
  • s.aureus is a very common pathogen in septic abortion, other causative agents include gram negative bacilli and group B streptococcus.
  • most infections associated with septic abortion are confinfed to the placental tissue but pts can become septic if toxin producing bacteria gain access to intervillous space and bloodstream.
  • Tx includes broad spectrum antibiotics and prompt surgical evaluation to remove the nidus of infection and prevent severe complication such as sepsis, multi-organ failure and death.
45
Q

SCD after MI —> MCC

A

MCC of death in the first 48 hrs after MI is ventricular fibrillation and is related to electrical instability due to lack of perfusion in the ischemic myocardium.

46
Q

ASD leads to irreversible damage in which part of cariovascular system

A

Pulmonary arteries (ESINMENGER SYNDROME)

47
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

ATH is a process that begins in childhood with the development of focal intimal thickening and lipid accumulation.

  • fatty streak are the earliest lesion in the progression to ATH and can be seen in the second decade of life.
  • ATH progresses according to the following:
    1. Endothelial injury/ dysfunction causing increased vascular permability
    2. Accumulation of LDL within vessel wall
    3. Monocytes adhesion to the endothelium, followed by migration and transformation into lipid laden macrophages (Foam cells).
    4. Release of growth factors by adherent platelets, activated Macrophages and endothelial cells.
    5. Recruitment of T cell and smooth muscle proliferation which lead to extracellular matrix production.
48
Q

Hearing loss caused by antihypertensive ..> ?

A
  • loop diuretics, inhibition of Na/K/2Cl symporter in the inner ear are believed to cause the ototoxicity (tinnitus, vertigo, hearing impairment, or deafness).
  • usually occurs with higher dosages, preexisting CKD, rapid IV administration, or when used in combination with other ototoxic agents.
49
Q

Thin cap fibroatheraomas to MI

A

Are charactrized by large necrotic area core covered by a thin fibrous cap. Activated macrophages infiltrating the atheroma contribute to the breakdown of extracellular matrix proteins (eg, collagen) by secreting metalloprotinases.
-ongoing intimal inflammation can destabilize the mechanical integrity of the plaque through the release of these metalloproteinases, resulting in plaque rupture and consequent ACS.

50
Q

Myocardial oxygen extraction

A

Myocardial oxygen extraction is very high, the heart has a capillary density far exceeding that of skeletal muscle.

  • O2 extraction form arterial blood is very effective within the heart as the resting myocardium extracts 60-75% of O2 from blood.
  • as a result cardiac venous blood is the most deoxygenated in the body, which is present mostly in the coronary sinus in the right atrium. (Po2 is almost 25-40% in coronary sinus - lowest in the body)
51
Q

Pseudogout

A

Also called calcium pryophosphate deposition disease (CPPD), results from accumulation of calcium pryophosphate crystals in synovial fluid.

  • pts present with an acute mono, or oligoarticular arthritis charactrized by pain, joint swelling, erythema and warmth.
  • pseudogout can be difficult to distinguish clinically from gout.
  • synovial fluid analysis shows elevated WBC with neutrophils predominance, identification of rhomboid shaped calcium pryophosphate crystals is diagnostic.
  • these crystals are positively birefrengent under polarized light.
52
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome

A
  • Rare disease, charactrized by dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia.
  • pts develops weakness, fatigue, and dyspnea secondary to anemia. Dysphagia develops due to esophageal web formation.
53
Q

Atopic dermatitis

A

(Eczema)

  • is chronic inflammatory skin disorder triggered by various environmental factors, such as ingestion of certain foods or exposure to certain envirnomental irritants.
  • most patients present by 5 years of age, with many developing symptoms within the first year of life.
  • intense pruritus is a hallmark.
  • affected patients have high serum levels of IgE, peripheral eosinophilia and high levels of cAMP phosphodiesterase in their leukocytes.
54
Q

Bullous pemphegoid

A

Hemidesmosomes autoantibodies

  • subepidermal cleavage is present on biopsy
  • nicklosky negative
  • linear IgG at basement membrane in IF studies.
  • tense bullae, rare mucosal or oral involvement and predominantely present in elderly.
55
Q

Patella fracture c

A

Commonly due to direct blow to anterior aspect of the knee. Pts develops acute swelling, tenderness, inability to extend the knee against gravity, and a palatable gap in the extensor mechanism.
-the quadriceps tendon inserts at the superior pole of the patella and wraps distally around the patella to become the patellar tendon which inserts at the tibial tuberosity.

56
Q

Hepatoglobin

A

Its a serum protein that binds to free hemoglobin and promotes its uptake by the reticuloendothelial system.
-its significantly decreased in hemolytic anemia.

57
Q

Transmural inflammation of the arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

58
Q

Beta oxidation inhibition

A

Malonyl-CoA inhibits carnitine acyltransferase, preventing the transfer of acyl groups into the mitochondria.