Block 2 Lecture 5 -- ASDs Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for phenytoin:

A

1) focal seizures
2) generalized tonic-clonic
3) emergency status epilepticus

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2
Q

Indications for carbamazepine:

A

1) temporal lobe epilepsy

2) all others except absence

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3
Q

Indications for oxcarbazepine:

A

1) temporal lobe epilepsy

2) all others except absence

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4
Q

Indications for valproic acid:

A

1) absence

2) most others

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5
Q

Indications for lamotrigine:

A

all seizure types

– including generalized w/ absence attacks in children

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6
Q

Indications for topiramate:

A

1) focal seizures

2) generalized tonic-clonic

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7
Q

Indications for zonisamide:

A

1) focal seizures

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8
Q

Indications for lacosamide:

A

adjunct for focal-onset

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9
Q

Indications for gabapentin

A

focal seizures

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10
Q

Indications for pregabalin:

A

same as gabapentin

– focal seizures

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11
Q

Indications for ethosuximide:

A

absence seizures

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12
Q

Indications for retigabine:

A

adjunct for focal seizures

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13
Q

Indications for levetiracetam:

A

1) focal

2) generalized tonic-clonic

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14
Q

Indications for perampanel:

A

focal seizures

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15
Q

Indications for felbamate:

A

lennox-gastaut syndrome

retractable epilepsy with uncontrollable seizures

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16
Q

MoA of phenytoin

A

use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

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17
Q

MoA of carbamazepine

A

use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

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18
Q

MoA of oxcarbazepine

A

use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

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19
Q

MoA of lamotrigine

A

use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

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20
Q

MoA of lacosamide

A

use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

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21
Q

MoA of valproic acid

A

1) use-dependent Na+ channel blockade
2) stimulate GABA synthesis
3) inhibit GABA TA

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22
Q

MoA of topiramate

A

1) use-dependent Na+ channel blockade
2) augment GABA at GABAa
3) blockade of GluR (kainate and AMPA)

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23
Q

MoA of zonisamide

A

1) use-dependent Na+ channel blockade

2) t-type Ca channel blockade

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24
Q

MoA of Gabapentin

A

1) Ca channel blocker

2) GABAergic

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25
MoA of pregabalin
Ca channel blocker
26
MoA of ethosuximide
Ca channel blocker
27
MoA of retigabine
K channel stabilizer
28
MoA of levetiracetam
SV2A binder
29
MoA of perampanel
AMPAr blocker (non-competitive)
30
MoA of felbamate
NMDAr blocker
31
Which ASDs exhibit PPB?
1) phenytoin (95%) 2) perampanel (95%) 3) valproic acid (90%) 4) levetiracetam (10%)
32
Which ASDs are non-sedating?
1) phenytoin 2) lamotrigine 3) valproic acid 4) ethosuximide 5) felbamate
33
What is the black box warning on felbamate?
1) aplastic anemia | 2) acute hepatic failure
34
Which ASDs are secreted as a glucuronide?
1) oxcarbazepine 2) lamotrigine 3) valproic acid
35
Describe the metabolism of phenytoin.
1) non-linear (induces and saturates) 2) CYP2C9 + CYP2C19 3) t1/2 = 15-20h
36
Describe the metabolism of carbamazepine.
1) CYP2C9, C19, 3A4 2) t1/2 = 12-30h 3) long-term t1/2 = 15hr
37
Describe the metabolism of oxcarbazepine.
1) t1/2 = 1-2h | 2) t1/2 (active mets) = 8-12h
38
Describe the metabolism of lamotrigine.
t1/2 = 25h
39
Describe the metabolism of lacosamide.
1) cyp2c19 | 2) t1/2 = 12-16h
40
Describe the metabolism of valproic acid.
1) cyp2c19 | 2) t1/2 = 8-17h
41
Describe the metabolism of topiramate?
t1/2 = 20-30h
42
Describe the metabolism of zonisamide.
cyp3a4 | t1/2 = 60+ hr
43
Describe the metabolism of gabapentin.
hardly metabolized | t1/2 = 6h
44
Describe the metabolism of pregabalin.
hardly metabolized | t1/2 = 6h
45
Describe the metabolism of ethosuximide.
t1/2 = 60h
46
Describe the metabolism of retigabine.
t1/2= 8-11h
47
Describe the metabolism of levetiracetam.
hardly metabolized | t1/2 = 6-8h
48
Describe the metabolism of perampanel.
1) cyp3a4 | 2) t1/2= 70 - 105h
49
Describe the metabolism of felbamate
1) t1/2 = 20h
50
Which ASDs are affected by CYP3A4 inducer and inhibitors?
1) perampanel 2) zonisamide 3) oxcarbazepine (less) 4) carbamazepine (more) 5) phenytoin
51
Which ASDs are metabolized by CYP2C19?
phenytoin | lacosamide
52
What are DDIs for lamotrigine?
hepatic inducers that increase glucuronidation and clearance
53
What are DDIs of valproic acid?
1) PPB displacers | 2) inhibits metabolism of phenobarb, phenytoin, carbamazepine
54
What are DDIs for topiramate?
carbamazepine and phenytoin increase metabolism
55
Which ASDs don't have DDIs according to PK?
1) Ca channel blockers 2) K channel blockers (retigabine) 3) SV2a (keppra) 4) lacosamide
56
What drugs are metabolized by CYP3A4?
1) ASDs 2) OCC 3) warfarin 4) corticosteroids
57
What are CYP3A4 inhibitors?
1) valproic acid 2) cimetidine 3) erythromycin
58
What are CYP3A4 inducers?
1) phenytoin 2) primidone 3) phenobarbitol
59
What drugs displace PPB'ers?
1) valproate 2) phenytoin 3) salicylate
60
What ASD has a serine residue?
lacosamide
61
What drugs is cross-reactive to sulfonamide allergy?
zonisamide
62
What drug is a monosaccharide derivative?
topiramate (fructopyranose)
63
What drug has a triazine group?
lamotrigine
64
What is phenytoin's prodrug?
fosphenytoin
65
How does retigabine work?
increases relative refractory period by binding to retigabine binding site on K+ channel
66
What is the effect of SV2a modulation?
altered Glu and GABA release
67
What drugs affect the AMPAr?
1) primary = perampanel | 2) also: phenobarb, topiramate, lamotrigine
68
What ASDs carry black box warnings?
1) perampanel: aggression, anger, homocidal 2) felbamate: aplastic anemia, acute hepatic failure 3) retigabine: retinal abnormalities and skin discoloration
69
What is the intermediate in phenytoin metabolism?
reactive ARENE OXIDE | -- probably causes the ADRs
70
What ASDs act on CRMP2?
lacosamide has secondary activity