Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Fascia of fibrous connective tissue that surrounds entire muscle

A

Epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Small bundle or cluster of muscle fibers

A

Fascicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Connective tissue extensions from the epimysium that surround each fascicle

A

Perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Connective tissue extensions from the perimysium that surround the muscle fibers and are attached to the sarcolemma

A

Endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Composed of linear series of repeating sarcomeres

A

Myofibril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Responsible for muscle contraction. Composed of thick and thin filaments

A

Myofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thin cell membrane, enclosing a skeletal muscle fiber cell

A

Sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a special feature of the sarcolemma?

A

Invaginates into the sarcoplasm of the muscle cell, forming T-tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a muscle fiber made up of?

A

Bundle of myofibril, sarcomere and type 1 and 2 fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the type 1 fibers?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the type 2 fibers?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the basic contractile unit of striated muscle fibers?

A

Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are the sarcomere found?

A

Between the Z lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What gives muscles the striated pattern?

A

Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the components of thin filaments?

A

Actin, Troponin complex, Tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the components of thick filaments?

A

Myosin (multiple molecules of myosin make up the thick filament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the structure of Myosin

A

Tail of intertwined helices and 2 globular heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of the globular heads of Myosin?

A

To bind ATP and actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What functions as an ATPase enzyme?

A

Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Appx. 500 myosin heads of thick myosin filament form what?

A

Cross bridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Myosin heads of thick filament form cross bridges that interact with actin to do what?

A

Shorten the sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the subunits of Troponin?

A

TnC, TnI, TnT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What provides myofibrils with large amounts of energy allowing for muscle contraction?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What fibers have more numbers of mitochondria?

A

Slow twitch (red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What organelle is responsible for regulating calcium storage, release and uptake?

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What organelle allows for rapid transfer of action potentials to the interior fiber?

A

T-Tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T-tubules play an important role in what?

A

Regulating cellular calcium concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the smallest functional units of a muscle?

A

Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What two proteins are found in the sarcomere?

A

Myosin and actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What must happen before muscle contraction begins?

A

Myosin heads bind with ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What fibers are found to have higher numbers of mitochondria?

A

Slow-Twitch (red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What fibers are found to have larger sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Fast Contracting (White)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What initiates muscle action?

A

Nerve impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When an action potential occurs, what is released?

A

Stored Calcium ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What actions allow the myosin head to bind to active sites on the actin filament?

A

When Calcium binds with troponin, the tropomyosin molecules are lifted off the active sites of the actin filament, allowing the myosin head to bind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What provides energy for muscle action?

A

When the myosin head binds to ATP- ATPase on the myosin head splits the ATP into a usable energy source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens when myosin binds with actin?

A

The myosin head tilts and pulls the actin filament so they slide across each other. This results in muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When does muscle action end?

A

When calcium is pumped out of the sarcoplasm to the SR for storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are type 1 (Red) muscle fibers?

A

Type 1 fibers have high aerobic endurance and are suited to low-intensity endurance activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are type 2 (White) muscle fibers?

A

Type 2 fibers are better for anaerobic or explosive exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What muscle fibers are found to be rich in mitochondria?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A muscle that has slow contractile speed allowing for slow prolonged activity would have what type fibers?

A

Type 1 (Red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What fibers are mixed oxidative-glycolytic fibers?

A

Type IIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

These muscle fibers have moderate aerobic capacity and fatigue resistance

A

Type IIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the features of Type IIa muscle fibers?

A

Moderate aerobic/oxidative capacity
Moderate fatigue resistance
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Mixed oxidative-glycolytic fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What fibers are glyolytic fibers?

A

Type IIb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT a feature of Type IIb fibers?
High anaerobic/glycolytic capacity
High motor unit strength
Fast contractile speed
Highly developed SR
Slow contractile speed
High Fatigue resistance

A

Slow contractile speed and high fatigue resistance are NOT features of type II b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What class of muscles are responsible for movement?

A

Agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What prevents overstretching of agonist mucsles?

A

Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What assists the agonists and fine tunes direction of movement?

A

Synergists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens in concentric muscle action?

A

The muscle shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens in static muscle action?

A

The muscle length is unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What happens in eccentric muscle action?

A

The muscle lengthens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the “stem cells” located in skeletal muscles?

A

Satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the cells involved in muscle growth and repair?

A

Satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What cells become activated when a muscle is injured?

A

Satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is formed when satellite cells are activated after muscle injury?

A

New muscle fibers or myofibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the primary function of Myostatin?

A

Regulate muscle growth and development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is inhibited with myostatin?

A

It inhibits the proliferation and differentiation of muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Myostatin is produced and secreted by what cells?

A

Skeletal muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where does smooth muscle receive its nerve signals from?

A

Autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Smooth muscle can be divided into what two categories?

A

Single Unit (visceral)
Multi-Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where is Single Unit smooth muscle typically found?

A

GI tract, bile duct, ureters, uterus, many blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where is Multi Unit smooth muscle typically found?

A

Ciliary and iris muscles of the eye, base of hair follicles, smaller airways to lungs, walls of large blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In what type of smooth muscle does each fiber contract independently?

A

Multi-Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In what type of smooth muscle do the fibers work together as one unit?

A

Single Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of smooth muscle would you find where very small, fine movements are needed?

A

Multi Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Although smooth muscle contains thick and thin filaments, what do they NOT contain?

A

Myofibrils or sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the actin filaments of smooth muscle attached to?

A

Dense bodies (analogous to the Z-discs of striated muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What configuration allows myosin to pull actin filament in opposite directions, in smooth muscle?

A

Side-polar cross-bridges
One side bend in one direction and the other side bends in the opposite (Think Chinese finger trap! When you pull in opposite directions it “flattens out”/pulls tight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Once smooth muscle is initiated, low energy is needed to keep the tonic contraction, which can last for hours or even days. What is an example of this?

A

Maintaining blood pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is different about the SR in smooth muscle compared to skeletal?

A

It is only slightly developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the major source of Ca2+ for smooth muscle contraction?

A

Extra cellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is not present in all smooth muscle fibers, but when it is, is found near the cell membrane?

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What feature is believed to excite calcium release from the SR in smooth muscle?

A

Caveolae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What structure in smooth muscle is similar to that of T-tubes from skeletal muscle?

A

Caveolae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

If the SR is more extensive in smooth muscle, what is the result?

A

More rapid contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do smooth muscles use Calmodulin for?

A

As a calcium binding protein to regulate contraction process (rather than troponin as in skeletal muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the result of activated calmodulin?

A

It activates enzyme MLCK which phosphorylates specific regions of Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens to phosphorylated myosin?

A

It binds to actin, forming a cross-bridge allowing muscles to contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What happens when the ion calcium concentration is reduced?

A

Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate from the myosin light chain, causing muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Found in the cytoplasm, Dense bodies serve as what?

A

Anchoring points for actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The arrangement of actin, myosin and dense bodies allow for what in smooth muscle?

A

Coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What cells make up the myocardium?

A

Cardiomyocytes or cardiocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Cardiac muscle contains a less developed….

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the similarities between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

A

Fibers are striated
Myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin
Similar organization of sarcomere
T-tubes also release calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are some differences in cardiac muscle compared to skeletal?

A

Cardiac muscles:
Contraction is involuntary
Fibers are shorter and branched
Usually uninucleated
Interconnected by intercalated discs
Generate their own action potential (pacemaker fibers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Cardiac action potential is NOT initiated by nervous activity, instead, it is generated by what?

A

Pacemaker cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Pacemaker cells have what kind of action potential?

A

Automatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Where are pacemaker cells found?

A

Sinoatrial node of right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cardiac muscle is a function synctium. What does this mean?

A

It means the cells function together; they are electrically connected to each other through intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Cardiac muscle fibers remain separated as distinct cells with their respective sarcolemma. So how are they connected?

A

Via intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What muscle has single multinucleated fibers during embryonic development?

A

Skeletal muscle (morphological syncytium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Dark, dense cross-band found in the end of each myocardial disc

A

Intercalated disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What structure is continuous with the sarcolemma and contains important cell-cell junctions

A

Intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What cell-cell junction provides mechanical strength and stability?

A

Desmosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the functions of the gap junction?

A

Allow diffusion of ions and to allow action potential to travel easily from one cell to the next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What accounts for the striations in cardiac muscle?

A

Organized arrangement of actin and myosin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they lack what?

A

Smooth muscle lacks myofibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle contraction?

A

It covers the binding sites on actin, preventing myosin binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the role of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Binding to troponin, allowing actin-myosin interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How do T-tubules contribute to the excitation contraction coupling process in skeletal muscle cells?

A

By transmitting action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which connective tissue layer surrounds the entire skeletal muscle, enclosing all the muscle fascicles?

A

Epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Four cell layers that make up the epidermis

A
  1. Stratum corneum
  2. Stratum granulosum
  3. Stratum spinosum
  4. Stratum basale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What layer of skin contains layers of keratinocytes and dead cells still connected by desmosomes?

A

Stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What layer of skin has high keratin content and is where flattening of the cells occurs?

A

Stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

In this layer of skin, cells are joined by desmosomes providing mechanical strength.

A

Stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What layer of skin contains the stem cells?

A

Stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In what layer do we find dendritic cells?

A

Stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

In what layer do we find melanocytes?

A

Stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Where would we see a thicker, more prominent stratum corneum?

A

Hairless, thick skin (ie. pawpads)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the 4 cells of the epidermis?

A
  1. Keratinocytes
  2. Melanocytes
  3. Langerhans Cells
  4. Merkel’s cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the most prominent cells in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the 3 functions of keratinocytes?

A
  1. Produce keratin- major structural protein for epidermis
  2. Contribute to formation of the epidermal water barrier
  3. Makes up majority of structure of the skin, hair and nails
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In what skin layer does cell division occur?

A

Basal layer (stratum basale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the intermediate keratin filaments?

A

Tonofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What layers of skin does tonofilament synthesis occur?

A

Stratum basale and stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Extended response/Concept
Explain Keratin synthesis and the formation of the epidermal water barrier.

A
  • Cell division occurs in the stratum basale where cells begin to synthesize tonofilaments. (intermediate keratin filaments)
    *Cells are then pushed to the stratum spinosum where tonofilament synthesis continues and cells begin to produce keratohyalin granules which help convert granular cells to cornified (keratinization) and lamellar bodies.
  • Cells are pushed into the stratum granulosum and continue to stratum corneum.
    *Lamellar bodies are discharged by exocytosis into spaces between the SG and SC.
    *Lamellar bodies and the lipid envelope create an epidermal water barrier.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Where does synthesis of melanocytes begin?

A

It begins in the premelanosomes from the amino acid Tryosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What skin type will see faster lysosome degradation?

A

Light skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the two forms of melanin pigments?

A

Eumelanin -> brownish black
Pheomelanin -> Reddish yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Why does exposure to UV light accelerate the rate of melanin production?

A

As a way to protect the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Where we do find Langerhans cells?

A

Stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Who are the first line defenders, also playing a role in antigen presentation?

A

Langerhans Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What cells are antigen presenting cells?

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Where are Merkel’s cells found?

A

Stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Where are Merkel’s cells most abundant?

A

Where sensor perception is acute, such as fingertips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the cells of the dermis?

A
  1. Fibroblasts (primary cells)
  2. Macrophages
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Mast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Strong and flexible connective tissue composed by cells and collagen fibers

A

Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Tissues derived from the epidermis extend into the dermis and give rise to what?

A

Sweat glands, sebaceous glands, papillae from hair and feathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What nerve endings are found only in hairless skin?

A

Meissner (touch receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What nerve endings have deep pressure receptors for mechanical and vibratory pressure?

A

Pacini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What nerve endings are only found in haired skin?

A

Hair follicle sensor (tactile hairs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What nerve endings respond to mechanical displacement of adjacent collagen fibers?

A

Ruffini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Cells in what layer would produce new hair follicles in the invent of skin injury?

A

Stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Hair follicles are formed by invaginations of what layers?

A

The epidermis and dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What region of the hair bulb produces new daughter cells that are pushed towards the surface?

A

The matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Single layer of dead, scale-like keratinocytes

A

Cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Several layers of dead keratinocytes containing hard keratin

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Dead loosely keratinized cells

A

Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Smooth muscle associated to the hair bulb and anchored to the outer layer of the dermis. (Sympathetic innervated)

A

Piloerector muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Hair follicles have cycles of activity… List them in order and what they are associated with.

A

Anagen (growth) to Catagen (regression) to Telogen (resting) to Exogen (shedding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the two types of feathers?

A

Flight
Covert (down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the flat part of the feather?

A

Vane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What does the vane consist of?

A

Barbs that are at angles of 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Hooklets are present where?

A

Only on the barbules of one side of the barb on feathers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

The barbules of down feathers lack what?

A

Hooklets

148
Q

Feathers from the same feather follicle can have what?

A

Different pigmentation

149
Q

What are the glands of the skin?

A

Sebaceous glands
Sweat glands
Mammary glands

150
Q

This duct opens into a hair follicle and/or pore on the skin surface

A

Sebaceous gland

151
Q

What is the composition of sebaceous glands?

A

Detached, degraded epithelial cells as well as lipids and proteins

152
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

Lubrication of skin, water impermeability, inhibition of bacterial growth

153
Q

There are no sebaceous glands associated with feathers. _________ glands in waterfowl are used for preening/water proofing feathers.

A

Uropygial glands

154
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Eccrine and Apocrine

155
Q

What sweat glands are common in primates?

A

Eccrine glands

156
Q

Where do eccrine glands open?

A

In the pores at the skin surface

157
Q

Where are Na+ and Cl- reabsorbed in skin?

A

Eccrine glands

158
Q

What glands are common in domestic animals?

A

Apocrine

159
Q

Where do apocrine glands open?

A

Into the hair follicle

160
Q

Odoriferous secretion composed of fatty acids and protein come from what glands?

A

Apocrine

161
Q

What are the milk producing units?

A

Alveoli (acini)

162
Q

What are clusters of alveoli?

A

Lobuli

163
Q

What are clusters of Lobuli?

A

Lobi

164
Q

What cells are involved in milk ejection?

A

Myoepithelial cells

165
Q

Nutrient and water required for milk production diffuse from ________ ___________ and enter into the __________ ______

A

blood capillaries, epithelial cells

166
Q

What are examples of cornified epidermal structures?

A

Hooves, claws, horns, claws, beaks, shells, scales

167
Q

Horny hoof wall is formed by what?

A

Keratinization of the cells in the coronary band, recently produced horn is pushed downward as new horn is being formed.

168
Q

At the coronary band, the _____ of the skin is continuous with the _____ of the hoof.

A

Dermis, Dermis

169
Q

What hairs provide the smooth appearance, lie close against skin, and promote rain runoff?

A

Guard hairs

170
Q

How do guard hairs develop?

A

The follicle develops from an ectodermal bud, the distal end of the bud forms a bulbous enlargement indented by mesenchymal papillar to form primitive hair follicle.

171
Q

Long tail hairs of cattle
Fetlock tufts of horses
Feather of tail and limbs of certain breeds of dogs

These are examples of what?

A

Guard hairs

172
Q

What hairs provide the soft undercoat?

A

Wool hairs

173
Q

These hairs are shorter, more numerous than guard hairs and are concealed between the guard hair

A

Wool hairs

174
Q

These hairs are substantially thicker and generally protrude beyond the neighboring guard hairs

A

Tactile hair

175
Q

These hairs can reach deep into the SQ or even superficial muscles

A

Tactile hair

176
Q

These hairs are characterized by the presence of venous sinus filled with blood and located between inner and outer layers of dermal sheath

A

Tactile hairs

177
Q

Follicles of these types of hair appear early in development, before those of the coat hairs.

A

Tactile hairs

178
Q

Structure that has thick epidermal covering, dermis, and SQ cushion or pulvinus

A

Torus/Tori (foot pad)

179
Q

What is the difference between digitigrade and plantigrade?

A

Digitigrade - such as dogs- don’t walk on the “soles” of their feet as much as their “digits”
Plantigrade - such as bears - put their weight mainly on the sole of their foot.

180
Q

Ruminants and pigs have a digital pad called what?

A

Bulb- located in the hoof

181
Q

Horses have digital pads called what?

A

Frog- located in the hoof

182
Q

What are the three parts of the horse hoof?

A

Wall, Sole and associated pad (horny structure; corresponds with digital bulb or digital pad)

183
Q

Strongly curved portion of the equine hoof that has sides that are sharply inflected to form bars

A

The wall

184
Q

Space between the bars of an equine hoof

A

The frog

185
Q

The part of the horse hoof that contacts the ground

A

Frog

186
Q

The sole horn that fills the ground surface between the wall and the frog is a junction known as what?

A

The White Line

187
Q

What is the band of soft horn that lies over the external surface of the wall near the junction of the skin?

A

Periople

188
Q

What structure widens the back of the hoof, where it covers the bulbs of the heel and part of the frog?

A

Periople

189
Q

Descends with the wall and dries to a protective glossy layer

A

Periople

190
Q

What bonds the claw to the dorsal border of the bone?

A

Longitudinal interdigitations between the dermal and epidermal laminae

191
Q

What make up the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

192
Q

What make up the PNS?

A

Spinal and cranial nerves

193
Q

What is the role of the CNS?

A

The interpret incoming sensory information and issue instructions based on past experience and current conditions

194
Q

What is the role of the PNS?

A

To carry impulses from the sensory receptors to the CNS and from the CNS to effectors

195
Q

Afferent division (AKA sensory component) conducts impulses ________ the spinal cord and brain

A

Toward

196
Q

Efferent division (AKA motor component) of the PNS conveys impulses ______ from the brain and spinal cord

A

Away

197
Q

Afferent and Efferent are further subdivided into what?

A

Somatic and Visceral sytems

198
Q

What system is concerned with both sensory and motor functions that determine relationship of the organism to the outside world?

A

Somatic

199
Q

This system includes detection of stimuli in the skin, tissues of limb and trunk as well as behavioral actions

A

Somatic system

200
Q

The somatic system can also be referred to as what?

A

The voluntary system

201
Q

This system is concerned with sensory and motor functions that relate to the internal viscera

A

Visceral system

202
Q

The motor component of the visceral peripheral nervous system is also referred to as what?

A

Autonomic system

203
Q

Regulation of BP, HR, and the control of glandular activity and digestive process are controlled by what nervous system?

A

The Visceral (or Autonomic) nervous system

204
Q

The Autonomic nervous system consists of what?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

205
Q

Visceral efferent fibers of the sympathetic division leave the CNS via the spinal nerves in the ___________ regions of the spinal cord

A

Thoracolumbar regions

206
Q

The visceral efferent fibers of the parasympathetic division are found in a small group of cranial nerves and in spinal nerves of the ______ region of the spinal cord

A

Sacral region

207
Q

The sympathetic division is responsible for what responses?

A

Flight or Fight

208
Q

The parasympathetic division is responsible for what responses?

A

Conserving energy
Promotes housekeeping functions during rest.

209
Q

What are the basic elements of the nervous system?

A

Neurons

210
Q

Thin branching extensions of the cell body that conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body

A

Dendrites

211
Q

A single branch (in most neurons) which conducts nerves away from the cell body?

A

Axon

212
Q

What does gray matter of the brain contain?

A

Cell bodies of motor and association neurons

213
Q

What does white matter of the brain contain?

A

Myelinated axons

214
Q

All spinal nerves are ________ nerves, but not all cranial nerves are.

A

Mixed

215
Q

What part of the brain controls coordination and fine tuning of movement?

A

Cerebellum

216
Q

What part of the brain is the conscious perception of sensory input and initiation of conscious movement?

A

Cerebrum

217
Q

What is the relay center for the brain, it filters sensory input and allows us to concentrate?

A

Brain stem (midprain, pons and medulla oblongota)

218
Q

What is the corpus callosum responsible for?

A

Enabling communication between hemispheres

219
Q

Reflexes do not require _______ input and does not imply consciousness.

A

Cerebral

220
Q

Response requires _______ awareness

A

Cortical

221
Q

What are the 5 elements of reflex arc?

A
  1. Receptor
  2. Sensory neuron
  3. Integration center
  4. Motor neuron
  5. Effector
222
Q

What are somatic reflexes?

A

They include all reflexes that stimulate skeletal muscle

223
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A

They regulate the activity of smooth muscle, heart and glands. I.e. Digestion, elimination, blood pressure and sweating

224
Q

Sensory (afferent) Nerves, Motor (efferent) nerves and Mixed nerves are based on what?

A

The direction of the nerve impulse

225
Q

What are the 4 types of basic tissue that make up the organs of the body?

A

Epithelial
Connective
Muscular
Nervous

226
Q

What are the three types of epithelium?

A

Lining (surface) epithelia
Glandular epithelia
Special epithelia

227
Q

Where would you find lining epithelia?

A

Body surfaces, lining of luminal organs, tubular structures, body cavities

228
Q

What is the function of glandular epithelia?

A

To synthesize, store and release various products

229
Q

What type of epithelia contain sensory nerve endings?

A

Special epithelia

230
Q

Where would you find special epithelia?

A

Skin, ears, tongue (nose and eyes but w/ modified neurons)

231
Q

What are some characteristics of epithelium?

A

Supported by connective tissue
Avascular
Basement membrane
Cells are cohesive
Cells are polarized

232
Q

Epithelium that is composed of flat, elongated cells, with a round to oval nucleus- often centrally located.

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

233
Q

Where would simple squamous epithelium be found?

A

Lining of body cavities (mesothelium), alveolar walls in lungs, inner lining of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels (called the endothelium)

234
Q

What type of epithelium has tall, narrow cells with an oval nucleus located near the base?

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

235
Q

What kind of epithelium would you find lining the luminal surface of the stomach, SI, LI and gall bladder?

A

Simple columnar

236
Q

What kind of epithelium would you see lining the oviduct?

A

Simple columnar ciliated

237
Q

What type of epithelium is composed of a single layer of irregularly shaped and sized cells?

A

Pseudostratified

238
Q

In what kind of epithelium would all cells touch the basement membrane but not all reach the apical surface?

A

Pseudostratified

239
Q

Where would you find pseudostratified epithelium?

A

Nasal cavity and upper respiratory tract

240
Q

What complication can be seen with a lack or absence of cilia?

A

Chronic respiratory infections

241
Q

What epithelium is composed of several layers of cells?

A

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

242
Q

What are the two types of squamous epithelium?

A

Keratinized (cornified)
Non-keratinized

243
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the dental pad of ruminants?

A

Stratified Squamous, Keratinized

244
Q

Transitional epithelium is also called what?

A

Urothelium

245
Q

What type of epithelium would you find lining the urinary bladder?

A

Transitional (Urothelium) epithelium

246
Q

What makes Urothelium unique?

A

Superficial cells have specialized plasma membranes providing an osmotic barrier between urine and tissue fluids

247
Q

In transitional epithelium, if the superficial cells are cuboidal with a dome shaped surface what does that indicate?

A

An empty bladder

248
Q

In transitional epithelium, if the epithelium appears flattened and more like stratified squamous, what does that indicate?

A

A full bladder

249
Q

Where are stem cells located?

A

Stratum basale (basal cell layer)

250
Q

What are the criteria used to classify glandular epithelium?

A

Number of cells in the gland
Shape of duct and secretory units (adenomeres)
Type of product
Mode of secretion

251
Q

Where are unicellular glands found?

A

Epithelial lining and glands of intestine as well as in the epithelial lining of the respiratory tract

252
Q

What is an example of a unicellular gland?

A

Goblet cell

253
Q

What gives the goblet cell it’s unique shape?

A

The presence of abundant mucinogen granuls in the apical part of the cell

254
Q

Where might you see goblet cells?

A

Simple columnar epithelium of the colon

255
Q

What are the three types of multicellular glands?

A

Tubular
Acinar
Alveolar

256
Q

What type of gland would you find in sweat glands, stomach glands or intestinal glands?

A

Tubular gland

257
Q

What kind of gland is pie-shaped?

A

Acinar

258
Q

What type of gland would you find in the small lumen (pancreas and salivary glands)?

A

Acinar

259
Q

What gland provides a larger luminal space?

A

Alveolar

260
Q

Where would you find alveolar glands?

A

Mammary glands, prostate, sebaceous glands

261
Q

What shape corresponds to a rounded secretory unit?

A

Acinar

262
Q

What shape corresponds to a bigger luminal space?

A

Alveolar

263
Q

What is the parenchyma?

A

The collective secretory units and ducts of a compound gland

264
Q

The connective tissue elements comprise what?

A

The stroma

265
Q

Large glands are divided into _______ which are further divided into _______

A

Lobes, lobules

266
Q

What is an example of cerumen?

A

Ear wax

267
Q

What is the secretion of modified sweat glands in the external auditory canal?

A

Cerumen

268
Q

What is sebum?

A

Oily secretion from the sebaceous glands

269
Q

A gland that produces both mucous and serous secretion is called mixed. What is an example of this?

A

Saliva

270
Q

What are the components of connective tissue?

A

Cells, Fibers, Ground substance (interstitial fluid)

271
Q

What are some characteristics of connective tissue?

A

Supports epithelia
Vascularized
Cells lack polarity
Less cohesive
No basement membrane

272
Q

What are some functions of connective tissue?

A

Joins tissues together
Gives form, subdivides organs
Physical support of body
Thermoregulation
Nutrition and storage (adipose)
Defense and repair mechanisms

273
Q

What are the two types of cells of connective tissue?

A

Resident and transient

274
Q

What are the 3 types of fibers in connective tissue?

A

Collagen, elastic, reticular

275
Q

What are the two types of ground substance in connective tissue?

A

Macromolecules and interstitial fluid

276
Q

What is the most numerous cell population in connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

277
Q

What type of cells are fibroblasts?

A

Resident cells

278
Q

What synthesizes the fibers of connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

279
Q

What are examples of resident cells?

A

Reticular cells, Fibroblasts, Adipocytes, Macrophages, Mast cells

280
Q

What type of cells would you find in lymph nodes, liver, spleen, that would not be subjected to high mechanical stress?

A

Reticular cells

281
Q

What cells serve as scaffolding to the parenchyma of various organs?

A

Reticular cells

282
Q

What cells specialize in depositing lipids?

A

Adipocytes

283
Q

What are the two types of adipocytes?

A

Multiocular (brown)
Uniocular (white)

284
Q

Where would you see multiocular adipocytes?

A

Newborns and hibernating animals

285
Q

What is the resident phagocyte cell of connective tissue?

A

Macrophage

286
Q

What are the macrophages in the liver? And the bone?

A

Kupffer cells (liver)
Osteoclasts (bone)

287
Q

What cells are filled with basophilic granules?

A

Mast cells

288
Q

What cells are involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions?

A

Mast cells

289
Q

What does degranulation (activation) of mast cells cause?

A

Release of histamine and other chemical mediators that trigger symptoms of allergy

290
Q

What is an example of transient connective tissue cells?

A

White blood cells
(Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes)

291
Q

What are the most numerous fibers of connective tissue?

A

Collagen fiber

292
Q

What are some characteristics of collagen fiber?

A

White, very high tensile strength, very strong, can only stretch 5% of initial length

293
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the body?

A

Collagen

294
Q

What cells synthesize collagen?

A

FIbroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts, odontoblasts…etc (basically anything ending in -blast)

295
Q

What is formed in the fibroblast and transported out of the cell to be assembled into collagen fibrils?

A

Procollagen

296
Q

What is an important cofactor in collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

297
Q

Found in 90% of body’s collagen, skin, bone, dentin, tendons, fibrocartilage; resists tensile forces

A

Type 1 collagen

298
Q

Found in cartilage, resists compression

A

Type 2 collagen

299
Q

Reticular fibers found in the stroma of expandable organs

A

Type 3 collagen

300
Q

Basal lamina of the epithelia

A

Type 4 collagen

301
Q

FIber found in aorta, arteries, lungs, vocal cords, dermis, ear pinna, epiglottis…

A

Elastic fibers

302
Q

Individual, branching, anastomosing fibers

A

Elastic fibers

303
Q

What fibers are stained by silver and serve as scaffolding to cells or cell groups of various organs?

A

Reticular fibers

304
Q

What substance is produced by resident cells?

A

Ground substance

305
Q

Composed of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

Ground substance

306
Q

What link to core proteins to make proteoglycans?

A

GAGs

307
Q

Properties of these molecules allow for binding of water, resisting compressive forces, cell adhesion to fibers, cell migration, barrier to bacterial/venom penetration

A

Ground substance

308
Q

A solution of nutrients and dissolved gases derived from plasma

A

Interstitial fluid

309
Q

Bathes the cells, fibers and ground substance, and aids in removing waste

A

Interstitial fluid

310
Q

A decrease in skin turgor is what?

A

A LATE sign in dehydration

311
Q

What are important in fluid movement and prevention of edema?

A

Lymphatics

312
Q

True or false
Interstitial (tissue) fluid is visible on slides

A

False - NOT visible on slides

313
Q

Adipocytes produce _____ which has regulatory effects on body fat.

A

Leptin

314
Q

Leptin levels are proportional to what?

A

Body fat

315
Q

What signals the brain (satiety center) that the body has had enough to eat?

A

Leptin

316
Q

What occurs when adipocytes outnumber other cell types?

A

Adipose tissue

317
Q

What is the endocrine function of white adipose tissue?

A

Hormone “leptin” secretion

318
Q

What are the main functions of White adipose tissue?

A

Energy storage
Insulation
Leptin secretion

319
Q

What is the main function of brown adipose tissue?

A

Heat generation

320
Q

What part of the ear captures air vibrations and directs them towards the tympanic membrane?

A

External ear

321
Q

The auricle (pinna) and ear canal (vertical and horizontal part) are the parts of what portion of the ear?

A

The external ear

322
Q

Sound modulation is a function of what portion of the ear?

A

Middle ear

323
Q

This part of the ear is located in the tympanic part of the temporal bone of skull

A

Middle ear

324
Q

What are the 3 auditory ossicles?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

325
Q

What connects the tympanic membrane to the oval window?

A

The 3 auditory ossicles

326
Q

Through what structure does the pharynx communicate with the middle ear?

A

Auditory tube

327
Q

The pharynx and auditory tube ensure what?

A

That the air pressure inside the middle ear is equal to the outside air pressure

328
Q

Where is the inner ear housed?

A

Deep inside the temporal bone

329
Q

What nerve is found in the inner ear?

A

CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)

330
Q

What comprises the inner ear?

A

Cochlea (organ for hearing)
Vestibular apparatus (organ for balance)
Utricle
Saccule

331
Q

What are the 3 tunics of the eye?

A

Fibrous Tunic
Vascular Tunic
Nervous Tunic

332
Q

What tunic houses the sclera and cornea?

A

Fibrous tunic

333
Q

What tunic houses the iris, ciliary body, and choroid?

A

Vascular tunic

334
Q

What tunic houses the pigmented layer and neural layer?

A

Nervous tunic

335
Q

What structure is responsible for structural integrity of the eye?

A

Sclera

336
Q

What structure of the eye allows light to enter the eye?

A

Cornea

337
Q

What structure in the eye modulates the amount of light?

A

Iris

338
Q

What structure of the eye modulates vision focus?

A

Ciliary body

339
Q

What structure in the eye provides blood supply and innervation?

A

Choroid

340
Q

What tunic reacts to light stimuli and outputs nerve impulses for the brain to be interpreted as images?

A

Nervous tunic

341
Q

What is the transparent anterior 1/4 of the eye?

A

Cornea

342
Q

What is the opaque posterior 3/4 of the eye?

A

Sclera

343
Q

Where is the tapetum lucidum found?

A

In the choroid

344
Q

Dorsal part of the eye that reflects light, is avascular and reflects in iridescence

A

Tapetum lucidum

345
Q

Which portion of the eye is suspended between the cornea and lens?

A

Iris

346
Q

Which portion of the nervous tunic of the eye has no photoreceptors?

A

Anterior, thinner pigmented layer

347
Q

What is responsible for the “blind spot”?

A

Optic disk of the nervous tunic (retina) where axons emerge from the eye bulb

348
Q

What muscles change the shape of the lens for focusing?

A

Ciliary muscles

349
Q

What intrinsic muscles of the eye are poorly developed in domestic animals?

A

Ciliary muscles

350
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the eye?

A

Ciliary and pupillary

351
Q

What type of muscles of the eye are under voluntary control?

A

Extrinsic muscles (4 rectus and 2 oblique)

352
Q

The space between the cornea and lens is divided into what 2 chambers?

A

Anterior and Posterior chamber

353
Q

What chamber does NOT communicate with anterior compartment?

A

Vitreous chamber

354
Q

What eye chamber is from the cornea to the iris?

A

Anterior

355
Q

What eye chamber is from the iris to the lens?

A

Posterior

356
Q

What chamber contains the aqueous humor?

A

Anterior and Posterior chamber

357
Q

Concave fold of palpebral conjunctiva that protrudes from the medial angle of the eye

A

Third eyelid (plica semilunaris)

358
Q

What supports the third eyelid?

A

T-shaped cartilage

359
Q

Gland of the eye located dorso-lateral to eye, secretes serous fluid

A

Lacrimal gland

360
Q

What is the flow for tears/gland secretion?

A

Lacrimal gland secretes serous fluid, then secretion flows over cornea then passes through lacrimal puncta and into lacrimal canaliculi and then drains into nasolacrimal duct

361
Q

What is located in the caudal region of the nasal cavity?

A

Olfactory mucosa

362
Q

What covers thin scrolls of ethmoidal bone?

A

Olfactory mucosa

363
Q

This nerve is made up of numerous axons that rise in the olfactory mucosa and pass through cribiform foramina to olfactory bulbs

A

Olfactory nerve

364
Q

Where are taste buds located on the tongue?

A

Vallate
Foliate
Fungiform papillae

365
Q

What CN is found on the caudal 1/3 of the tongue?

A

IX (Glossopharyngeal)

366
Q

What CN is sensory from the rostral 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual nerve (Touch- trigeminal nerve CN V and taste- facial CN VII)

367
Q

What do canine’s have since they have an incomplete orbit?

A

Orbital ligament