Block 1 Family Med Flashcards

1
Q

What can an isolated elevation of BUN indicate?

A

GI bleed

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2
Q

MOA of Metformin

A

Unknown, but many theories

Overall, reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver, decreases glucose absorption in GI, increases insulin sensitivity

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3
Q

Glucophage generic name

A

Metformin

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4
Q

Why is Metformin so effective in treating DM and therefore first-line Tx choice?

A

Average person with DMII has 3X rate of gluconeogenesis than normal.
Metformin can reduce this production by over one-third

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5
Q

Most common SE’s of metformin

A

Diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain

Low risk of hypoglycemia

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6
Q

Glyburide generic name

A

Glibenclamide

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7
Q

Glyburide drug class

A

Sulfonylurea

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8
Q

MOA of sulfonylureas

A

Binds to and inhibits the K+ ATP channel in the Beta cells of the pancreas, this leads to increased Ca influx and increased release of insulin.
Acts to increase beta cell sensitivity to all secretagogues at all blood glucose levels.
May also act to increase tissue sensitivity to insulin, but clinical relevance thought to be minimal.

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9
Q

Name the second generation sulfonylureas

A

Glipizide, Glyburide, Gliclazide, Glimepiride

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10
Q

How much do sulfonylureas tend to lower blood glucose levels and A1c?

A

Blood glucose lowered by 20%

A1c lowered by 1-2%

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11
Q

Sulfonylureas are most likely to be effective in what patients?

A

Patients with normal or slightly increased weight.

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12
Q

What patients should be given insulin to control their DM?

A

Patients who are underweight, losing weight, or ketotic despite adequate caloric intake. Be careful because these patients can actually be type I diabetics

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13
Q

Chlorpropamide

A

1st generation, long-acting sulfonylurea

More side effects than other sulfonylureas and its use is no longer recommended

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14
Q

What is the most common SE of sulfonylureas? What increases their risk?

A

Hypoglycemia
Higher risk:
after exercise, missed meal, longer acting drugs (glyburide), undernourished or abuse alcohol, concurrent therapy with salicylates, sulfonamides, gemfibrozil, warfarin, after being in hospital

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15
Q

What are the three main types of photosensitivity reactions?

A

Phototoxicity: exaggerated skin reaction mostly from a drug leading to increased tendency to sunburn and blister, quinolones, sulfonamides, tetracyclines, water pills, tranquilizers, oral diabetic drugs, some cancer drugs
Photoallergy: itching rash on exposure to sunlight, can lead to chronic skin changes like lichen planus from scratching, many cosmetic and perfume agents can cause this, PABA in sunscreens used to cause it
Polymorphous light eruption: resembles photoallergy in that creates intensely itchy rash, different in that decreases with increased sun exposure so tends to be worse in the Spring, tends to be fair skinned people

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16
Q

What is xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

Hereditary disease with a defect in repair mechanisms that accelerates skin damage from sunlight

17
Q

What type of malnutrition can lead to increased skin sensitivity to sunlight?

A

Niacin deficiency leads to pellagra

18
Q

HIV positive patients can become photosensitive. What other features of the disease can increase the risk for photosensitivity?

A

African American

HAART

19
Q

What is C-Reactive Protein?

A

Acute phase reactant released by the liver in response to IL-6. Indicator of inflammation in the body.

20
Q

What is the significance of elevated homocysteine levels?

A

Elevated levels are associated with atherogenesis and therefore ischemic injury. Can increase risk for CAD, stroke, thrombosis
May also be associated with neuropsychiatric illness, fractures, and microalbuminuria

21
Q

When are homocysteine levels often found to be elevated?

A

Levels increase with age, so the elderly are more likely to have increased levels
Also increase with low vit B6 as this is a cofactor needed to convert homocysteine into cysteine

22
Q

What are the ACS screening guidelines for breast cancer?

A

40-44 yr: patient discretion
45-55 yr: annually
Over 55: biennially

23
Q

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for breast cancer?

A

Under 50: patient and doc discretion
Over 50: Biennially
Over 75: assess based on health and 10 year life expectancy

24
Q

What are the ACS guidelines for cervical cancer screening?

A

Start at age 21
21-29: pap q 3 yr without HPV testing
30-65: pap + HPV testing every 5 years, or pap only every 3 yr
Over 65: If normal testing and results for last 10 years can stop testing, if Hx of serious cervical pre-cancer should continue to be tested for 20 years
After total hysterectomy: if no Hx of cancer or pre-cancer then no need to test

25
Q

What is Cymbalta?

A

Duloxetine

SNRI

26
Q

What are the most common uses for Duloxetine?

A

MDD (not first-line because of cost and not increased efficacy)
GAD
Fibromyalgia
Neuropathic pain
Found by some studies to be helpful for diabetic neuropathy
In other countries like the UK it is used for stress urinary incontinence though it failed approval for this in USA

27
Q

What is the first-line treatment for neuropathy caused by chemotherapy?

A

Duloxetine

28
Q

What are the primary SE’s of Duloxetine?

A

Nausea, somnolence, insomnia, dizziness

29
Q

What is a common SE of all drugs that inhibit re-uptake of serotonin?

A

Sexual dysfunction
Usually involving a lack of interest, anorgasmia, anhedonia
Think of this for all SSRI’s and SNRI’s

30
Q

What is the major use of Citalopram, its class and trade names?

A

Most commonly used for MDD
SSRI class
Celexa, Cipramil

31
Q

What are the most common SGLT2 inhibitors? (trade and generic names)

A

These are all gliflozins
Invokana (canagliflozin)
Jardiance (empagliflozin)
Farxiga (dapagliflozin)

32
Q

What class is Tradjenta?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor

Also called Linagliptin

33
Q

MOA of DPP-4 inhibitors

A

Inhibits the enzyme DPP-4 which breaks down incretins. Higher incretins causes increased insulin and decreased glucagon.

34
Q

Name the DPP-4 inhibitors

A

The gliptins
Sitagliptin = Januvia
Linagliptin = Tradjenta