Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

B2 Clinical Application > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What accompanies downward and lateral displacement of scapula?

A

Narrowing of inferior scapulohumeral angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Injury to what nerve causes weakness of rhomboids?

A

dorsal scapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve is injured if weakness during medial rotation and adduction of humerus?

A

thoracodorsal nerve (latissimus dorsi injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

complication of cisternal puncture procedure

A

injure vertebral artery, compress greater occipital nerve, compress suboccipital nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Large tumor in suboccipital region compresses nerves that do what?

A

parasthesia of skin over neck and head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What protein is likely missing in skeletal contraction if tropomyosin can not be removed?

A

troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disorder blocks ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Presentation of Myasthenia Gravis

A

droop of eyelid, double vision, swallow difficulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What disease causes muscles to undergo destructive atrophy (change to fat and connective tissue)?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What disease presents in early childhood and involves a mutation for dystrophin?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Defect of dystrophin in DMD cause what to occur?

A

sarcolemma tears in muscle
calcium influx causes cell degeneration/death
myocytes get replaced with fat and connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characterization of Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy

A

slow progression of pelvic & leg muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Positioning of lumbar puncture/spinal cord & dangers

A

recumbent or sit with spine flexion @L3
hemorrhage or traumatic tap cause blood in sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indication of bacterial infectionn in CSF

A

reduced glucose, increased protein, elevated lymphocyte, cloudy appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

indication of viral infection in CSF

A

increased protein, increased lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

indication of fungal infection CSF

A

reduced glucose, increased protein, increased lymphocytes, filaments in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What typically cause vertebral arch fractures

A

lateral forces compress lateral mass between occipital condyles
can also rupture transverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hangman fracture

A

bony column (superior and inferior artiuclar processes of axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spondylosis C2

A

defect/stress fracture in pars interarticularis
hyperextension of head on neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Caudal Epidural anesthesia location

A

fat of sacral canal surround proximal portion of sacral nerve
sacral cornua & inferior to S4 spinour process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where do osteophytes often occur in vertebrae

A

margins of vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

dislocation between adjacent vertebrae
press on or injure spinal cord/nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Spondylolisthesis common where

A

L5-S1 of IV joint
area prone due to downward tilt
pressure on spinal nerve of cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

herniation of nucleus pulposus

A

common low back/limb pain
lower lumbar & lower cervical most common
posterolateral through annulus fibrosis
compress spinal nerve roots one number below involved disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dowager hump

A

excessive thoracic kyphosis in older women from osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clinical significamce of axonal transport

A

PNS neuropathies spread (chicken pox, shingles, rabies, herpes)
neurodegrnerative disease
can deliver gene therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Common demyleinating disorders

A

peripheral neuropathy, multiple sclerosis, B12 deficiency, re-hydrate too fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

muscle action during clavicular fraction

A

SCM pulls medial aspect superior
Trapezius attach to humerus pulls inferior
deltoid can pull inferior
subclavius serves as protection for subclavian nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

clavicular fracture can injure what surrounding structures?

A

subclavian nerve, axillary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Humerus greater tubercle fractures involve what muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

humerus lesser tubercle fracture involve what muscles and complications

A

subscapularis muscle
posterior dislocation & bone fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fracture of anatomical neck of humerus complication

A

damage axillary nerve, posterior humeral circumflex artery & vein (quadrangular space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Midhumeral shaft fracture consideration

A

injure radial nerve & deep brachial artery
do not paralyze tricep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

supracondylar humerus fracture consideration

A

displacement of fragment
injure median nerve & radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Wrist drop injury due to what

A

radial nerve palsy
compression of radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Decreased reflex response indicates problem in what?

A

muscle spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

clincal apply of golgi tendon organ reflex

A

isometric contraction of hypertonic muscle engage inhibitory reflex circuit of spinal cord, inhibits low motorneusons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What shoulder muscle more vulnerable to tears and impingement?

A

supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Rotator cuff muscle that injury to causes significant bleed

A

subscapularis
supply by subscapular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Jobe Test

A

abduction of arm to 90, internal rotation
assess rotator cuff injury (supraspinatus) if pain/weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

rotator cuff tear

A

repetitive overhead activity or acute trauma
pain, weakness, limited ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

shoulder impingement syndrome

A

compress RC tendon betwen humeral head & acromion
inflammation, pain, decreased function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)

A

progressive stiffness & loss of motion
freeze, frozen, thaw stages
trauma, stresss, laxity of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

glenohumeral instability

A

excess movement
lead to subluxation or dislocation
from trauma, stress, laxity congenitally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Poland syndrome

A

congenital absence of pectoralis majoor, often with hand defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Thoracoacromial artery clinical significance

A

collateral vessel in case of axillary artery obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lateral thoracic artery clinical significance

A

Accompanied by long thoracic nerve and both can be damaged during surgery, especially breast reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

subclavius muscle clinical significance

A

Protect the vascular and nerve underneath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

auxiliary vein clinical importance

A

Central Venus catheter, can be involved in upper limb DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

clinical significance of pectoral nerves

A

Injury occurs during mastectomy, or auxiliary, no dissection, results in weakness of pectoral muscles, which affects adduction and internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

clinical significance of thoracic nerve

A

Injury to nerve paralyzes muscle and causes winging of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

intercoastal, brachial nerve clinical significance

A

Sacrificed and auxiliary, lymph node, dissection, causing numbness and upper inner arm and causes pain post mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what vein typically allows breast cancer to spread

A

Auxiliary vein as most Venus drainage flows through it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Effect of lymphedema

A

Swelling thickened leather, like skin with dimple, orange peels, deviation of nipple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

nerve for sucking reflex

A

Fourth in coastal nerve into nipple and Ariola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pathogenesis of osteoarthritis

A

Age related decline formation of articular cartilage.
Loss of pro gin, content, and less fluidity next sentence contra trigger, excessive activation of met low protein, aces in increased degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

where does osteoporosis occur?

A

In the cancellous bone or spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

repair of fracture pathology

A

1) formation of hematoma
2) reinvasion of blood vessels formation of fibrocartilage callus
3) osteoblast form new compact bone
4) osteoclast form new cancellous bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Calcium deficiency, causing soft bones and deformation due to paired remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

rickets

A

Calcium deficiency and kids due to diet deficient of vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Genetic disorder with defective or insufficient, collagen integration into bone matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

osteoporosis/Albers Schoenberg disease

A

Defective regulation and impaired function of osteoclast, causing ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

fibroplasia ossican progressive

A

Ectopic bone formation, subcutaneously, or conversion of connective tissue or muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

osteosarcoma

A

Osteoprogenitor cells become cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

osteoarthritis

A

Articular cartilage worn down by inflammation or overuse with limited repair mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

Auto immune inflammation of synovial membrane causes increased collagenase and metalloprotease, enzyme, and damage, articular, cartilage, and joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bicipital meiotic reflex

A

Deep tendon reflex to evaluate spinal cord motor nerve, Afrin nerve and descending motor pathway should be involuntary bicep contraction
Integrity of muscular cutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Biceps tendinitis, and tendinosis symptom

A

Tendinitis is inflammation tendinitis is degradation
From repetitive micro trauma, accompany by rotator cuff or slap tears most men for bicipital groove tenderness with 10° of internal rotation can use corticosteroid injection or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Rupture of long head of biceps tendon

A

Popeye deformity
Long head tendon near attachment of super glenoid tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Clinical significance of brachial artery

A

Main or supply to the arm and continuation of auxiliary artery
Blood pressure and pulse
Most commonly injured upper limb artery, can cause occlusion, limb, claudication, and limb loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

cubital fossa clinical significance

A

Common site for sampling, transfusion of blood, IV
Median cubital vein is most commonly selected
Medium cubit vein for cardiac catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

use of angiography

A

Image of blood vessels with x-ray dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

arteriography use

A

Areas of stenosis, occlusions, aneurysms, traumatic injuries, blood, clots, blood vessel abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

clnical significance of auxiliary artery

A

When profuse bleeding occurs can compress third part against humorous
Can find arterial pulse for arterial line cardiac surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

arterial anastomosis clinical significance

A

Allow blood flow if there is injury or occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

aneurysm degeneration of auxiliary artery

A

Repetitive trauma
Can compress trunks of brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

auxiliary vein in central line placement

A

Major Venus system for long-term vascular access
Subclavian vein puncture, using infra clavicular approach
Venipuncture lateral to curvature of middle of clavicle with needle, horizontal to sternal notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Centennial lymph node biopsy

A

Main lymph node is identified removed and examined to determine if this cancer is metastasized or the original and where it will spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

risk of auxiliary, node dissection

A

Damage to long thoracic nerve, causing winged scapula, damage to subscapular vein, damage to lateral thoracic artery, damage to the dorsal nerve, causing weak medial rotation and adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Brachial plexus injuries

A

Affect movement and cutaneous sensation of upper limb
Signs and symptoms dependent on part of plexus
Test ability to perform movements to assess loss of function
Ability to feel pain loss of sensory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

injury to superior trunk/C5 and C6

A

From excessive increase in the angle between neck and shoulder
Referred to as Erb Duchenne palsy
Parisis/paralysis of shoulder and arm muscles lateral upper limb loses sensation, waiters tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

acute brachial plexus neuritis

A

Parsonage turner syndrome, neurologic amyotrophy
Sudden, severe burning pain in shoulder and upper arm
Typically superior trunk
Pain at night, followed by muscle weakness, and sometimes atrophy
Commonly affects middle-aged men, incident can be higher in pediatrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

consequence of prolonged hyper abduction

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome
Chords and vessels of brachial plexus, impinged or compressed core cord process and peck Miner tendon
Pain down the arm, numbness, tingling, redness, weakness of hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Klumpke paralysis

A

Injury to inferior trunk
Upper limbs suddenly pulled superiorly
Injury or avulsion of C8 and T1 roots
Short muscles of hand, causing claw hand
Nerve injury leading to flexion of fourth and fifth fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

interscalene nerve block

A

Alternative to general anesthesia for upper limb surgery
Level of C6 vertebral body
Inter scaling groove deep to lateral head of SCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Supra clavicular nerve block

A

Inter scaling groove superior to clavicle lateral to subclavian artery
Trunks
Anesthesia for entire arm and hand
Highest incident of pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Infra clavicular nerve block

A

Chords
Delta pectoral groove below clavicle
Anesthesia distal to elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

auxiliary nerve block

A

Superior to pulse of auxiliary artery
Anesthesia distal to elbow
Minimal complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

locatioin simple squamous

A

posterior cornea, line blood vesels & lymph, surface of body cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

simple cuboidal locatoin

A

tubules of kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

simple columnar locatoin

A

GI tract,fallopian tubes, ductuli efferentes testis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

pseudostratified locatioin

A

respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

nonkeratinized stratifies squamous locatoin

A

mouth, oral pharynx, esophagus, vocal cord, vagina

94
Q

stratified cuboidal locatoin

A

salivary glands

95
Q

stratified columnar location

A

larger ducts of exocrine, palpebral conjunctiva of eyelid

96
Q

transitional epithelium location

A

urinary tract

97
Q

barrett syndrom

A

complication of GERD, stratified squamous of esophagus becomes simople columnar with goblet cells (metaplasia)

98
Q

consequence of genetic defect of voltage gated Na channel

A

hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (excess potassium inserum) causing liimb weakness after exercise of food high in K
paramyotonia congenita is periodic paralysis due to cold weather causing abnosmal repeat fire of muscle

99
Q

factors induce hypokalemia

A

T3, T4 thyroid hormone
B adrenergic stimulation
Hyperinsulinemia

causes increase in Na-K-ATPase

100
Q

metabolic effect hyperkalemia

A

depolarization
easuer generate AP (esp heart)
close inactivation gate of Na

101
Q

most ccommon cause of muscle tetany

A

hypocalcemia
lowers threshold potential
calcium is a cofactor forNa channel gating

102
Q

factorrs afect conduction velocity of AP

A

increased cytoplasm area = easier current
thick nerve conduct faster
myelination amount

103
Q

Guillan Barre disease

A

demyelination in PNS

104
Q

ion channels that cause IPSP

A

K & Cl

105
Q

ion channels cause EPSP

A

Ca & Na

106
Q

Drug induced seizure ,mechanism

A

inadequate amount of inhibitory influence or excessive excitatory stimulation

107
Q

normal blood pH adult

A

7.4 +/- 0.05

108
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

decrease ventilatoin, increased PCO2, partial renal compensation; very common

109
Q

metabolic acidosis

A

decrease extracellular HCO3- concentration`decrease PCO2, partial respiratory compensation

110
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

increase ventilation, decrease PCO2, partial renal compensation

111
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

increase extracelluilar HCO3-, increase PCO2, partial respiratory compensation

112
Q

glycine clinical significance

A

collagen
smallest AA
inhibitory (release block by tetanus toxin)

113
Q

leucine, isoleucine, valine clinical significance

A

maple syrup urine disease

114
Q

phenylalanine clinical significance

A

PKU

115
Q

tryptophan clinical significance

A

serotonin
Niacin/B3
Hartnup disease

116
Q

Serine/threonine clinical significance

A

O link glycolysation
phosphorylation

117
Q

tyrosine clinical significance

A

phosphorylation

118
Q

asparagine clinical significancae

A

N link glycolysation

119
Q

Cysteine clinical significance

A

disulfide boind
glutathione

120
Q

glutamic acid significance

A

excitatory NT
GABA derived from (inhibitory NT)

121
Q

lysine significance

A

histone methylation & acetylation

122
Q

arginine significance

A

ADP ribosylation

123
Q

Kwashiorkior

A

kid malnutrition with large liver fdue to fat, edema
protein deprivation grater than total Kcal

124
Q

Marasmus

A

calorie deprivation greater than reduction in protein

125
Q

cachexia

A

weakness/wasting boidy from chronic illness

126
Q

beta sheet in fiber proteins, causing neurological disorder

A

Amyloid, protein deposits and brains of Alzheimer’s patients with twisted beta pleated sheet fibers it leads to protein aggregation
Protein aggregation through the beta sheet with poly glutamine strands of Huntington protein is Huntington disease

127
Q

misFolded prion protein

A

CJD, unknown prions induced formation of an amid fold protein polymerizes into aggregated, packed beta sheets

128
Q

disorder caused by mutation in beta globin gene

A

Sickle cell disease
Position six of beta chains glutamic acid becomes veiling, which increases aggregation of HB leading to fibers is oxygen cannot be carr

129
Q

disease caused buy vitamin C deficiency

A

Bruises on limbs, gum, disease, loosen teeth, lethargy, myalgia
Risk factor of poor diet and alcohol and smoking and dialysis

130
Q

cross-linking of Lysol oxidize requires

A

Cofactor of copper
Coenzyme of PLP also known as vitamin B6

131
Q

common disorder of type one collagen

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

132
Q

common disorder of type three collagen

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

133
Q

common disorder of type four collagen

A

Alport syndrome and good pasture syndrome

134
Q

common disorder of type five collagen

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

135
Q

clinical significance of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Brittle bone disease, multiple fractures,, hearing loss, delayed wound healing
From mutations of type one collagen miss folding of pro peptides
Clara is from Clara being thinner

136
Q

clinical significance of Dan syndrome

A

Hyper elasticity of skin, hyper mobility of joints, aortic aneurysm, colon rupture, skin hemorrhage
From mutations in alpha or alpha two chain of type one three or five collagen
Can Lysol hydroxy sufficiency or collagen deficiency

137
Q

Alports syndrome clinical significance

A

Mutations and alpha three or five chain of collagen
Leads to kidney issues, ocular defects, hearing loss

138
Q

Goodpasture syndrome, clinical significance

A

Antibodies against alpha chain of type four collagen
Auto immune towards basement membrane of pulmonary and glomerular capillaries
Establishes a protein in the urine

139
Q

Menke disease clinical significance

A

Steely hair, arterial tortuosity, and rupture, anemia, cerebral degeneration, osteoporosis,
Recessive disorder
Deficient cross-linking of Lysol oxidase with a functional copper deficiency

140
Q

emphysema clinical significance

A

Excess air in the lung
Mutation in A1 ATT

141
Q

Marfan syndrome clinical significance

A

Elongated bones, dislocation of lens of eye, cardiovascular abnormality
From mutation in fiber and one which is in the ECM

142
Q

epidermolysis Bullosa simplex clinical significance

A

Blister formation at Dermo epidermal junction
Mutation gene for keratin five or 14

143
Q

alpha Thalassemia clinical significance

A

HBH disease
Microcytic and hypochromic anemia

144
Q

beta thalassemia clinical significance

A

Thalassemia major
Microcytic and hypochromic anemia

145
Q

lactate dehydrogenase classification

A

Oxidoreductase

146
Q

Pyruvate kinase classification

A

Transferase

147
Q

alpha amylase classification

A

Hydrolase

148
Q

Aldolase A classification

A

lyase

149
Q

phosphoglucose isomerase classification

A

isomerase

150
Q

pyruvate carboxylase classification

A

ligase

151
Q

where does phosphorylation occur amino acid?

A

Serine, throninee and tyrosine

152
Q

ADP ribosylation location AA

A

Arginine

153
Q

methylation location AA

A

lysine and arginine

154
Q

cholera

A

cholera toxin (bacteria) ADP ribosylates G protein

155
Q

pertussis

A

pertussis toxin (bacteria) ADP ribosylates G protei

156
Q

hemoglobin S disease

A

Red cell sickling, hemolytic anemia
glutamic acid becomes valine (charge to no charge)

157
Q

Hemoglobin C disease

A

Glutamic acid becomes lysine at position six of beta chain (positive to negative)

158
Q

Hemoglobin SC disease

A

significant red cell sickle

159
Q

methemoglobinemia disease

A

increased ferric hemoglobin in blood
reduce oxygen bind ability
treat with methylene blue

160
Q

iron overload

A

hemochromatosis

161
Q

polycythemia

A

increaseed RBC

162
Q

anemia

A

decreased RBC

163
Q

leukocytosis

A

high WBC

164
Q

leukopenia

A

low WBC

165
Q

thrombocytosis

A

high platelet

166
Q

thrombopenia

A

low platelet

167
Q

pancytopenia

A

low all types

168
Q

anisocytosis

A

varied size RBC

169
Q

poikilocytosis

A

varied shape RBC

170
Q

schistocytes

A

damaged RBC

171
Q

gray platelet syndrome

A

bleeding fisorder with absence alpha granules

172
Q

storage pool deficincy

A

reduced or absence of delta granules
prolong nosebleed

173
Q

hemophilia

A

rare inherited blood disorder where decrease ability to clot

174
Q

indication of prone lumbar soft tissue technique

A

thoracic/lumbar paraspinal muscle tension with back oain, chest wall paain

175
Q

indication of lumbosacral prone 2 hand traction soft tissue technique

A

lumbosacral tension causing back pain, Si pain, pelvic pain

176
Q

indication of thoracic prone 2 handed traction soft tissue tetchnique

A

reduce muscle hypertonicity, muscle tension, fascial tension, muscle spasm

177
Q

indication of prone regional thoracic myofascial release technique

A

reduce muscle tension, fascial tension, increase eleasticity of short or fibrotic myofascia

178
Q

indication of mid & low toracic region soft tissueh

A

reduce muscle hypertonicity, muscle tension, fascial tesion, muscle spasm

179
Q

indication of scapulothoracic myofascial release

A

increase of shortene, inelastic or fibrotic myofascia, improve regional ROM of paraspinal & shoulder, increase lymph and venous drainage, alleviate congestion with poor respiration

180
Q

indication of pectoral traction

A

increase venous and lymph drain to alleviate congestion, improve excess shoulder protraction, release tension of clavipectoral fascia

181
Q

indication of thoracic inlet/sibson’s fascia myofascial release

A

reduce tension, incresae venous and lymph drain to decrease local/distal swell, improve overall immune & circulation to area

182
Q

indication of suboccipital tension release

A

reduce tension of suboccipital triangle, vascular headache, prep for cervical correction

183
Q

indication of cervical soft tissue

A

reduce muscle hypertonicity, tension, soasm, streth and increas elasticity to improvr ROM, reduce patient guarding

184
Q

indication of stretching cervical technique

A

stretch myofascial of cervical and upper thoracic, promote venous and lymph drainage

185
Q

Type I mechanics

A

neutral
sidebend and rotation opposite direction
only thoracic or lumbar spine

186
Q

Type II mechanics

A

extended or flexed
sidebend and rotation same direction
Only thoracic or lumbar spine

187
Q

appearance of 5 densities on radiography

A

metal - whitest
calcium - white, appear in bones mostly
soft tissue/fluid - denser it is = greyer, less dense = blacker
fat - lighter shade of grey
air - appears blackest

188
Q

pannicular fascia

A

loose & dense irregular
variable fat

189
Q

axial & appendicular fascia

A

muscles & torso, fibers run direction of muscle

190
Q

meningeal fascia

A

dural & other CNS membranesv

191
Q

visceral fascia

A

mediastinum, around organs

192
Q

subserous fascia

A

loose, elastic tissue
organ covering

193
Q

elasticity of fascia

A

elastic deformation
recoverable deformation

194
Q

plasticity of fascia

A

plastic deformation
nonrecoverable deformation

195
Q

viscosity

A

measure of rate of determination of material under load & capability of yielding under stress

196
Q

stress

A

effect of force over area

197
Q

strain

A

change in shape as result of sstressc

198
Q

creep

A

continue deformatoin of viscoeleastic material under constant load (relate to viscosity)

199
Q

Hooke Law

A

applied stretch or compression to tissue result in proportional change in length

200
Q

Wolff Law

A

form follow function

201
Q

direct fascial release

A

engage and move towards restrictive barrier

202
Q

indirect fasciall release

A

move away from restrictive barrier

203
Q

TART

A

tenderness, asymmetry, ROM, texture

204
Q

isolytic contraction

A

external forces overcome muscle contraction (muscle lengthens)

205
Q

isotonic contraction

A

tone stays same, length changes

206
Q

Isometric contraction

A

force can vary but muscle length stays samae

207
Q

muscle spindle OMT

A

reduce firing of muscle proprioceptors to decrease hypertonicity

208
Q

golgi tenson OMT

A

activate golgi tendon organ to produce muscle relaxation

209
Q

oculocephalic refelex

A

cause reflex muscle contraction use eye motion to affect cervical muscle

210
Q

Sherrington law

A

muscle receive nerve impulse to contract, antagonist receive impulse to relax

211
Q

Crossed extensor reflex

A

flexor muscle in non-treatment extremity contracts
opposite extremity flexor relaxes by involuntary contraction

212
Q

muscle energy principles of treatment

A

1 - postition part into restrictive barrier
2 - direct patient to contract correct muscle
3- phyisican apply counterforce equal to contraction, maintain force until appropriate contraction
4 - patient relax & physician match
5 - take up slack (move more restrictive)
6 - repeat steps untill restrictive barrier removed
7 - last contraction by patient takes patient into barrier on last time and go to neutral
8 - reevaluate original dysfunction

213
Q

clinical indicatuion of HbH disease

A

low Hb, decrease MCV, decrease MCH, decrease MCHC
microcytic anemia (jaundice, palpaple spleen)
suggested by low HbA2

214
Q

clinical indication og HbS

A

anemia after exercise

215
Q

iron deficiency anemia clinical signs

A

low ferritin
history of bleed/malnutriton

216
Q

B Thalassemia major clinical sign

A

increased HbA2

217
Q

test for differentiating hemoglobinopathies

A

pH rate of travel towards electrode
in alkaline - HbS more slow that HbA
in acidic - HbS faster

218
Q

lower than normal activity of Lysl oxidase

A

Menkes disease
due to deficiency in copper

219
Q

lower than noirmal cleavage of procollagen due to

A

decreased Nprocollagen peptidase

220
Q

lower enzyme activity of what that is related to cleaveage of procollagen

A

C procollagen peptidase

221
Q

scurvy due to what enzyme’s decreased activity?

A

lysyl hydroxylase

222
Q

Effect of ATP inhibiting enzyme (noncompetitive) on michaelis menten graph

A

hyperbolic graph decreased Vmax

223
Q

last layer of tissue needle passes during spinal tap

A

arachnoid
CSF is in the subarachnoid space

224
Q

safest location/direction for epidural

A

After L2, around L3 in epidural space from dorsal surface travelling ventrally
can also be done in sacral hiatus

225
Q

bacteria in posterior venous plexus travels to what if spinal stenosis

A

epidural space with internal venous plexus

226
Q

central herrniation of cervical vertebrsae mechanism

A

compress both ventral roots, weakness bilateral arm, normal sensory

227
Q

functional consequence damage SC at S2-S4

A

impair parasympathetic innervation

228
Q

functional consequence damage SC L2-S2

A

weakness & sensory loss lower limb

229
Q

functional consequence damage SC C5-T1

A

weakness & sensorly loss upper limb

230
Q

functional consequence damage SC C2-C4

A

weakness of neck muscle & sensory loss in neck dermatomes

231
Q

functional consequence damage SC T1-L2

A

impaired sympathetic innervation

B2 Clinical Application (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions