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Immunology > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are cytokines

A

molecules involved in cell signaling that bind to specific cell surface receptors, mediating a downstream effect

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2
Q

what are 4 examples of cytokines

A

interleukins
interferons
colony stimulating factors
tumor necrosis factor

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3
Q

what cells are included in the myeloid lineage

A

granulocytes
monocytes

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4
Q

what cells are included in the lymphoid lineage

A

agranulocytes
NK cells

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5
Q

what cells are granulocytes

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

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6
Q

what are CD markers

A

antibody tags to tag specific types of cells

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7
Q

what is flow cytometry used for

A

to phenotype individual cells

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8
Q

in flow cytometry, what does forward scatter look at

A

how big the cell is

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9
Q

in flow cytometry, what does side scatter look at

A

degree of granulation

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10
Q

MHC is represented as an __

A

ID badge

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11
Q

what type of innate immune cells also act as antigen presenting cells

A

macrophages
dendritic cells

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12
Q

what are naive lymphocytes

A

lymphocytes before they encounter and respond to an antigen

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13
Q

MHC class I pathway is restricted to __ T cells (CD__ cells)

A

killer
CD8

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14
Q

MHC class II pathway is restricted to __ T cells (CD__ cells)

A

helper
CD4

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15
Q

what 2 cell types are phagocytes

A

neutrophils
macrophages (monocytes in blood)

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16
Q

do phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages) function as part of the innate or adaptive immune system

A

innate

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17
Q

phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages) are important in what bodily response

A

inflammation

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18
Q

what cell is the first line of defense against microorganisms

A

neutrophils

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19
Q

are neutrophils more mobile or stationary

A

mobile

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20
Q

what is the main mechanism of bacterial destruction

A

oxidative burst (toxic oxygen derived products)

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21
Q

what is oxidative burst

A

rapid release of superoxide and H2O2

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22
Q

what are the 3 enzymes involved in oxidative burst

A

NADH oxidase
superoxidase dismutase
myeloperoxidase

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23
Q

what does NADPH oxidase do in oxidative burst

A

NADPH–>NADP+H+

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24
Q

what does superoxide dismutase do in oxidative burst

A

superoxide–>H2O2

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25
Q

what does myeloperoxidase do in oxidative burst

A

H2O2–>HOCl (hypochlorate ions+hydroxyl radicals)

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26
Q

what are neutrophil extracellular traps (NETS)

A

if a bacteria/virus is too big to handle, neutrophils release nucleus contents
can be used to attach bacteria which are included in a biofilm due to increase size to destroy

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27
Q

how does classical activation of macrophages (M1 macrophages) work

A

ingestion of apoptotic cells
secretion of cytokines to amplify protective response against microbes
act as antigen presenting cells

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28
Q

how does alternative activation of macrophages (M2 macrophages) work

A

help to repair damaged tissues

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29
Q

which phagocytes, neutrophils or macrophages, active the nitric oxide system

A

macrophages

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30
Q

which phagocytes, neutrophils or macrophages, release cytokines

A

macrophages

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31
Q

on an NBT reduction test, a purple or pink color means oxidative burst is working

A

purple

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32
Q

are mast cells part of innate or adaptive immunity

A

innate

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33
Q

what is the function of mast cells

A

release inflammatory mediators

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34
Q

what 2 main inflammatory mediators are released by mast cells

A

histamine
tryptase

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35
Q

what receptors do mast cells have

A

IgE

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36
Q

what is the function of eosinophils

A

release of major basic proteins by binding to antibody tagged parasites

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37
Q

when are mast cells increased

A

parasitic infection
allergic response
allergy
aromatic poisoning

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38
Q

what is the main function of dendritic cells

A

antigen presenting cells

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39
Q

what are the main cells that lead the transition from innate to adaptive immune response

A

dendritic cells

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40
Q

what type of cells can B cells differentiate into

A

plasma

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41
Q

what is the purpose of B cells differentiating into plasma cells

A

plasma cells secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins)

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42
Q

B cells can either be __ or __

A

naive
memory

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43
Q

T cells can either be __, __, or __

A

naive, effector, memory

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44
Q

what is the function of B lymphocytes

A

antibody production

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45
Q

for antibody production, B cells often need help from what other cells

A

T cells

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46
Q

T lymphocytes can either be killer, helper, or __

A

regulator

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47
Q

what is the function of innate lymphoid cells

A

start immune response
secrete cytokines

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48
Q

where are innate lymphoid cells found

A

within tissues (especially mucosal tissues)

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49
Q

what is the function of NK cells

A

recognize and kill infected cells

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50
Q

what are the 3 main functions of innate immunuty

A

inflammation
anti-viral response
eliminate damaged tissue/initiate tissue repair

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51
Q

what are the 3 main physical defenses to microbes

A

epithelial barrier
cilia
mucous

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52
Q

what is the complement system

A

an interaction between plasma and surface proteins in defense against pathogens

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53
Q

what are the 3 main functions of complement

A

opsonization
recruitment of phagocytes (especially neutrophils)
kill microbes

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54
Q

how does an “a” subunit differ from a “b” subunit in complement

A

“a” floates Away
“b” stays Bound

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55
Q

what is opsonization

A

coating the surface of a molecule so they can be more easily picked up by phagocytes

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56
Q

what complement proteins form the membrane attack complex

A

C5b
C6
C7
C8
C9

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57
Q

what is the purpose of the membrane attack complex

A

create a hole in the bacterial cell membrane

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58
Q

what complement proteins are the main mediators of inflammation (anaphylatoxins)

A

C3a
C5a

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59
Q

what is the main complement protein of opsonization

A

C3b

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60
Q

what is the main complement protein for phagocytosis/clearance

A

C3b

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61
Q

what is the main complement protein for B-lymphocyte activation

A

C3d

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62
Q

what antibody binding activates the classical complement pathway
which one does more

A

IgG and IgM
IgM

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63
Q

how does C1 inhibitor (C1 INH) regulate the classical and lectin pathway activation

A

prevents accumulation of C1r2s2 to prevent complement from becoming overactive

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64
Q

what condition is the result of lack of C1 inhibitor for regulation of complement

A

hereditary angioedema
overactive complement

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65
Q

what complement pathway runs continuously and spontaneously at low levels in blood plasma

A

alternative

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66
Q

what 2 regulatory proteins of complement prevent complement from attacking out cells

A

Factor I
Factor H

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67
Q

what 3 regulatory proteins on mammalian cells prevent complement from attacking our cells

A

membrane cofactor protein (MCP/CD46)
complement receptor 1 (CR1)- promotes C3b and C4b decay
decay accelerating factor (DAF)

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68
Q

how does Factor I work in complement

A

it, along with MCP and CR1, degrade C3b and C4b

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69
Q

how does Factor H work in complement

A

it removes Bb from C3 convertase in alternative pathway

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70
Q

how does decay accelerating factor work in complement

A

it accelerates the decay of C3 and C5 convertase

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71
Q

what does deficiency in decay accelerating factor (DAF) lead to

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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72
Q

what is required for membrane attack complexes

A

an accessible plasma membrane on the target cell

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73
Q

what microbes are resistant to membrane attack complexes

A

encapsulated bacteria
gram + and acid fast bacteria
nonenveloped viruses

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74
Q

what 2 things inhibits membrane attack complex

A

CD59 (prevents formation)
S protein (prevents insertion in plasma membrane)

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75
Q

if mammalian cells don’t have CD59 for membrane attack complex inhibition, what is the result

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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76
Q

how does CR1 (complex receptor 1) work

A

stimulates phagocytosis

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77
Q

what part of complement is CR1 specific for

A

C3b
C4b

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78
Q

how does CR2 (CD21) work

A

it’s part of B cell coreceptor and a receptor for Epstein Barr virus

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79
Q

what 2 systems are used for recognition of problem in innate immune response

A

PAMPs
DAMPs

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80
Q

what do NOD-like receptors bind to

A

viral RNA

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81
Q

what do RIG -like receptors bind to

A

bacterial peptidoglycan

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82
Q

what do cytosolic DNA sensors detect

A

DNA in cytosol
*DNA should not be in cytosol

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83
Q

what does TLR1:TLR2 recognize

A

bacterial lipopeptides

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84
Q

what does TLR2 recognize

A

bacterial peptidoglycan

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85
Q

what does TLR4 recognize

A

LPS (lipid A) of gram - bacteria

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86
Q

what does TLR5 recognize

A

bacterial flagellin

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87
Q

what does TLR2:TLR6 recognize

A

bacterial lipopeptides

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88
Q

what TLRs (Toll-like receptors) are found in an endosome

A

TLR3, 7, 8, and 9

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89
Q

what does TLR3 recognize

A

dsRNA

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90
Q

what does TLR7 and TLR8 recognize

A

ssRNA

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91
Q

what does TLR9 recognize

A

CpG DNA

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92
Q

what transcription factor is associated with release of proinflammatory cytokines, stimulating adaptive immune response

A

NF-kB

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93
Q

what transcription factor is associated with release of type 1 interferons, leading to an anti-viral response

A

IRF7 and IRF3

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94
Q

deficiency in UNC93B leads to susceptibility to ___

A

viral infections

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95
Q

what are interferons a class of

A

cytokines

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96
Q

what are the 2 main function of interferons

A

induce production of antiviral proteins
induce production of double stranded activated inhibitor of translation which induces the antiviral state in neighboring cells

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97
Q

the antiviral response leads to secretion of what type interferons

A

1

98
Q

what are the 2 type 1 interferons released during an antiviral response

A

IFN alpha and beta

99
Q

once there is increased MHC class 1 expression and antigen presenting in all cells, what cells are activated (in the correct order)

A

dendritic cells and macrophages then NK cells

100
Q

cytosolic DNA sensors for PAMPs and DAMPs recognize what and activate what

A

recognize dsRNA
IFR pathway

101
Q

what are the 3 types of cytosolic receptors for PAMPs and DAMPs

A

cytosolic DNA sensors
NOD-like receptors
RIG-like receptors

102
Q

what do RIG-like receptors recognize

A

dsRNA and DNA-RNA combinations

103
Q

what makes up an inflammasome

A

sensor protein+adaptor protein+caspase1

104
Q

caspase 1 cleaves __ in an inflammasome

A

IL-1beta inflammatory cytokine to become active

105
Q

what are 4 main categories of signaling in the immune system

A

non-receptor tyrosine kinase based receptor
tyrosine kinase receptor
nuclear hormone
G-protein coupled receptor

106
Q

which of the 4 main categories of signaling in the immune system causes a change in shape

A

G-protein coupled receptor

107
Q

JAK/STAT, which is used as a __ receptor, is a signal transducing activator of ___

A

cytokine
transcription

108
Q

how is cytokine signaling mediated by JAK/STAT

A

every receptor uses a different JAK/STAT complex

109
Q

the activation of endothelial cells causes cells to move from __ to __ for an immune response

A

blood to tissues

110
Q

what causes leukocytes to roll and bind weakly on endothelium to activate endothelial cells for an immune response

A

selectin binding

111
Q

what causes leukocytes to stick on endothelium to activate endothelial cells for an immune response

A

integrins

112
Q

what type of receptors are chemokines

A

G-protein coupled receptor

113
Q

signaling through chemokine receptors induce expression of what

A

integrins

114
Q

what are 3 forms of protective immunity against infections located in interstitial spaces, blood, or lymph

A

complement
phagocytosis
antibodies

115
Q

what are 2 forms of protective immunity against infections located on endothelial surfaces

A

antimicrobial peptides (especially in mucous)
antibodies (especially IgA)

116
Q

what are 2 forms of protective immunity against cytoplasmic intracellular infections

A

NK cells
cytotoxic T cells
*antiviral response

117
Q

what is a form of protective immunity against vesicular intracellular infections

A

T cell and NK cell dependent macrophage activation

118
Q

innate immunity occurs between __ and __ hours

A

0-4

119
Q

adaptive immune response occurs after __ hours

A

96

120
Q

what do defensins do

A

disrupt microbial cell membranes

121
Q

what do cathelicidins bind

A

LPS

122
Q

what are the 5 signs/symptoms of inflammation

A

redness
heat
swelling
pain
loss of function

123
Q

what is the immediate reaction of inflammation (before the inflammation process of vasodilation begins)

A

vasoconstriction

124
Q

what are the phases of inflammation

A
  1. stimulus
  2. vasoconstriction, mast cell activation
  3. vasodilation (redness), endothelial cell contraction (leaky blood vessels), transudate release
  4. diapedesis of erythrocytes (increased sedimentation rate of RBC), rouleaux (stacking) of RBC
  5. emigration of lymphocytes (especially M2 macrophages)
  6. resolution (fibrin deposition)
  7. healing
125
Q

what 4 things are released by mast cells during an inflammatory response

A

histamine (increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, pain)
platelet activating factor (recruitment of neutrophils)
prostaglandins (edema)
leukotrienes (chemotaxis to bring in leukocytes)

126
Q

what enzyme is involved in mast cells chewing their own membrane lipoproteins, causing membrane blebbing and release of components during an inflammatory response, activating the arachidonic acid pathway

A

phospholipase

127
Q

what are 2 functions of circulating platelets during inflammation

A

produce CXCL8 to help move neutrophils from blood to tissues
produce oxygen radicals

128
Q

what starts the classical pathway of complement

A

C1 binds to antibody-antigen complex on surface of pathogen

129
Q

what does C1 cleave in classical pathway of complement

A

C4 into C4a and C4b
C2 into C2a and C2b

130
Q

what forms C3 convertase in classical and lectin binding complement

A

C4b2b

131
Q

what does C3 convertase cleave in complement

A

C3

132
Q

what are the 2 main complement components of inflammation

A

C3a
C5a

133
Q

what is the main complement component of opsonization

A

C3b

134
Q

what starts the lectin binding pathway of complement

A

mannose binding lectin protein complexes with mannose on surface of pathogen

135
Q

what does MBLP cleave in lectin binding pathway of complement

A

C4
C2

136
Q

what is C5 convertase in classical and lectin binding complement pathway

A

C4b2b3b

137
Q

what forms C3 convertase in alternative complement pathway

A

C3bBb

138
Q

what forms C5 convertase in alternative complement pathway

A

C3 convertase+C3b

139
Q

what cleaves Factor B into Ba and Bb in alternative complement pathway

A

Factor D

140
Q

what causes the initiation of late steps of complement

A

C5 convertase cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b

141
Q

what starts the alternative pathway of complement

A

C3 is cleaved through hydrolysis into C3a and C3b

142
Q

what are the 4 steps involved in neutrophils beginning rolling to migration

A

rolling
tight binding
diapedesis
migration

143
Q

what is involved in the rolling stage of neutrophil movement during an inflammatory response

A

selectins expressed on endothelial cells weakly bind to carbohydrates on neutrophils

144
Q

what is involved in the tight binding stage of neutrophil movement during an inflammatory response

A

LFA-1 integrin on neutrophil and ICAM-1 on endothelial cell create a stronger interaction due to LFA-1 confirmational change induced by IL-1 which is secreted by inflamed tissues

145
Q

what 2 things allows diapedesis of neutrophils to occur during an inflammatory response

A

CD31
CXCL8 gradient produced by platelets

146
Q

if there is low LFA, what happens to blood neutrophil count? why

A

increases
LFA is needed for neutrophils to go from blood to tissues

147
Q

what type of inheritance is leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

autosomal recessive

148
Q

what causes leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

leukocyte interaction with vascular endothelium is disrupted

149
Q

what are the effects of leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

recurrent bacterial infection
increased blood WBC count
no pus during wound healing (neutrophils don’t get to tissue)
delayed umbilical cord separation

150
Q

what are 3 proinflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1beta, IL-6, TNFalpha

151
Q

what cytokines secreted by macrophages produce fever

A

IL-6, TNFalpha, IL-1beta

152
Q

what cytokine secreted by macrophages leads to mobilization of metabolites which act on bone marrow

A

TNFalpha

153
Q

what cytokine secreted by macrophages leads to local tissue destruction

A

IL-1beta

154
Q

what effect does cytokine release from macrophages have on the liver

A

release of acute phase proteins

155
Q

what are the 5 acute phase proteins secreted by the liver following cytokine release from macrophages

A

C-reactive protein
serum amyloid A
fibrinogen
mannose binding protein
complement components

156
Q

CD__= hematopoietic stem cell

A

34

157
Q

what 3 factors are involved in CD34+ to myeloid lineage

A

IL-3
stem cell factor
thymopoietin

158
Q

what factor is involved with myeloid lineage to neutrophils

A

G-CSF (granulocyte colony stimulating factor)

159
Q

what factor is involved with myeloid lineage to monocytes

A

M-CSF (monocyte colony stimulating factor)

160
Q

what factor is involved in CD34+ to lymphoid lineage

A

IL-7

161
Q

what 2 factors are involved in lymphoid lineage to T cells

A

IL-2
IL-7

162
Q

what 2 factors are involved in lymphoid lineage to NK cells

A

IL-7
IL-15

163
Q

what factor is involved in lymphoid lineage to B cells

A

IL-4

164
Q

what are the 2 antiviral cytokines released

A

IFNalpha
IFNbeta

165
Q

what are the 3 anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1beta
IL-6
TNFalpha

166
Q

what are the 2 regulatory/M2 cytokines

A

IL-10
TGFbeta

167
Q

what is an additional cytokine released by M1 macrophages

A

IL-12

168
Q

what cytokine does Th1 release

A

IFNgamma

169
Q

JAK/STAT mediates what molecule signaling

A

cytokines

170
Q

what occurs with interferon gamma receptor deficiency

A

macrophages are present but not killing because they can’t interact with T cells

171
Q

what interferon maintains granulomas

A

IFNgamma

172
Q

what is the difference between T cells and B cells in regards to antibody recognition

A

T cells recognize MHC
B cells can recognize antibody floating around

173
Q

what are the characteristics of high immunogenicity

A

foreign proteins of large size

174
Q

immunogen proteins that are too small may require ___ to increase size

A

a carrier

175
Q

foreign proteins and glycoproteins induce T dependent or independent humoral immunity with class switching

A

dependent

176
Q

polysaccharides induce T dependent or independent humoral immunity with class switching

A

independent

177
Q

what antibodies are involved in class switching

A

IgM—>IgA, IgG, IgE

178
Q

what is the purpose of adjuvants in an immune response

A

they tell the immunes system to pay attention
increases inflammation

179
Q

what is an epitope on an antigen

A

the region on the antigen that binds the antibody

180
Q

what are the 2 different possible forms of epitope shape

A

linear or conformational

181
Q

what is a disadvantage of a confirmational epitope

A

if it is denatured, the antigen antibody binding ability wont be maintained

182
Q

what is the receptor for B cells vs T cells

A

B= membrane bound Ig
T= T cell receptor

183
Q

do T cells or B cells bind soluble antigens (free floating antigens)

A

B

184
Q

antigens of B cells are either protein, polysaccharides, lipids, or nucleic acids, while antigens for T cells are only ___

A

proteins

185
Q

B cell epitopes are either linear or confirmational epitopes, which are T cell epitopes

A

linear

186
Q

is binding of an antibody to antigen covalent or noncovalent

A

noncovalent

187
Q

what is the difference between the Fab and Fc region of an antibody

A

Fab- antigen binding region
Fc- bottom part of antibody

188
Q

Ig light chains can either be __ or __ chains

A

kappa
lamba

189
Q

what are the 5 classes of antibody heavy chains

A

IgA
IgE
IgM
IgG
IgD

190
Q

what domain of the antibody, variable or constant, bind the antigen

A

variable

191
Q

are hypervariable regions found in antibody light chain or heavy chains

A

both

192
Q

how many hypervariable regions are found in hypervariable heavy and light chains

A

3 on heavy, 3 on light

193
Q

what is the function of Ig hinge regions

A

allow flexibility

194
Q

Ig hinge regions are high in what 2 amino acids

A

cysteine
proline

195
Q

why is complement pathway only activated by IgM and IgG

A

they have a C1q binding site needed for the initiation of complement

196
Q

what portion of antibodies allows for interaction of immune complexes with other cells and innate with adaptive immunity

A

Fc

197
Q

what are the 4 ways of immunoglobulin expression

A

circulating
transmembrane
secreted
cell bound (signal through receptor)

198
Q

coding and using a different heavy chain is termed what

A

class switching

199
Q

what are Ig allotypes

A

variants of Ig constant region due to amino acid differences

200
Q

what CD is associated with stem cells

A

34

201
Q

what CD is associated with NK cells

A

56

202
Q

what CD is associated with T cells

A

3

203
Q

what CD is associated with helper T cells

A

4

204
Q

what CD is associated with killer T cells

A

8

205
Q

what CD is associated with B cells

A

19/20

206
Q

what does CD59 cause

A

the breakup of MAC

207
Q

what does CD46 cause

A

break up of C3 convertase

208
Q

what 2 things does CD21 do

A

bind to C3d
act as a receptor for Epstein Barr virus

209
Q

what are antibody idiotypes

A

unique shape of an antibody variable region

210
Q

what 2 antibody classes have a J chain

A

IgM
IgA

211
Q

what antibody is most common in serum

A

IgG

212
Q

what antibody can cross the placenta

A

IgG

213
Q

what does IgG provide protection against

A

blood borne pathogens

214
Q

what allow for the long half life of IgG

A

IgG recycling

215
Q

what is IgG recycling

A

FcRn (neonate) binds to IgG in an acidic endosome
endosome is recycled and IgG is released back into blood

216
Q

what differs in the 4 subclasses of IgG

A

number and arrangement of disulfide bonds

217
Q

which IgG subclass is best at activating complement

A

IgG3

218
Q

which IgG subclass is the most common

A

IgG1

219
Q

which IgG subclasses are best at opsonization

A

IgG1
IgG3

220
Q

when is IgG4 increased

A

allergy and anti-inflammatory reactions

221
Q

which antibody can perform agglutination and precipitation

A

IgG

222
Q

what is antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

A

antibody binding to cell leads to opsonization for killing rather than phagocytosis
performed mostly by IgG

223
Q

what is hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

mother makes antibodies against baby’s RBC= opsonization of baby Rh+ RBC for phagocytosis by it’s liver cells

224
Q

what is IvIg

A

purified, polyclonal Ig pooled from plasma of many donors, used in those with autoimmunity

225
Q

what is the difference between what the affinity constant and dissociation constant of an antibody tells us

A

affinity constant- how fast antibody can bind
dissociation constant- how long antibody can bind for

226
Q

a low or high dissociation constant makes for a better antibody

A

low

227
Q

what does it mean to say IgA has a high avidity for antigen

A

it can still stay bound even though there may be lower affinity due to increase in binding sites

228
Q

what antibody is reactive to ABO blood groups

A

IgM

229
Q

what antibody is the most efficient for complement activation

A

IgM

230
Q

what is the first antibody to respond

A

IgM

231
Q

where is the main location of IgA

A

mucosal surfaces

232
Q

what antibody is the most effective viral aglutinator

A

IgA

233
Q

what antibody can be transferred through breast milk

A

IgA

234
Q

what allows for IgA and IgM protection against digestive enzymes

A

secretory component due to J chain

235
Q

what antibody is not found in serum

A

IgD

236
Q

what is the main function of IgD

A

initial antibody triggering of B cells while bound to the membrane on B cell surface (B cell development)

237
Q

what 2 antibodies are found on the surface of mature B cells

A

IgD
IgM

238
Q

what antibody response to allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

IgE

239
Q

what is multiple myeloma

A

malignant plasma tumor producing monoclonal antibodies

240
Q

what is the function of phage display

A

a gene encoding a protein of interest is inserted into a phage coat protein gene, causing the phage to display the protein on the outside. And containing the gene for the protein inside, resulting in a connection between genotype and phenotype.

These displaying phages can be screened for other proteins, peptides or DNA sequences, in order to detect interaction between the displayed protein and those other molecules

241
Q

what are the 2 types of antibody light chains

A

kappa (60%)
lambda (40%)

Immunology (4 decks)

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