Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AQA A-Level Psychology > Biopsychology (AO1 only) > Flashcards

Biopsychology (AO1 only) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Describe the divisions of the human nervous system.

A

Human nervous system —> Central Nervous system (CNS) & Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
CNS —> Brain & Spinal cord
PNS —> Somatic & Autonomic (ANS)
ANS —> Sympathetic & Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

State the two main functions of the CNS

A

The control of behaviour and the regulation of the body’s physiological processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

State the main function of the spinal cord

A

To relay information between the brain and the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State the four main areas of the brain

A

1) Cerebrum (cerebral cortex is the outer layer of this)
2) Cerebellum
3) Diencephalon (thalamus & hypothalamus)
4) Brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebrum?

A

1) Frontal lobe
2) Occipital lobe
3) Parietal lobe
4) Temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the frontal lobe of the cerebrum do?

A

Thought and the production of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the occipital lobe of the cerebrum do?

A

Processing of visual images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Motor skills, balance & muscle co-ordinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two main structures in the diencephalon?

A

The thalamus and the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the thalamus do?

A

Relay station for nerve impulses coming from the senses, routing them to the appropriate part of the brain where they can be processed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A

1) Regulation of body temperature, hunger and thirst
2) Acts as the link between the endocrine system and the nervous system, controlling the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the brain stem do?

A

Regulation of automatic functions e.g. breathing, heartbeat and swallowing.
Motor and sensory neurons travel through the brain stem, allowing impulses to pass between the brain and the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the somatic nervous system (SNS)

A

The part of the PNS responsible for carrying sensory and motor information to and from the central nervous system
Also involved in reflex actions with the involvement of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the ANS

A

Governs the brain’s involuntary activities (e.g. stress, heartbeat) and is self-regulating (i.e. autonomous)
it is divided into the sympathetic branch (fight or flight) and parasympathetic branch (rest and digest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which neurotransmitter does the sympathetic division of the ANS mainly use?

A

Noradrenaline - it has stimulating effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What neurotransmitter does the parasympathetic division of the ANS mainly use?

A

Acetylcholine - it has inhibiting effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the sympathetic division of the ANS

A

It is primarily involved in responses that help us to deal with emergencies such as fight or flight.

It slows down bodily processes that are less important in emergencies, such as digestion and urination - does the opposite of the parasympathetic branch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the main points of the parasympathetic branch of the ANS

A

It relaxes the body once an emergency has passed. It slows heartbeat down and reduces blood pressure.

Basically does the opposite to the sympathetic branch of the ANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What structure joins the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

The corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the parietal lobe do?

A

Processing of sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

State the two types of ridges in the brain

A 
Gyrus = Top
Sulki = Bottom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is extreme cortical folding important?

A

It allows a large sa:vol ratio to allow for better processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe/draw the main structures of a neuron

A

Dendrites = At the end of the neurone
Cell body = Like the cytoplasm of the main end
Soma = The nucleus of the neuron
Myelin sheath = A fatty insulating layer that surrounds the axon
Nodes of ranvier = Gaps in between the myelin sheaths
Axon = the long bit where action potentials travel
Schwann cell = Wrap around the axon, producing the myelin sheath
Axon terminal = The other end of the neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

State the three types of neurone

A

1) Sensory
2) Motor
3) Relay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does the myelin sheath speed up impulses?

A

The action potential jumps from each node of ranvier to node of ranvier. This is called ‘saltatory conduction’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe a synapse

A

Presynaptic neurone and post synaptic neurone
Synaptic vesicles found in presynaptic terminal button
Synaptic gap/cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acetylcholine and noradrenaline are known as excitatory or inhibitory in their actions?

A

Excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neurotransmitters such as serotonin and GABA are known as…

A

Inhibitory neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do inhibitory neurotransmitters do?

What do excitatory neurotransmitters do?

A

Inhibitory = Decrease the likelihood of that neurotransmitter firing. Generally responsible for calming the mind and body, inducing sleep, and filtering out unnecessary exhibitory signals.

Exhibitory = Increase the likelihood of that neurotransmitter firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do EPSP and IPSP mean?

A 
EPSP = Excitatory post-synaptic potential
IPSP = Inhibitory post-synaptic potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do EPSP’s and IPSP’s occur?

A

An excitatory neurotransmitter binding with a post-synaptic receptor causes an electrical change in the membrane of that cell, resulting in an EPSP, meaning the post-synaptic cell is more likely to fire.

An inhibitory neurotransmitter binding with a post-synaptic receptor result in an IPSP, making it less likely the cell is to fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The likelihood of a cell firing is determined by…

A

The summation of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two ways the strength of an EPSP can be increased?

A

1) Spatial summation

2) Temporal summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe spatial summation

A

A large number of EPSP’s are generated at many different synapses on the same post-synaptic neurone at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe temporal summation

A

A large number of EPSP’s are generated at the same synapse by a series of high-frequency action potentials on the pre-synaptic neurone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define ‘target cell’

A

Cells with receptors that ‘unlock’ with a certain hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the effects of too much cortisol?

A

Too much cortisol can a to high blood pressure and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which gland is called the ‘master gland’ and why?

A

The pituitary - because it controls many other endocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Pituitary gland is split into two parts, what are these called?

A

The anterior and posterior lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland release and what do these hormones do?

A

ACTH = Response to stress, stimulates adrenal cortex

LH and FSH = The menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete and what do these hormones do?

A

Oxytocin = Comfort & happiness.
ADH = Important in water regulation (osmoregulation)
Also stimulates uterus contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two parts of the adrenal gland called?

A

1) The adrenal cortex

2) The adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is adrenaline important for?

A

The ‘fight or flight’ response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do the ovaries secrete?

A

Progesterone and oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What do the testes produce?

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the HPA axis?

A

Describes the sequence of bodily activity in response to stress that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal cortex

47
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic stressors?

A

Acute stressors = sudden, like a personal attack

Chronic stressors = ongoing, like a stressful job

48
Q

Outline the difference between stress and stressors

A

Stress = A physical or psychological response to a stressor.

Stressors = internal or external factors that bring on stress. They can be acute (short-term) or chronic (ongoing)

49
Q

Explain the body’s response to short-term, acute stressors.

A

SNS is triggered –> sends a signal to the adrenal medulla –> responds by secreting adrenaline into the bloodstream.

50
Q

Explain the body’s response to adrenaline

A

1) Heart beats faster - blood pressure increases
2) Breathing becomes more rapid to take in more oxygen
3) Blood-glucose levels rise

51
Q

Explain what the PNS does after the threat has passed?

A

When the threat has passed, the ANS dampens down the stress response. It slows down the heartbeat and reduces blood pressure. Digestion (inhibited when the SNS is aroused) begins again

52
Q

State the acronym for the body’s response to acute stressors

A 
Hypothalamus stimulates (ANS) Adrenal medulla which releases Adrenaline
Acute = HANSAMA
53
Q

Explain the body’s response to long-term, chronic stressors.

A

If the brain continues to perceive something as threatening, the second system kicks in. As the initial surge of adrenaline subsides, the hypothalamus activates a stress response system called the HPA axis. This consists of the hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal glands

54
Q

Describe the HPA axis

A

H = Hypothalamus releases CRH into the blood
P = CRH causes the
anterior pituitary gland to produce the hormone ACTH
A = ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release various stress-related hormones, including cortisol
Chronic = HPACC

55
Q

State the definition of localisation of function

A

The theory that different areas of the brain are responsible for different behaviours, processes and activities

56
Q

Who was Franz Gall and what did he do?

A

He pioneered the concept of localised functions by introducing the idea of ‘phrenology’ - a process that involves observing and/or feeling the skull to determine an individuals psychological attributes.

57
Q

What are the four cortex’s of the brain?

A

1) Motor cortex
2) Somatosensory cortex
3) (Primary) Visual cortex
4) Auditory cortex

58
Q

Describe the motor cortex

A

Controls voluntary movement on the opposite side of the body
At the back (posterior) of the frontal lobe in both hemispheres
has specialised areas which control different parts, e.g. fingers or toes

59
Q

Describe the somatosensory cortex

A

Lies at the front of both parietal lobes separated from the motor cortex by the central sulcus (the deep groove that separates the frontal and parietal lobes

Where sensory information from skin is processed, more sensitive areas e.g. fingers have more devoted to it.

Left hemisphere processes right body and vice versa.

60
Q

Describe the (primary) visual cortex

A

Found in the occipital lobe
Processing begins in the retina, where light hits photo-receptors at the back of the eyes. The optic nerve transmits the impulse to the thalamus which relays it to the visual cortex for processing

61
Q

Describe the auditory cortex

A

Found at the top of the temporal lobe. Processing begins in the inner ear, where sound waves are converted to impulses. The auditory nerve sends the impulse to the auditory cortex (bilaterally) via the brain stem & thalamus

62
Q

Broca’s area =

Wernicke’s area =

A

Broca’s area = speech production

Wernicke’s area = speech comprehension

63
Q

What did ‘Tan’ have problems with?

A

Producing spoken and written language, he was only able to say ‘Tan’.

64
Q

What is damage to Broca’s and Wernicke’s area’s called respectively?

A

Broca’s aphasia & Wernicke’s aphasia

65
Q

What is the technical term for nonsense words?

A

Neologisms

66
Q

Where is Broca and Wernicke’s areas located?

A

Broca’s area = Left frontal lobe

Wernicke’s area = Left temporal lobe

67
Q

Describe what happened to Phineas Gage - a case study

A

1) He was a tamper during the construction of the US railroads
2) A tamping rod shot through his skull but he survived
3) People said “he was no-longer Gage”
4) The first case that suggested the brain plays an important role in a person’s disposition
5) Possible explanation = damage to his frontal lobes impacted on his ability to inhibit emotions & inappropriate impulses

68
Q

What is the holistic theory of the brain?

A

All parts of the brain were involved in the processing of all thought and action

69
Q

Broca and Wernicke argued for the idea of…

It follows the idea that if one part of the brain becomes damaged…

A

…Cortical specialisation (localisation of function)

…the function associated with that area will be affected only.

70
Q

What is the neural loop running between Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas called?

A

The ‘arcuate fasciculus’

71
Q

Give 1 pro and 2 cons of case-studies in terms of Phineas Gage

A

PRO’s = 1) Studying a patient like Gage in detail is a unique opportunity. One can investigate a rare case which couldn’t be done otherwise for ethical reasons.
CON’s = 1) Can’t generalise his damage to damage to other frontal lobe damage patients, let alone the population (beta bias)
2) Data was gathered retrospectively, he could have had some brain abnormality before the incident

72
Q

Define lateralisation

A

The ideas that the two halves of the brain are functionally different - that each hemisphere has functional specialisations

73
Q

The left hemisphere is dominant at …

The right hemisphere is dominant at…

A 
LH = Dominant at language & speech
RH = Excels at visual-motor tasks
74
Q

How are the two hemisphere’s connected?

A

Through the corpus callosum, which enables ‘interhemispheric communication’

75
Q

What does the temporal lobe of the cerebrum do?

A

Hearing & memory

76
Q

What does the adrenal cortex release and why is it important?

A

Cortisol. Important in cardiovascular functioning. Involved in the HPA axis

77
Q

What does the adrenal medulla release and why is it important?

A

Adrenaline & noradrenaline

Vital for ‘fight or flight’ response

78
Q

The pituitary gland is controlled by the ____

A

Hypothalamus

79
Q

When one is faced with a threat, the _____ sends a distress signal to the ___________

A

When one is faced with a threat, the amygdala sends a distress signal to the hypothalamus

80
Q

State the aim of Sperry & Gazzaniga’s study

A

To examine the extent to which the two hemispheres are specialised for certain functions

81
Q

State the procedure of Sperry & Gazzaniga’s study

A

Completed the study on 11 patients who had undergone a corpus callosotomy (where the corpus callosum was cut in order to treat severe epilepsy). These patients were called ‘split-brain’ patients

82
Q

State the three tasks in Sperry & Gazzaniga’s study

A

1) Describe what you see task
2) Tactile task
3) Drawing task

83
Q

State the procedure and findings of the ‘Describe what you see’ task

A

a) Picture presented to the RVF (processed by the LH)
Patient could describe what they saw –> LH’s dominance in language production

b) Picture presented to the LVF (processed by the RH)
Patient could NOT describe what they saw

84
Q

State the procedure and findings of the ‘Tactile’ task

A

a) Objects placed in right hand (Processed by LH)
Patient could describe what they felt OR could pick up a similar object
b) Objects placed in left hand (Processed by RH)
Patient could NOT describe what they felt, but could identify the presented object by picking a similar one.

85
Q

State the procedure and findings of the ‘Drawing’ task

A

Picture presented to RVF (Processed by LH)
Whilst the right hand could attempt to draw a picture, it was never as clear as the left hand

b) Picture presented to LVF (Processed by RH)
Left hand consistently drawers clearer and better pictures than right hand –> Superiority of the RH for visual-motor tasks

86
Q

Define (neural) plasticity

A

The brain’s ability to adapt as a result of experience

87
Q

State 4 ways in which neural connections can be formed/changed via experience

A

a) Life experience
b) Video games
c) Meditation
b) Jobs

88
Q

Describe ‘life experience’ as a way in which neural connections can be formed/changed

A

Learning to juggle increased grey matter in visual cortex in 60 year-old ppts

89
Q

Describe ‘video games’ as a way in which neural connections can be formed/changed

A

Super Mario study - increases in grey matter after game play

90
Q

Describe ‘meditation’ as a way in which neural connections can be formed/changed

A

Tibetan monks had an increase in gamma waves after meditation in comparison to a student control group

91
Q

Describe ‘jobs’ as a way in which neural connections can be formed/changed

A

Maguire et al. Taxi driver study

Studied the brain of London Taxi drivers. As part of their training, they must take a complex test. Found that they had significantly more grey matter in the hippocampus (compared to a matched control group). The longer they had been in the job, the more pronounced the structural difference (a positive correlation). The result of learning the information may alter the structure of the taxi drivers brain

92
Q

The two ways (neural) plasticity occurs

A

1) Neural unmasking

2) Synaptic pruning

93
Q

Define neural unmasking

A

Where ‘dormant’ synapses (which have not received enough input to be active yet) open their connections to compensate for a nearby area of the brain

94
Q

Define synaptic pruning

A

As we age, rarely used connections are deleted and frequently used connections are strengthened. It’s adaptive due to the fact it improves our brain’s efficiency.

95
Q

Define functional recovery

A

The recovery of abilities and mental processes that have been compromised as a result of brain injury or disease

An example of plasticity

96
Q

State three structural changes in the brain that support functional recovery

A

a) Axonal sprouting
b) Reformation of blood vessels
c) Recruitment of homologous (similar) areas on the opposite side of the brain to perform similar tasks

97
Q

Describe axonal sprouting

A

The growth of new nerve endings which connect undamaged neurones to form new pathways

98
Q

What does fMRI stand for and define it

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging. It measures blood flow in the brain when somebody performs a task

99
Q

Describe how fMRI works

A
  • Energy requires glucose and O2; O2 dissociates at respiring brain tissues, therefore becomes deoxygenated
  • Oxygenated and deoxygenated Hb have different magnetic qualities (due to Fe2+ ions in Haem groups – but don’t need to know for psychology)
  • fMRI detects these qualities to create a moving 3D map of the brain’s activity
100
Q

fMRI has a ___ temporal and ___ spatial resolution

A

fMRI =
Low temporal resolution
High spatial resolution

101
Q

What does EEG stand for and define it

A

EEG = Electroencephalogram
It measures electrical activity through electrodes attached to the scalp. Processed in the form of action potentials and graphed over time

102
Q

State the four types of EEG patterns (waves)

A

Alpha (α)
Beta (β)
Theta (θ)
Delta (δ)

103
Q

Amplitude =

A

The intensity of the activity (top-bottom). Delta waves are highest

104
Q

Frequency =

A

Speed/quantity (left-right). Beta waves are highest

105
Q

EEG’s & ERP’s have a ___ temporal and ___ spatial resolution

A

EEG = (same as ERP’s)
High temporal resolution
Low spatial resolution

106
Q

What does ERP stand for and define it

A

ERP = Event-related potential

Very similar to EEG’s, except in ERP’s a stimulus is presented to a participant.

107
Q

Describe ‘averaging’

A

Because a single ERP is difficult to separate from the brain’s background activity, a stimulus is presented 100’s-1000’s of times and a mean response is calculated. This is averaging

108
Q

Sensory ERP’s =

A

ERP’s that occur in the first 100 milliseconds. Show the sensory response to a stimulus

109
Q

Cognitive ERP’s =

A

ERP’s that occur after the first 100 milliseconds. Reflect some form of information processing that’s taken place.

110
Q

Describe post-mortem examinations

A

Researchers study the physical brain of someone who displayed a particular symptom
when they were alive.
Examples = Broca & Wernicke’s areas, HM, Iverson examining the brains of SCZ patients finding high amounts of dopamine in limbic system…

111
Q

State one good ting about post-mortem examinations

A

They allow for a detailed examination of the anatomical and neurochemical aspects of the brain - far more detailed than with other techniques

112
Q

State one bad thing about ERP’s

A

They are restricted to the neocortex only

113
Q

State one bad thing about post-mortem examinations

A

The collected data is retrospective, lacks temporal validity. Cannot establish cause & effect…

AQA A-Level Psychology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions