Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

psychology a level (aqa) > Biopsychology > Flashcards

Biopsychology Flashcards

Paper 2

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

what is localisation

A

specific parts of the brain do specific functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is laterlisation

A

Left & right sides of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke believe in - Holistic v Localisation theory

A

Localisation - changed views of the brain during the 19th century
Cortical specialisation - different parts of the brain perform different tasks and involved with different parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phineas Gage : Case study - What happened to him and what did this suggest to psychologists?

A
  • American Railroad foreman
  • During an accident a metal rod went through his skull - destroying most of his frontal lobe
  • After accident people noted that his personality had changed - led psychologists to believe that certain areas of the brain impacted certain functions/ personalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If your right hand is moving what hemisphere is this being controlled by

A

The Left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the outer layer of both hemispheres called and how thick is it

A

Cerebral cortex - 3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what lobe is responsible for language and touch

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the occipital lobe responsible for

A

visual processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does the brain stem do

A

Controls breathing , heart rate and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is your temporal lobe responsible for

A

hearing, learning and emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what lobe is responsible for thought , memory and behaviour

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the cerebellum responsible for

A

balance and co-ordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the main motor area located

A

Frontal lobe - movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the somatosensory area and where is it located

A

An area of the parietal lobe that processes sensory information such as touch - Parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What lobe is the visual area linked to

A

Occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What lobe is the auditory area linked to

A

Temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are two pieces of evidence that proves localisation of function

A
  • Brain scans - Cognitive neuroscience (fMRI , EEG , ERP and PET scans)
  • Tulving et al - study of LTM found that semantic and episodic memories reside in different parts of the prefrontal cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Brocas area relate to

A

speech and language production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does Wernickes area relate to

A

Language comprehension & processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does it mean to suffer from Brocas aphasia and how can it be treated

A
  • Can understand what is being said but will struggle to form words and string together sentences
  • Can become better over time with speech therapy
  • People should be treat with patience and a lot of body language during conversation should be used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does it mean to suffer from Wernickes aphasia

A
  • Do not understand what is being said but can form sentences and words without struggle but what they are saying may not make sense (e.g my dog plant mother)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the left hempisphere responsible (specialised) for

A
  • Language
  • Logic
  • Critical thinking
  • Numbers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the right hemisphere of the brain responsible (specialised) for

A
  • Creativity
  • Expressing emotions
  • Images
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who are split brain patients (what do they not have and why is this)

A

Patients have had a commissurotomy - Had the corpus collosum removed / severed to stop the two hemispheres from communicating
- Most often done for patients with severe epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Sperrys split brain research - procedure (what are the 4 variants of procedure)

A

Image or word projected to patients right or left visual field - word or image is processed by opposite hemisphere (left visual field information is processed in the right hemisphere)

  • Recognition by touch
  • Matching faces
  • Describing what you see
  • Drawing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Findings - What did you see? (Sperry - Split Brain research)

A
  • When a picture or object was shown to right visual field the patient could easily describe what they had seen
    *information went to left hemisphere
  • If shown to the left visual field the patient would not be able to describe what they had seen
    *lack of language centres in the right hemispheres
  • Normal patients would be able to relay information to the left hemisphere from the right (share information)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Findings - Recognition by touch (Sperry - Split brain research)

A
  • Object placed in left hand (processed by right hemisphere) - could not describe what they felt but could identify a test object by selecting a similar appropriate object
  • Object placed in right hand (processed by left hemisphere) - could describe verbally what they felt and could also identify the test object by selecting a similar object
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Findings : Drawing (Sperry - Split brain research)

A

A picture is shown to just one visual field :
- Left hand would consistently draw clearer and better than the right hand (regardless of dominant hand)
- Shows superiority of right hemisphere during visual motor tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Findings : Face recognition / chimeric figures (Sperry - Split brain research)

A
  • Right hemisphere dominant in matching and recognising faces
  • Left hemisphere dominant in verbal description
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the nervous system made up of

A

the central nervous system (CNS)
the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the central nervous system made up of

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the peripheral nervous system made up of

A
  • Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
  • Somatic nervous system (SNS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system have and what do they mean

A

Parasympathetic - Slows things down - decreased breathing rate , stimulates saliva production

Sympathetic - Speeds things up (‘fight or flight’) - e.g increased heart rate , inhibits digestion etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the somatic nervous system responsible for doing

A

transmits information from receptor cells in the sense organs to the CNS - also receives information from the CNS that directs the muscles to act

Simplified :
- governs muscle movement
- receives information from sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

there are 9 possible glands - what are they?

A
  • hypothalamus
  • pituitary
  • thyroid
  • parathyroid
  • adrenals
  • pancreas
  • ovaries
  • testes
  • adrenal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which glands produce hormones and what hormones do they produce (if possible give their function)

A
  • testes : testoterone
  • Ovaries : eostregen
  • thyroid : thyroxine : affects cells in the heart and increases metabolic rates
  • adrenal : adrenaline - ‘stress hormone’ triggers physiological changes
  • Pineal : melatonin - sleep inducing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is often referred to as the ‘master gland’ and why is it

A

Pituitary - controls the release of hormones from all other endocrine glands in the body

38
Q

the endocrine system and ANS working together - ‘fight or flight’

A
  • When a stressor is perceived the first thing that happens is that your hypothalamus activates your pituitary gland and this triggers activity in your sympathetic branch of the ANS.
  • The ANS changes from its normal resting state (parasympathetic) to they phsyiologically aroused state (sympathetic).
  • Adrenaline is released from your adrenal medulla into the bloodstream. Adrenaline triggers physiological changes in the body which creates the physiological arousal for fight or flight response.
  • All of this happens as soon as the threat is detected.
    Once the threat has passed the parasympathetic nervous system returns the body to its resting state.
39
Q

what are the 3 types of neurons and what are their functions

A
  • sensory : carry messages from the PNS to the CNS - long dendrites and short axons
  • relay : connects the sensory neurons to the motor neurons - short dendrites and short axons
  • motor : connects the CNS to effectors such as muscles and glands - short dendrites and long axons
40
Q

what components is a neuron made of

A
  • dendrites
  • nucleus - contains genetic material
  • axon
  • myelin sheath
  • nodes of Ranvier
41
Q

when a neuron is activated by a stimulus the cell becomes positively charged for a split second causing ….. to occur

A

… action potential …

42
Q

how are signals within neurons transmitted

A

electrically

43
Q

how are signals between neurons transmitted

A

chemically

44
Q

(finish the setence) when the electrical impulse reaches the end of the neuron it triggers the release of ….

A

…. neurotransmitters from tiny sacs called synaptic vesicles

45
Q

what is each neuron seperated by

A

synapse

46
Q

what are neurotransmitters

A

chemicals that diffuse across the synapse to the next neuron in the chain

47
Q

what happens when a neurotransmitter crosses the gap

A

it binds with a postsynaptic receptor site

48
Q

what happens once the neurotransmitter binds with a postsynaptic receptor site

A

the chemical message is converted back into an electrical impulse and the process of transmission begins again in another neuron

49
Q

what does it mean if a neuron causes inhibition

A

neuron becomes more negatively charged and are less likely to fire

50
Q

what does it mean if a neuron causes excitation

A

a neuron increases in positive charge and is more likely to fire

51
Q

what is summation and how does it work

A

Summation - whether a postsynaptic neuron is fired is dependent on the process of summation
The excitatory and inhibitory influences are summed : if the net effect on the postsynaptic neuron is inhibitory than the postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire (and other way round if the net effect is excitatory)

52
Q

At what age do you have the most synaptic connections

A

2-3 years old

53
Q

What is the process called where synaptic connections are deleted and frequently used connections are strengthened

A

Synaptic pruning

54
Q

Eleanor Maguir et al - procedure and findings

A

Procedure : studied the brains of London taxi drivers who had studied and taken a test called ‘The knowledge’
Findings:
More volume of grey matter in the posterior hippocampus - part of the brain associated with spatial and navigational skills - the longer they had been in the job the more profound the difference in structural differences (positive correlation)

55
Q

What does Mechelli et al suggest that bilingual people have a larger of ..

A

…. Parietal cortex

56
Q

What is another example of neural plasticity (following physical injury or other forms of trauma)

A

Functional recovery

57
Q

What might a patient need after spontenous recovery (weeks or months after injury or trauma)

A

Rehabilation therapy

58
Q

What 3 ways of recovery occurs during brain recovery (with brief definition of each)

A
  • Axonal sprouting : The growth of new nerve endings connecting with undamaged nerve cells
  • Reformation of blood vessels
  • Recruitment of homologous (similar) areas : Areas on the opposite side of the brain perform specific tasks
59
Q

Two strengths of brain plasticity

A

-Understanding the processes involved in plasticity have contributed to the field of neurorehabilitation

-Brain plasticity may have maladaptive behaviour consequences - prolonged drug use - poorer cognitive functioning (whilst negative it does support the idea that plasticity is occuring)

60
Q

One negative of brain plasticity

A

Functional plasticity tends to reduce with age

61
Q

Name the 4 scanning techniques

A
  • fMRI
  • EEG
  • ERPs
  • Post mortem
62
Q

what does an fMRI scan and what does this show

A

Detects changes in blood flow - when a brain area is more active it consumes more oxygen and then to meet the increased demand there is more blood flow to the active area

63
Q

what are a few positives of fMRIs

A
  • non - invasive : does not rely on the use of radiation
  • accurate & good spatial resolution (1-2mm)
64
Q

what are a few negatives of fMRIs

A
  • expensives compared to other neuroimaging techniques
  • poor temporal resolution - slow to report what the brain is doing
  • can only capture clear image if person is perfecty still
65
Q

what does an EEG measure and how does it do this

A

Measures electrical activity through electrodes attached to the scalp

66
Q

what are a few positives of an EEG

A
  • high temporal resolution
  • used in clinical diagnosis
  • non - invasive
67
Q

what are a few negatives of an EEG

A
  • poor spatial resolution - only detects activity in superficial areas of the brain and cannot reveal what is going on in the deeper regions
  • electrical activity can be picked up by several neighbouring electrodes
68
Q

what is the difference between an ERP and an EEG (what does ERP stand for)

A

Event - Related Potentials
ERPs takes averages from EEGs - all extraneous brain activity is filtered out leaving only responses from specific stimuli

69
Q

what are is a positive for the ERP over an EEG

A

Brings more specifity to measurement of neural process

70
Q

What is a post - mortem

A

Analysis of a persons brain after death

71
Q

What might a person do in a post mortem study to establish differences and/ or similarities when evaluation for a rare disorder

A

Compare with neurotypical brain

72
Q

What are two positives of post mortem examinations

A
  • Broca & Wernicke relied on post mortem studies - early understanding
  • Allows for more detailed examination
73
Q

What are two negatives of post mortem examinations

A
  • Observed damage may not be linked to defecits (e.g decay or other injuries - struggle to establish cause and effect relationship)
  • Ethical issues of consent from patients before death - E.g case of HM - ability to form memories
74
Q

What biological rhythm is 24 hours - give example of this rhythm

A

Circadian rhythms - sleep / wake cycle

75
Q

What biological rhythm is less than 24 hours - give example of this rhythm

A

Ultradian rhythms - sleep cycle

76
Q

What biological rhythm is more than 24 hours - give example of this rhythm

A

Infradian rthyms - The menstrual cycle / SAD (season affective disorder)

77
Q

What is an endogeneous pacemaker - give example

A

The bodys internal biological clocks - SCN (suprachiasmatic nuclei)

78
Q

What is an exogeneous zeitgeber - give example

A

An external cue - light , social cues

79
Q

How does the sleep / wake cycle work

A
  • Light is first detected by the eye which then sends a message (down the optic nerve) to the SCN (tiny bundle of nerves in hypothalamus)
  • SCN uses information to co-orinate the activity of the entire circadian system
  • SCN sends message to pineal gland which releases melatonin in the bloodstream to make us sleepier
80
Q

What is Siffres Cave study - Procedure and findings

A

Procedure :
Investigated the effects of removal of exogenous zeitgebers on the circadian rhythm
- Deprived of exposure to natural light and sounds
- Spent 6 months in Texan cave
Findings:
- physiology and behaviour remained the same
- circadian rhythm increased from 24 hours to 25 hours
- circadian rhythm persists despite removal of exogeneous zeitgebers (the rhythm is ‘free running’)

81
Q

Aschoff & Wever - procedure and findings

A

Procedure:
- convinced a group of participants to spend 4 weeks in WWII bunker
Findings:
- all but 1 (with an extended circadian rhythm of 29 hours) displayed a circadian rhythm between to 24 and 25 hours

82
Q

Morgan et al - Hamster study - Procedure and findings

A

Procedure:
- Bred hamsters so that they had circadian rhythms of 20 hours rather than 22
- SCN from these abnormal hamsters were transplanted into the brains of normal hamsters
Findings:
- Normal hamsters started displaying some abnormal circadian rhythms
- This demonstrates the importance of the SCN and how endogeneous pacemakers are important for biological circadian rhythms

83
Q

Two positives of circadian rhythms

A
  • knowledge of circadian rhythms has given researchers a better understanding of the adverse consequences that occur as a result of their disruption (desynchronisation) : may have economic implications - managing work productivity
  • Helped understand drug effectiveness and when best to take them - pharmocokinetics
84
Q

Two (+) negatives of circadian rhythms

A
  • Studies of sleep/ wake cycle involve (usually) a small group of participants - participants may not be representative of wider population - difficult to generalise findings
  • Animal studies are unethical & difficult to extrapolate from (Morgan et al)
  • More things at work than just the SCN - cells and organs have their own circadian rhythms - not soley determined on SCN
85
Q

The Menstrual cycle - Cycle

A

Ovulation occurs (roughly) halfway through cycle when oestregen levels are highest - lasts for 16 - 32 hours
After ovulation, progesterone levels increase, ready for possible embryo implantation
Typical cycle = 28 days - variation from 23 - 36 days

86
Q

Martha McClintock & Kathleen Stern (1998) - Procedure & Findings

A

Procedure :
- 29 females with a history of irregular periods
- samples of pheremones gathered from 9 women at different stages of their menstrual cycle - gathered via cotton pad placed in their arm pit for atleast 8 hours
- Rubbed on upper lip of other participants
Findings :
- 68% of women experienced changes to their cycles - brought them closer to the cycle of their ‘organ donor’

87
Q

What does Martha McClintock and Kathleens stern research show

A

Menstrual cycles may not be 100% determined on endogeneous pacemakers and can also be influenced by exogeneous zeitgebers

88
Q

SAD - seasonal affective disorder - what is it affected by and how does this work

A
  • Melatonin - secreted by pineal gland (due to longer, darker days)
  • Circannual rhythm - yearly cycle
  • Circadian rhythm ? - may occur due to the disruption of the sleep/wake cycle
89
Q

Explain the 5 stages of the sleep cycle

A

Stage 1 and 2 :
- light sleep - person can easily be woken
- brainwaves - become slower and more rhythmic (alpha) and becoming slower as sleep becomes deeper (theta)

Stages 3 and 4 :
- Deep sleep / slow wave sleep - difficult to rouse someone
- Delta waves - slower and have greater amplitude than earlier wave patterns

Stage 5 (REM sleep) :
- Rapid Eye Movement
- Body is paralysed yet brain activitiy speeds up significantly in a way that resembles the awake brain
- REM is correlated with the experience of dreaming

90
Q

A positive of infradian rhythms and a counterpoint to this positive (McClintock)

A

McClintock - Evolutionary value - for our ancestors it may have been advantageous for females to menstruate together and therefore fall pregnant around the same time
- Validitiy of this questioned - women cycling together would produce competition for highest quality males : lowering fitness of potential offspring
- avoidance of synchronisation = best most adaptive evolutionary strategy

  • early synchronisation studies - do not measure or get rid of confounding variables that may alter the menstrual cycle - e.g diet , stress
91
Q

2 (+) positives of Ultradian rhythms

A
  • William Dement & Nathanial Kleitman (1957) : monitored sleep patterns of 9 adult participants - brainwaves recorded on EEG (link knowledge of scan technique) - REM activity was highly correlated with dreaming
  • Randy Gardener stayed awake fo 264 hours - after this experience Randy slept for only 15 hours and over several nights only recovered 25% of lost sleep , 70% of stage 4 and 50% of REM - highlights large degree of flexibility in different stages
  • Tucker et al - found significant differences between participants in terms of duration of each stage
92
Q

What may be a negative of ultradian rhythms

A

Participants in studies have innate individual differences in Ultradian rhythms

psychology a level (aqa) (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions