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Biomedical Science > Biomedical Science > Flashcards

Biomedical Science Flashcards

1
Q

What structure of tooth is formed from Ectoderm?

A

Enamel

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2
Q

What structures of tooth is formed from Echtomesenchyme?

A

Dentin
Pulp
Cementum
Alveolar Bone
PDL

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3
Q

What structures of tooth is formed from Dental Papilla?

A

Dentin
Pulp

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4
Q

What structures of tooth is formed from Dental Follicle?

A

Cementum
Bone
PDL

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5
Q

At what stage in tooth development does Dentin formation begin?

A

Early Bell Stage

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6
Q

Where are Enterochromaffin cells found?

A

Gastic mucosa

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7
Q

Where are olgodendrocytes found?

A

Myelin in CNS

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8
Q

Where are Schwann cells found?

A

Myelin in PNS

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9
Q

Where are microglial cells found and what do they do?

A

CNS
macrophages in the immune response

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10
Q

Where are pericytes found?

A

Support cells for blood/brain barrier

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11
Q

What muscles are innervated by cranial nerve XII?

A

All intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but 1 extrinsic muscle of the tongue.

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12
Q

Aside from cranial nerve XII, which cranial nerve provides muscle innervation for an extrinsic muscle of the tongue? What muscle does it innervate?

A

Cranial nerve X, Vagus.
Palatoglossus

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13
Q

Which muscles are innervated by Ansa Cervicalis?

A

SOS
Sternothyroid
Omohyoid
Sternohyoid

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14
Q

Where does Ansa Cervicalis originate?

A

cervical spinal nerves C1-C3

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15
Q

Which gland makes up the highest percent of oral mucous?

A

sublingual gland

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16
Q

During embryotic development, at what point do primary teeth begin developing?

A

6 weeks

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17
Q

During embryotic development, at what point do permanent teeth being developing?

A

20 weeks

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18
Q

From which branchial arch does ectoderm come?

A

1st

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19
Q

What are the contents of the posterior mediastinum? (6)

A

descending aorta
hemiazgos vein
vagus nerve
splanchnic nerve
esophagus
thoracic duct

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20
Q

In which mediastinum is the phrenic nerve located?

A

middle mediastinum

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21
Q

Which type of connective tissue is found in the TMJ?

A

Fibrocartilage

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22
Q

Which nerves innervate the TMJ?

A

auricotemporal nerve
masseteric nerve

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23
Q

On which amino acids does phosphorylation occur? (3)

A

tyrosine
threonine
serine

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24
Q

Thoracolumbar refers to sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic

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25
Q

Craniosacral refers to sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

Parasympathetic

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26
Q

What are characteristics of Alpha1 adrenoreceptors?

A

-Fight or flight
-constriction of smooth muscle
-raise BP
-tighten bladder sphincters

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27
Q

What are characteristics of Alpha2 adrenoreceptors?

A

-lowers BP
-lowers NE release

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28
Q

What are characteristics of Beta1 adrenoreceptors?

A

-increase HR
-increase lipolysis
-increase myocardial contraction
-increase renin

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29
Q

What are characteristics of Beta2 adrenoreceptors?

A

-increase bronchodilation
-increase glycogenolysis

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30
Q

What are the 2 main types of Leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

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31
Q

What cells are granulocytes?

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

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32
Q

Function of Neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis
most active WBC
1st to arrive during immune esponse

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33
Q

Function of Eosinophils?

A

Parasitic infections

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34
Q

Function of Basophils?

A

Inflammatory
Allergic reactions

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35
Q

What cells are Agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes
Monocytes

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36
Q

Functions of Lymphocytes? (and types (3))

A

Produce specific immune response
-B lymphocytes
-T lymphocytes
-Natural Killer Cells

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37
Q

What are the 4 types of papilla on Tongue?

A

-filliform
-fungiform
-circumvallate
-foliate

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38
Q

Which type of papilla is most abundant on tongue?

A

Filliform

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39
Q

What bacteria cause toxic shock syndrome?

A

Strep Pyogenes
Staph Aureus

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40
Q

Gram - bacteria have _____ Porins and ______ peptioglycans

A

many
minimal

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41
Q

Gram + bacteria have ____ Porins and ____ peptidoglycans

A

few
large

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42
Q

What is a warthins tumor?

A

-relatively frequent and benign neoplasms of the major salivary glands
-papillary cystadenoma

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43
Q

Lymphomatosum

A

Benign epithelial tumor w/ prominent lymphoid tissue

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44
Q

Epstein Barr Virus can result in which additional conditions/diseases? (5)

A

1 mononucleosis
2 hodgkins lymphoma
3 burkitts lymphoma
4 nasopharyngeal carcinoma
5 oral hairy leukoplakia

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45
Q

What type of virus is epstein barr virus?

A

Herpes virus 4

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46
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia can be associated or a result of what?

A

Philadelphia Chromosome

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47
Q

what can cryptococcus neoformans often cause?

A

fungal meningitis

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48
Q

What is pheochromocytomas?

A

neoplasms of chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla

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49
Q

What are Chromaffin cells and what do they produce?

A

-Cells in the adrenal medulla
- epinephrine
-norepi

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50
Q

What disease is associated with elementary bodies?

A

Clamydia

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51
Q

What type of anesthetic is Lido, Septo, Mepi, etc

A

Amide

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52
Q

How many milligrams of Lido is 2%?

A

36mg

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53
Q

How many milligrams of epi in 1:100k anesthetics?

A

.018mg

54
Q

Characteristics of Sulfonamides?

A

-Bacteriostatic
-folate synthesis inhibitor
- “sulfa drugs”

55
Q

Characteristics of Fluoroquinolones

A

-bactericidal
-DNA syn. inhibitor
-…..floxacin

56
Q

Characteristics of Penicillins

A
  • bactericidal
  • cell wall syn inhibitor
  • B lactam
57
Q

Benefits of Augmentin?

A

Clavulonic acid is Beta Lactamase resistant

58
Q

Common Cephalosporin

A

Keflex

59
Q

Characteristics of Tetracyclin

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • protein syn inhibitor
  • broadest antimicrobial
60
Q

Characteristics of Macrolides?
(Mac likes to throw mice in..)

A
  • bacteriostatic
  • protein syn inhibitor
  • erythro
  • clarithro
  • azithro
61
Q

Lincosamides

A

Clindamycin

62
Q

What organs are retroperitoneal? (5)

A
  • adrenal glands
  • kidneys
  • ureters
  • inferior vena cava
  • rectum
63
Q

Where is Brunners gland found and what does it do?

A
  • Submucosa of Deodenum
  • secrete alkaline material to neutralize stomach acid
64
Q

Stratum Lucidem

A

Dead cells in epidermis, not found in the oral tissue

65
Q

Type 1 collagen

A
  • 90% of collagen in the body
  • most abundant in gingiva
66
Q

Type 2 collagen

A
  • elastic cartilage
  • joint support
67
Q

Type 3 collagen

A
  • muscles, arteries, organs
68
Q

Type 4 collagen

A
  • layers of skin
69
Q

What type of cells makes of the Parotid Gland?

A

simple cuboidal cells

70
Q

What is the nerve innervation to the Parotid gland?

A

Lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of cranial nerve IX, glossopharyngeal

71
Q

What nerve innervates the anterior belly of digastric?

A

mylohyoid n, via IA

72
Q

What nerve innervates the posterior belly of digastric?

A

Facial nerve

73
Q

Function of limbic system?

A

Primitive brain or emotions and motivations for survival

74
Q

Functions of Medulla oblongata?

A
  • Cardiovascular and Respiratory
  • HR, BP, breathing
75
Q

Function of hypothalamus

A

homeostasis

76
Q

Function of cerebellum

A

movement and coordination

77
Q

maltose

A

glucose - glucose

78
Q

sucrose

A

glucose - fructose

79
Q

lactose

A

glucose - galactose

80
Q

Common bacteria that cause chronic adult periodontitis (4)

A
  • P. gingivalis
  • Eikenella
  • Fusobacteria
  • spirochetes
81
Q

What bacteria are common in dental plaque?

A

Strep Sanguis

82
Q

Rule of 80%

A
  • 80% of salivary tumors are in the parotid gland
  • 80% of parotid tumors are benign
  • 80% of benign tumors are pleomorphic adenomas
83
Q

What is the most common tumor found in salivary glands?

A

Pleomorphic Adenomas

84
Q

What is Steatorrhea?

A

Malabsorption of Fats

85
Q

Which bacteria are most responsible for Endocarditis?

A

Strep Viridans

86
Q

Which teeth are most affected from Congenital Syphalis? What are they called?

A
  • Upper incisors (Hutchinson’s incisors)
  • Permanent 1st molars (Mulberry Molars)
87
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

Right subclavian vein

88
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain?

A

Left subclavian vein

89
Q

What is Crohns disease?

A

Chronic infection of terminal ileum and colon

90
Q

What other diseases are associated with Crohn’s disease?

A
  • aphthous ulcers
  • polyarthritis
  • pyoderma gangrenosum
  • uveitis
  • nephrolithiasis
91
Q

Characteristics of Ulcerative colitis

A
  • always involves rectum
  • travels up colon
  • bloody diarrhea
  • frequent defecation
92
Q

symptoms of vitamin B6 deficiency

A
  • convulsions
  • peripheral nerve disease
93
Q

deficiency of what vitamin can be associated with Apthous ulcers?

A

B12

94
Q

What does the external laryngeal nerve innervate?

A

cricothyroid muscle

95
Q

What is the function of the internal laryngeal nerve?

A

sensory above the vocal chords

96
Q

what is the function of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

-provide motor innervation to all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except cricothyroid)
-provide sensory below the vocal chords

97
Q

where does the recurrent laryngeal nerve originate?

A

from vagus nerve

98
Q

Euchromatin

A

loose chromatin, can be transcribed

99
Q

Heterochromatin

A

densely packed chromatin, cannot be transcribed

100
Q

what determines the location and number of cusps of a developing molar?

A

enamel knots

101
Q

what is cushing syndrome?

A

Chronic exposure to glucocorticoids

102
Q

What are the 4 zones of coronal pulp?

A

1-central pulp
2-cell rich zone (hohle)
3-cell poor zone (weil)
4-odontoblastic zone

103
Q

What is found in the central pulp zone?

A

dendritic cells
fibroblasts
macrophages
leukocytes
blood vessels
lymph vessels
mylenated a sig fibers
unmylenated c fibers

104
Q

what is found in the cell rich zone of pulp?

A

-plexus of raschkow
-subodontoblastic cell bodies

105
Q

What is found in the cell poor zone of pulp?

A

-subodontoblastic processes

106
Q

Describe sensory innervation of the tongue

A

Anterior 2/3
pain = lingual
taste = chordae tympani (from facial nerve

Posterior 1/3
pain = glossopharyngeal
taste = glossopharyngeal

107
Q

What is a common cause of
-unilateral jaw claudication
-worsening vision
-headache

A

Temporal arteritis
- aka occlusion of branches of carotid artery

108
Q

What does the reduced enamel epithelium secrete to aid in tooth eruption?

A

-collagenase
-interleukin 1a
-PRHrP

109
Q

What is the action of aldosterone?

A
  • Increase Na reabsorption
  • increase K secretion
110
Q

What is addisions syndrome?

A

Low levels of aldosterone

111
Q

What is a common clinical sign of addison’s syndrome?

A

melanosis of oral tissues

112
Q

What cells secrete mucous is conducting segment of the lungs?

A

Goblet cells

113
Q

What cells act to lower friction and surface tension in the lungs?

A

Mesothelial cells

114
Q

What cells make surfactant?

A

Clara cells

115
Q

After tooth movement, where are reversal lines found?

A

on the resorption side of the tooth, the direction the tooth is moving

116
Q

After tooth movement, where are arrest lines found?

A

On the deposition side of the tooth

117
Q

What is the function of Aa nerve fibers?

A

Proprioception

118
Q

What is the function of Ab nerve fibers?

A

Touch

119
Q

What is the function of Asig nerve fibers?

A

-pain and temp
-sharp pain

120
Q

What is the function of C nerve fibers?

A

-pain and temp
-itch
-dull chronic

121
Q
  • Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase
  • normal Ca and P levels
  • cotton wool appearance
  • enlarged maxilla
    all describe what disease?
A

Pagets disease

122
Q

Reversal Drug for an opoid?

A

Naloxone

123
Q

Reversal drug for a benzodiazapine?

A

Flumazenil

124
Q

Drug for laryngospasm during sedation?

A

Succinylcholine

125
Q

Drug for bronchospasm during sedation?

A

albuterol or epinephrine

126
Q

Drug for hypotension during sedation?

A
  • Atropine
  • ephedrine
  • phenylephrine
127
Q

Drug for angina or MI during sedation?

A
  • nitroglycerin
  • aspirin
128
Q

Characteristics of Dentinogenesis

A
  • yellow or opalescent color
  • short roots
  • bell shaped crowns
  • obliterated pulps
  • associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
129
Q

Characteristcs of Dentin Dysplasia

A
  • crowns normal in shape and color
  • “rootless”
  • periapical radiolucencies
130
Q

What are the 3 occasions when enamel shells do not need to be removed?

A

1 - class 3 restorations
2 - restorations on primary teeth
3 - restorations of cementum

131
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic for ANUG?

A

Metronidazole

Biomedical Science (3 decks)

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