#2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which tissues work in conjunction to form enamel?
A
Stratum intermedium
Ameloblasts
2
Q
In which region is the heart found?
A
middle mediastinum
3
Q
Formula for odds ratio
A
(ad)/(bc)
4
Q
Formula for relative risk
A
(a/(a+b))/(c/(c+d))
5
Q
Types of studies ranked from best to worst
A
1-meta analysis
2-randomized controlled trial
3-prospective cohort
4-retrospective cohort
5-case-control study
6-case series study
7-case report
6
Q
Characteristics of cross- sectional study
A
-random sample of population
-measures prevalence
-one point in time
-social desirability bias
7
Q
Characteristics of prospective cohort study
A
-observational
-2 groups (exposed vs. non exposed)
-present –> future
-follows participants over time to see if the exposure, or lack of exposure, leads to disease
-measures relative risk and incidence
-best used for rare exposures
-bias = loss to follow up bias
8
Q
How many phases of clinical trial?
A
4
9
Q
Phase 1 of clinical trial
A
-small number of healthy participants
-determine safe dose range, toxicity and pharmacokinetics/dynamics
10
Q
Phase 2 of clinical trial
A
-small number of diseased participants
-determine optimized doses, adverse effects, and effectiveness
11
Q
Phase 3 of clinical trial
A
-large number of diseased participants
-randomly assigned to either treatment group or control group
12
Q
Phase 4 of clinical trial
A
-post marketing surveillance
-detect rare or long-term side-effects
13
Q
Characteristics of case control study
A
-retrospective study
-splits participants into 2 groups (diseased vs non-diseased)
- present –> past
- observes “what happened?”
- use for rare diseases or long incubation periods
- does not determine incidence or causality
- recall bias
14
Q
What do ameloblasts secrete?
A
proteins enamelin and amelogenin
15
Q
What is the layer between inner enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum?
A
stratum intermedium
16
Q
What are Meibomian glands?
A
Glands found in the eyelids that produce oil to prevent evaporation of tears
17
Q
What is found in the middle mediastinum?
A
-pericardium
-phrenic nerve
-main bronchi
-heart
18
Q
Where are pectinate muscles found?
A
right atrium of the heart
19
Q
In the Branchial arches, what is made up of ectoderm?
A
Pharyngeal clefts/grooves
20
Q
In the Branchial arches, what is made up of endoderm?
A
Pharyngeal pouches
20
Q
In the Branchial arches, what is made up of mesoderm?
A
Pharyngeal arches
21
Q
What do pharyngeal clefts give rise to?
A
epithelium
22
Q
What do Pharyngeal arches give rise to?
A
-connective tissue
-cartilage
-muscles
-bones
-nerves
23
Q
What do pharyngeal pouches give rise to?
A
glands
24
1st Pharyngeal arch, muscles
- muscles of mastication
- mylohyoid
-digastric (anterior belly)
- tensor veli palatini
25
2nd pharyngeal arch, muscles
- muscles of facial expression
- stylohyoid
- digastric (posterior belly)
26
3rd pharyneal arch, muscles
styolpharyngeus
27
4th/6th pharyngeal arch muscles
- pharyngeal muscles
- laryngeal muscles
- levator veli palatini
28
1st Pharyngeal arch, bones and CT
- maxilla
- zygomatic bone
- mandible
- temporal bone
29
2nd pharyngeal arch, bones and CT
- hyoid bone
- stylohyoid ligament
30
4th/6th pharyngeal arch, bones and CT
- cartilage of the larynx
31
Which Cranial nerves arise from the branchial arches?
1st - CN 5
2nd - CN 7
3rd - CN 9
4th/6th - CN 10
32
1st pharyngeal arch, arteries
- maxillary
33
3rd pharyngeal arch,
arteries
- common carotid a.
- internal carotid a.
34
4th pharyngeal arch, arteries
right - subclavian a
left - aortic a
35
6th pharyngeal arch, arteries
right - right pulmonary a
left - left pulmonary a and ductus arteriosus
36
1st pharyngeal pouch
eustachian tube
37
2nd pharyngeal pouch
tonsils
38
3rd pharyngeal pouch
- inferior parathyroid gland
- thymus
39
4th pharyngeal pouch
- superior parathyroid gland
40
What type of cells line the maxillary sinus?
stratified ciliated columnar epithelium
41
Is the brachiocephalic artery on the right or left?
right
42
What does the brachiocephalic artery give rise to?
- right subclavian artery
- right common carotid artery
43
What muscle runs between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictors?
stylopharyngeus
44
Where is transitional epithelium found?
ureters, bladder, and urethra
45
What type of epithelium is found in the gingiva?
stratified squamous keratinized
46
Where are the cell bodies found that are associated with the jaw jerk reflex?
- mesencephalic nucleus
- trigeminal motor nucleus
47
What is hyperacusis?
- a common symptom of bell's palsy
- over sensitivity to certain volumes and frequencies of sound
(associated with facial nerve)
48
When is a G protein receptor active? and inactive?
-when GTP is bound it becomes activated
-while bound to GDP it is inactive
49
Where does the pentose phosphate pathway occur?
in the cytoplasm of the liver, RBCs and cells of adrenal cortex
50
What 2 main things does the pentose phosphate pathway produce?
1-NADPH
2-Ribose-5 phosphate
51
What is NADPH used for?
- fatty acid synthesis
- steroid synthesis
- prevent oxidative stress
52
What is Ribose-5 phosphate used for?
Production of pyrimidines and purines
53
What is a unique characteristic of Thiamine?
- it is the main transport form of the B complex
- can become phosphorylated to Thiamine Diphosphate
54
Which B vitamin is Riboflavin? And what is its purpose?
-B2
-metabolic energy production
55
Which B vitamin is Folic Acid? and what is its purpose?
-B9
-help make RBCs and aid the function of Iron
56
Which B vitamin is Pyridoxine? and what is its purpose?
-B6
-Utilization of food for energy
57
Which B vitamin is Niacin? and what is its purpose?
-B3
- turn food into energy
58
Which B vitamin is Thiamine? and what is its purpose?
-B1
-will decrease the activity in these enzymes
-Transketolase
-pyruvate dehydrogenase
-alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
59
What does the P wave represent in an ECG?
Atrial depolarization
60
What does the PR interval represent in an ECG?
time for electrical impulse to travel from SA node to AV node
61
What does the QRS complex represent in an ECG?
Depolarization of the ventricles
62
What does the T wave represent in an ECG?
Ventricular repolarization
63
What molecule is used to measure Glomerular filtration rate?
Creatinine
64
What is the rate limiting step of Glycolysis? and what is the enzyme?
-Fructose-6 phosphate ---> Fructose-1,6 phosphate
-phosphofructokinase
65
Rickets?
Vitamin D deficiency
66
Pernicious anemia?
B12 deficiency
67
Pellagra?
Niacin deficiency
68
scurvy?
Vitamin C deficiency
69
Beriberi?
Thiamin deficiency
70
Ariboflavinosis?
Riboflavin deficiency
71
Characteristics of rotovirus
-segmented genome
-replicate in cytoplasm of host cell
-double stranded RNA virus
-fecal/oral route
-infects the GI tract causing severe diarrhea
72
Common spread of carcinomas
lymphatic system
73
common spread of sarcomas
hematogeneously through the veins, often developing in liver and lungs
74
Mode of action of oncogenes
-can activate nuclear transcription
-can be growth factors
-can be growth factor receptors
-can be involved in signal transduction
75
Phases of growth of standard bacteria
-lag
-log
-stationary
-death
76
unique characteristic of legionella pneumophilia
produce beta-lactamase
77
Bacteria that make IgA protease (4)
1-neisseria meningitidis
2-neisseria gonorrhoeae
3-Haemophilus influenzae
4-strep pneumoniae
78
What is defined as reversible loss in lung volume?
Atelectasis
79
Common DNA based viruses
-HSV
-Hep B
-HPV
80
3 Examples of tumor markers
1-Beta2 microglobulin
2- alpha fetoprotein
3- thyroglobin
81
Characteristics of an acute phase response
-fever
-increase in number of WBCs including neutrophils, B and T cells
82
Acute phase response is due to which cytokines?
IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha
83
There are 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions, which is not mediated by antibodies?
Type 4
84
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
-involves skin, eyes and bronchopulmonary tissues
-mast cells or basophils
85
Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
-affects organs and tissues
-antibodies, complement, neutrophils
86
Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
-3-10 hours after exposure to antigen
87
Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
-induration and erythema
-autoimmune and infectious diseases
-relies on Cells not antibodies
88
Describe the primary immune response
-lag phase (no antibodies produces)
-plasma and B cells activated
-after response, minimal antibodies produced
89
Describe the secondary immune response
-lag phase much shorter (body has memory)
-antibodies produced, high in IgG and IgM
90
Which virus causes Verruca Vulgaris?
HPV
91
What causes cystic fibrosis?
mutation in the Cl- transport protein
92
Which teeth commonly exhibit a U, H or Y pattern in their occlusal anatomy?
Mandibular second premolars
93
How are periapical cysts and periapical granulomas distiguished?
biopsy
94
At what temperature does gutta percha transition from the beta phase to the alpha phase?
115 F
95
What type of cysts are most common in the oral cavity associated with a non-vital tooth?
periapical cysts
96
From what tissue are periapical cysts usually derived?
rest cells of Malassez
97
What is nociceptive pain?
the normal process that results in noxious stimuli being perceived as painful
98
What is neuropathic pain?
direct consequence of a lesion or disease affecting abnormal functioning of the PNS. It can result from an injury of peripheral nerves or the CNS
99
Characteristics of neuropathic pain
-burning
-electric
-tingling
-stabbing
100
What is allodynia?
pain that occurs after a weak or non-painful stimulus, such as light touch or a cold drink which normally doesn't cause pain
101
What is the optimal time for vital pulp therapy of an inflamed pulp?
24 hours
102
How big are C fibers? And what is their rate of conduction?
-0.3 - 1.2 micrometers in diameter
-0.4 - 2.0 m/sec
103
Which nerve fibers are larger in diameter, A or C fibers?
A
104
Which nerve is responsible for eye closure?
Facial
105
Which type of tissue makes up junctional epithelium
Stratified squamous non-keratinized
106
Which hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary?
All are basophilic hormones except one, which is the exception?
-Luteinizing hormone
-follicle stimulating hormone
-adrenocorticotropic hormone
-thyroid stimulating hormone
-Growth hormone
107
Where are hassall's corpuscles found?
Thymus
108
Function of type 1 alveolar cells
form the structure of the alveolar wall
109
Function of type 2 alveolar cells
secrete surfactant
110
What is the origin of the inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle?
lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate
111
What is the origin of the superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle?
the greater wing of the sphenoid bone
112
At which level does the trachea bifurcate?
level of the sternal angle
113
Nissl bodies correspond with which cytoplasmic organelles?
Rough ER
114
Where is Auerbach's plexus found?
Muscularis externa
115
What are the zones of cartilage from epiphysis inward?
-resting
-proliferation
-hypertrophy
-calcification
-ossification
116
Which nerve innervates the tensor veli palatini?
CN 5, mandibular branch
117
Which 2 muscles does the pterygomandibular raphe attach to?
-superior pharyngeal constrictor
-buccinator
118
Which node does most of the oral cavity's lymphatics drain to?
submandibular
119
What surrounds a muscle fiber?
endomysium
120
what surrounds a muscle fascicle (bundle of muscle fibers)?
perimysium
121
What surrounds the entire msucle?
epimysium
122
What intermediate is common to both cholesterol and ketone body synthesis?
HMG CoA
123
If a substrate has a high Km value in a reaction, is the affinity for the enzyme higher or lower?
lower
124
Characteristics of Ketone bodies
- produced from acetyl coA in the mitochondria of the liver
-byproducts when FAs are broken down in the liver
-3 ketone bodies
125
What are the 3 ketone bodies?
Acetone
Acetoacetate acid
beta-hydroxybutyric acid
126
What is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?
M phase
127
At what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
S phase
128
4 post-translational modifications of histones that help regulate the condensation of chromatin
-acetylation of lysine residues (DNA repair)
-methylation of lysine (assists in formation of chromatin and proper programming of genome)
-phosphorylation of serine or tyrosine (help process of chromatin condensation during mitosis)
-ubiquitination of lysine (help proteins signal for their degredation)
129
Characteristics of type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta
-dominantly inherited disease
-mildest and most common form of condition
-mild bone fragility
-misshaped blue teeth
-blue sclerae
-normal collagen
(type 2 and 3 have abnormal synthesis of collagen)
130
What is the relative refractory period in relation to the absolute refractory period?
The relative refractory period is after the absolute refractory period, the cells are not yet completely repolarized but if there is a strong stimulus, a small action potential can be generated.
