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Biomedical Science > #2 > Flashcards

#2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which tissues work in conjunction to form enamel?

A

Stratum intermedium
Ameloblasts

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2
Q

In which region is the heart found?

A

middle mediastinum

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3
Q

Formula for odds ratio

A

(ad)/(bc)

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4
Q

Formula for relative risk

A

(a/(a+b))/(c/(c+d))

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5
Q

Types of studies ranked from best to worst

A

1-meta analysis
2-randomized controlled trial
3-prospective cohort
4-retrospective cohort
5-case-control study
6-case series study
7-case report

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6
Q

Characteristics of cross- sectional study

A

-random sample of population
-measures prevalence
-one point in time
-social desirability bias

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7
Q

Characteristics of prospective cohort study

A

-observational
-2 groups (exposed vs. non exposed)
-present –> future
-follows participants over time to see if the exposure, or lack of exposure, leads to disease
-measures relative risk and incidence
-best used for rare exposures
-bias = loss to follow up bias

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8
Q

How many phases of clinical trial?

A

4

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9
Q

Phase 1 of clinical trial

A

-small number of healthy participants
-determine safe dose range, toxicity and pharmacokinetics/dynamics

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10
Q

Phase 2 of clinical trial

A

-small number of diseased participants
-determine optimized doses, adverse effects, and effectiveness

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11
Q

Phase 3 of clinical trial

A

-large number of diseased participants
-randomly assigned to either treatment group or control group

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12
Q

Phase 4 of clinical trial

A

-post marketing surveillance
-detect rare or long-term side-effects

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13
Q

Characteristics of case control study

A

-retrospective study
-splits participants into 2 groups (diseased vs non-diseased)
- present –> past
- observes “what happened?”
- use for rare diseases or long incubation periods
- does not determine incidence or causality
- recall bias

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14
Q

What do ameloblasts secrete?

A

proteins enamelin and amelogenin

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15
Q

What is the layer between inner enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum?

A

stratum intermedium

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16
Q

What are Meibomian glands?

A

Glands found in the eyelids that produce oil to prevent evaporation of tears

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17
Q

What is found in the middle mediastinum?

A

-pericardium
-phrenic nerve
-main bronchi
-heart

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18
Q

Where are pectinate muscles found?

A

right atrium of the heart

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19
Q

In the Branchial arches, what is made up of ectoderm?

A

Pharyngeal clefts/grooves

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20
Q

In the Branchial arches, what is made up of endoderm?

A

Pharyngeal pouches

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20
Q

In the Branchial arches, what is made up of mesoderm?

A

Pharyngeal arches

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21
Q

What do pharyngeal clefts give rise to?

A

epithelium

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22
Q

What do Pharyngeal arches give rise to?

A

-connective tissue
-cartilage
-muscles
-bones
-nerves

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23
Q

What do pharyngeal pouches give rise to?

A

glands

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24
Q

1st Pharyngeal arch, muscles

A
  • muscles of mastication
  • mylohyoid
    -digastric (anterior belly)
  • tensor veli palatini
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25
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch, muscles

A
  • muscles of facial expression
  • stylohyoid
  • digastric (posterior belly)
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26
Q

3rd pharyneal arch, muscles

A

styolpharyngeus

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27
Q

4th/6th pharyngeal arch muscles

A
  • pharyngeal muscles
  • laryngeal muscles
  • levator veli palatini
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28
Q

1st Pharyngeal arch, bones and CT

A
  • maxilla
  • zygomatic bone
  • mandible
  • temporal bone
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29
Q

2nd pharyngeal arch, bones and CT

A
  • hyoid bone
  • stylohyoid ligament
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30
Q

4th/6th pharyngeal arch, bones and CT

A
  • cartilage of the larynx
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31
Q

Which Cranial nerves arise from the branchial arches?

A

1st - CN 5
2nd - CN 7
3rd - CN 9
4th/6th - CN 10

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32
Q

1st pharyngeal arch, arteries

A
  • maxillary
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33
Q

3rd pharyngeal arch,
arteries

A
  • common carotid a.
  • internal carotid a.
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34
Q

4th pharyngeal arch, arteries

A

right - subclavian a
left - aortic a

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35
Q

6th pharyngeal arch, arteries

A

right - right pulmonary a
left - left pulmonary a and ductus arteriosus

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36
Q

1st pharyngeal pouch

A

eustachian tube

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37
Q

2nd pharyngeal pouch

A

tonsils

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38
Q

3rd pharyngeal pouch

A
  • inferior parathyroid gland
  • thymus
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39
Q

4th pharyngeal pouch

A
  • superior parathyroid gland
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40
Q

What type of cells line the maxillary sinus?

A

stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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41
Q

Is the brachiocephalic artery on the right or left?

A

right

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42
Q

What does the brachiocephalic artery give rise to?

A
  • right subclavian artery
  • right common carotid artery
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43
Q

What muscle runs between the superior and middle pharyngeal constrictors?

A

stylopharyngeus

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44
Q

Where is transitional epithelium found?

A

ureters, bladder, and urethra

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45
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the gingiva?

A

stratified squamous keratinized

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46
Q

Where are the cell bodies found that are associated with the jaw jerk reflex?

A
  • mesencephalic nucleus
  • trigeminal motor nucleus
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47
Q

What is hyperacusis?

A
  • a common symptom of bell’s palsy
  • over sensitivity to certain volumes and frequencies of sound
    (associated with facial nerve)
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48
Q

When is a G protein receptor active? and inactive?

A

-when GTP is bound it becomes activated
-while bound to GDP it is inactive

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49
Q

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway occur?

A

in the cytoplasm of the liver, RBCs and cells of adrenal cortex

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50
Q

What 2 main things does the pentose phosphate pathway produce?

A

1-NADPH
2-Ribose-5 phosphate

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51
Q

What is NADPH used for?

A
  • fatty acid synthesis
  • steroid synthesis
  • prevent oxidative stress
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52
Q

What is Ribose-5 phosphate used for?

A

Production of pyrimidines and purines

53
Q

What is a unique characteristic of Thiamine?

A
  • it is the main transport form of the B complex
  • can become phosphorylated to Thiamine Diphosphate
54
Q

Which B vitamin is Riboflavin? And what is its purpose?

A

-B2
-metabolic energy production

55
Q

Which B vitamin is Folic Acid? and what is its purpose?

A

-B9
-help make RBCs and aid the function of Iron

56
Q

Which B vitamin is Pyridoxine? and what is its purpose?

A

-B6
-Utilization of food for energy

57
Q

Which B vitamin is Niacin? and what is its purpose?

A

-B3
- turn food into energy

58
Q

Which B vitamin is Thiamine? and what is its purpose?

A

-B1
-will decrease the activity in these enzymes
-Transketolase
-pyruvate dehydrogenase
-alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

59
Q

What does the P wave represent in an ECG?

A

Atrial depolarization

60
Q

What does the PR interval represent in an ECG?

A

time for electrical impulse to travel from SA node to AV node

61
Q

What does the QRS complex represent in an ECG?

A

Depolarization of the ventricles

62
Q

What does the T wave represent in an ECG?

A

Ventricular repolarization

63
Q

What molecule is used to measure Glomerular filtration rate?

A

Creatinine

64
Q

What is the rate limiting step of Glycolysis? and what is the enzyme?

A

-Fructose-6 phosphate —> Fructose-1,6 phosphate
-phosphofructokinase

65
Q

Rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

66
Q

Pernicious anemia?

A

B12 deficiency

67
Q

Pellagra?

A

Niacin deficiency

68
Q

scurvy?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

69
Q

Beriberi?

A

Thiamin deficiency

70
Q

Ariboflavinosis?

A

Riboflavin deficiency

71
Q

Characteristics of rotovirus

A

-segmented genome
-replicate in cytoplasm of host cell
-double stranded RNA virus
-fecal/oral route
-infects the GI tract causing severe diarrhea

72
Q

Common spread of carcinomas

A

lymphatic system

73
Q

common spread of sarcomas

A

hematogeneously through the veins, often developing in liver and lungs

74
Q

Mode of action of oncogenes

A

-can activate nuclear transcription
-can be growth factors
-can be growth factor receptors
-can be involved in signal transduction

75
Q

Phases of growth of standard bacteria

A

-lag
-log
-stationary
-death

76
Q

unique characteristic of legionella pneumophilia

A

produce beta-lactamase

77
Q

Bacteria that make IgA protease (4)

A

1-neisseria meningitidis
2-neisseria gonorrhoeae
3-Haemophilus influenzae
4-strep pneumoniae

78
Q

What is defined as reversible loss in lung volume?

A

Atelectasis

79
Q

Common DNA based viruses

A

-HSV
-Hep B
-HPV

80
Q

3 Examples of tumor markers

A

1-Beta2 microglobulin
2- alpha fetoprotein
3- thyroglobin

81
Q

Characteristics of an acute phase response

A

-fever
-increase in number of WBCs including neutrophils, B and T cells

82
Q

Acute phase response is due to which cytokines?

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha

83
Q

There are 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions, which is not mediated by antibodies?

A

Type 4

84
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

-involves skin, eyes and bronchopulmonary tissues
-mast cells or basophils

85
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

-affects organs and tissues
-antibodies, complement, neutrophils

86
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

-3-10 hours after exposure to antigen

87
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

A

-induration and erythema
-autoimmune and infectious diseases
-relies on Cells not antibodies

88
Q

Describe the primary immune response

A

-lag phase (no antibodies produces)
-plasma and B cells activated
-after response, minimal antibodies produced

89
Q

Describe the secondary immune response

A

-lag phase much shorter (body has memory)
-antibodies produced, high in IgG and IgM

90
Q

Which virus causes Verruca Vulgaris?

A

HPV

91
Q

What causes cystic fibrosis?

A

mutation in the Cl- transport protein

92
Q

Which teeth commonly exhibit a U, H or Y pattern in their occlusal anatomy?

A

Mandibular second premolars

93
Q

How are periapical cysts and periapical granulomas distiguished?

A

biopsy

94
Q

At what temperature does gutta percha transition from the beta phase to the alpha phase?

A

115 F

95
Q

What type of cysts are most common in the oral cavity associated with a non-vital tooth?

A

periapical cysts

96
Q

From what tissue are periapical cysts usually derived?

A

rest cells of Malassez

97
Q

What is nociceptive pain?

A

the normal process that results in noxious stimuli being perceived as painful

98
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

direct consequence of a lesion or disease affecting abnormal functioning of the PNS. It can result from an injury of peripheral nerves or the CNS

99
Q

Characteristics of neuropathic pain

A

-burning
-electric
-tingling
-stabbing

100
Q

What is allodynia?

A

pain that occurs after a weak or non-painful stimulus, such as light touch or a cold drink which normally doesn’t cause pain

101
Q

What is the optimal time for vital pulp therapy of an inflamed pulp?

A

24 hours

102
Q

How big are C fibers? And what is their rate of conduction?

A

-0.3 - 1.2 micrometers in diameter
-0.4 - 2.0 m/sec

103
Q

Which nerve fibers are larger in diameter, A or C fibers?

A

A

104
Q

Which nerve is responsible for eye closure?

A

Facial

105
Q

Which type of tissue makes up junctional epithelium

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized

106
Q

Which hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary?

All are basophilic hormones except one, which is the exception?

A

-Luteinizing hormone
-follicle stimulating hormone
-adrenocorticotropic hormone
-thyroid stimulating hormone
-Growth hormone

107
Q

Where are hassall’s corpuscles found?

A

Thymus

108
Q

Function of type 1 alveolar cells

A

form the structure of the alveolar wall

109
Q

Function of type 2 alveolar cells

A

secrete surfactant

110
Q

What is the origin of the inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate

111
Q

What is the origin of the superior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

112
Q

At which level does the trachea bifurcate?

A

level of the sternal angle

113
Q

Nissl bodies correspond with which cytoplasmic organelles?

A

Rough ER

114
Q

Where is Auerbach’s plexus found?

A

Muscularis externa

115
Q

What are the zones of cartilage from epiphysis inward?

A

-resting
-proliferation
-hypertrophy
-calcification
-ossification

116
Q

Which nerve innervates the tensor veli palatini?

A

CN 5, mandibular branch

117
Q

Which 2 muscles does the pterygomandibular raphe attach to?

A

-superior pharyngeal constrictor
-buccinator

118
Q

Which node does most of the oral cavity’s lymphatics drain to?

A

submandibular

119
Q

What surrounds a muscle fiber?

A

endomysium

120
Q

what surrounds a muscle fascicle (bundle of muscle fibers)?

A

perimysium

121
Q

What surrounds the entire msucle?

A

epimysium

122
Q

What intermediate is common to both cholesterol and ketone body synthesis?

A

HMG CoA

123
Q

If a substrate has a high Km value in a reaction, is the affinity for the enzyme higher or lower?

A

lower

124
Q

Characteristics of Ketone bodies

A
  • produced from acetyl coA in the mitochondria of the liver
    -byproducts when FAs are broken down in the liver
    -3 ketone bodies
125
Q

What are the 3 ketone bodies?

A

Acetone
Acetoacetate acid
beta-hydroxybutyric acid

126
Q

What is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?

A

M phase

127
Q

At what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

S phase

128
Q

4 post-translational modifications of histones that help regulate the condensation of chromatin

A

-acetylation of lysine residues (DNA repair)
-methylation of lysine (assists in formation of chromatin and proper programming of genome)
-phosphorylation of serine or tyrosine (help process of chromatin condensation during mitosis)
-ubiquitination of lysine (help proteins signal for their degredation)

129
Q

Characteristics of type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta

A

-dominantly inherited disease
-mildest and most common form of condition
-mild bone fragility
-misshaped blue teeth
-blue sclerae
-normal collagen
(type 2 and 3 have abnormal synthesis of collagen)

130
Q

What is the relative refractory period in relation to the absolute refractory period?

A

The relative refractory period is after the absolute refractory period, the cells are not yet completely repolarized but if there is a strong stimulus, a small action potential can be generated.

Biomedical Science (3 decks)

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