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Biology Paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Are plant cells eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic

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2
Q

Are animal cells eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic

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3
Q

Are bacteria eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotic

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4
Q

Which are smaller, bacterial or pant cells?

A

Bacterial cells

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5
Q

How much more smaller are bacterial cells than animal cells?

A

100 times smaller

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6
Q

Describe the difference in where the genetic material is located between an animal and bacterial cell.

A

In an animal cell the genetic material is enclosed in a nucleus, whereas in the bacteria it is NOT FOUND IN A NUCLEUS, but it floats freely in the cytoplasm as a single circular strand of DNA

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7
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Small rings of DNA

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8
Q

True or false? “Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall.”

A

True.

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9
Q

Which are bigger; bacterial cells (prokaryotes) or eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes.

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10
Q

True or false? “Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus.”

A

False.

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11
Q

In what form is the genetic material in a prokaryotic cell?

A

A single DNA loop.

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12
Q

Name five common parts of animal and plant cells.

A

Nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane, mitochondria, ribosomes

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13
Q

Describe the function of the nucleus.

A

Controls the cells activities.

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14
Q

Describe the function of the cytoplasm.

A

Gel-like substances where most of the chemical reactions happen.

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15
Q

Describe the function of the cell membrane.

A

Controls the movement of substances into and out of the cell.

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16
Q

Describe the function of the mitochondria.

A

Where aerobic respiration occurs to release energy from glucose.

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17
Q

Describe the function of the ribosomes.

A

Protein synthesis.

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18
Q

Describe the function of the chloroplasts.

A

The location of photosynthesis.

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19
Q

State the three subcellular structures found in a plant cell that are not found in an animal cell.

A

Cell wall, permanent vacuole and chloroplasts.

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20
Q

Which strong material is the cell wall of plants and algal cells made from?

A

Cellulose.

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21
Q

Name the green pigment found in the chloroplast of plant cells.

A

Chlorophyll.

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22
Q

Why are cells specialised?

A

To carry out a particular function

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23
Q

Why do sperm cells contain lots of mitochondria?

A

To provide the energy needed to swim to an egg cell.

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24
Q

Why do sperm carry enzymes in their head?

A

The enzymes digest through the egg cell membrane so they can reach the nucleus.

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25
Q

Why do nerve cells have branched endings?

A

They allow them to connect to many other nerve cells and form a network throughout the body.

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26
Q

Why do muscles cells contain lots of mitochondria?

A

Muscles contract which requires large amounts of energy, this energy is released from glucose in the mitochondria in a process called respiration.

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27
Q

How are root hair cells specialised for absorbing water?

A

They have a large surface area for absorbing water and mineral ions from the soil.

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28
Q

When do most types of animal cells differentiate?

A

At an early stage of their development.

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29
Q

What is differentiation?

A

It is the process by which cells become specialised.

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30
Q

When do plant cells differentiate?

A

Most types of plant cells differentiate throughout their entire life.

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31
Q

What is the main purpose of differentiation in mature animals.

A

Repair and replace cells.

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32
Q

Give an example of two cell types that need to be replaced regularly.

A

Skin and blood cells.

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33
Q

As a cell differentiates, why does it acquire different sub-cellular structures?

A

To enable it to carry out its particular function.

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34
Q

What are the two advantages of electron microscopes over light microscopes?

A
  1. Increased magnification, 2. Increased resolution.
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35
Q

What is the “resolution” or “resolving power” of a microscope?

A

The ability to distinguish between two points.

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36
Q

What are the three forms of equation used to calculate magnification (M), the image size (I) or the actual size of an object (A)?

A
  1. A=I/M, 2. I=A x M, 3. M=I/A
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37
Q

A specimen is 50 micrometres wide. Calculate the width of the image of the specimen under a magnification of x100. Give your answer in mm.

A

100 x 50 = 5000 micrometres, 5000micrometers = 5mm

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38
Q

What is 1340000 nm expressed in standard form?

A

1.34 x 106 nm

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39
Q

What do light microscopes use to form an image?

A

Light.

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40
Q

What do electron microscopes sue to form an image?

A

Electrons.

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41
Q

When using a microscope, which objective lens should a student use first? X4, x10, 40 or x100?

A

X4

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42
Q

Why should you use the smallest magnification object lens first, when viewing a specimen?

A

gives the largest field of view
or
easier to focus

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43
Q

The size of an image is 22mm. The magnification is x1000000. Calculate the real size of the cell in micrometres.

A

25 / 100000 = 0.00025mm, 0.00025mm = 0.25 micrometres

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44
Q

State three things you should do when drawing your observations from a microscope.

A

Drawing takes up half the page, draw with clear unbroken lines, use a sharp pencil, include a title, include the magnification, label the most important features, do not include colouring or shading

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45
Q

How has electron microscopy increased biologists’ understanding of cells?

A

Allow us to study cells in much finer details
understand and see more sub-cellular structures
such as ribosomes and plasmids
and the internal structures of mitochondria and chloroplasts

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46
Q

Why is iodine normally added to a specimen slide?

A

Iodine is a stain

easier to see the different parts of a cell

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47
Q

What material is found in the nucleus of cells?

A

Genetic material.

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48
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Coiled up length of DNA molecules.

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49
Q

What are genes?

A

Small section of a chromosome that codes for the development of a characteristic / protein.

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50
Q

How many chromosomes are found in a normal human nucleus?

A

23 pairs or 46.

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51
Q

How many copies of each chromosome do we have?

A

2 copies.

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52
Q

Where do the copies of our chromosomes originate from?

A

One copy from our mother and the other copy from our father.

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53
Q

What happens during the three overall stages of the cell cycle?

A

1) Growth and DNA replication
2) Mitosis - complete set of chromosomes pulled to each end of the cell, two new nuclei form
3) Cytoplasm and cell membrane divide

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54
Q

What has to happen within the cell before it can divide? (2 steps)

A
  1. Cell organelles (e.g. mitochondria and ribosomes) have to replicate, 2. DNA has to be replicated (copied).
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55
Q

How many chromosomes will be present in a cell after DNA replication?

A

92 OR 46 pairs.

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56
Q

What is the main purpose of mitosis in multicellular organisms?

A

Growth and development.

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57
Q

In mitosis where do the chromosomes line up before being pulled apart?

A

Line up at the centre of the cell.

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58
Q

How many daughter cells are made at the end of the cell cycle?

A

Two.

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59
Q

How would you describe the daughter cells produced at the end of the cell cycle in relation to the parent cell?

A

The daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.

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60
Q

Describe the shape of the chromosomes formed during DNA replication.

A

X shaped chromosome.

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61
Q

If a parent cell has 56 chromosomes and undergoes the cell cycle, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells have?

A

They will also have 56 chromosomes.

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62
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

An undifferentiated cell.

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63
Q

Define differentiation.

A

The process by which a cell becomes specialised.

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64
Q

Name the two sources of stem cells in humans.

A

1) Human embryos

2) Adult stem cells - bone marrow

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65
Q

Describe the main difference between stem cells found in human embryos and adult stem cells found in the bone marrow.

A

Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into MOST type of cells but adult stem cells cannot. Adult stem cells only differentiate into SOME types of cells such as blood cells.

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66
Q

Where are stem cells found in plants?

A

In the meristem.

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67
Q

What is a potential use of stem cells in medicine?

A

To treat conditions where cells have been damaged e.g. diabetes, paralysis.

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68
Q

What is therapeutic cloning?

A

An embryo is produced with the same genes as the patient.

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69
Q

Describe an advantage of using stem cells created from therapeutic cloning.

A

Less chance the cells are rejected by a patient, because they have the same genes.

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70
Q

Describe a risk involved in growing stem cells in a lab.

A

Stem cells may become infected with a virus which could be passed on to the patient.

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71
Q

Why might some people be against stem cell research?

A

1) They may see each embryo as a potential human life

2) They may have religious objections to the use of stem cells

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72
Q

State three advantages of using stem cells to produce identical plants.

A

1) Clones can be produced quickly and cheaply.
2) They can be used to grow more rare species
3) Can be used to grow plants that have desired features such as diseases resistance.

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73
Q

Name the process by which oxygen moves into cells.

A

Diffusion.

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74
Q

Define “diffusion”.

A

The net movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

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75
Q

State the three factors that affect the rate of diffusion.

A

1) Concentration gradient
2) Temperature
3) Surface area

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76
Q

How does temperature affect the rate of diffusion?

A

Increasing temperature increases the rate of diffusion

Decreasing temperature decreases the rate of diffusion.

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77
Q

Does a single-celled organism have a higher or lower surface area:volume ratio compared to a multicellular organism?

A

Higher.

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78
Q

An organism has a surface area of 50m2 and a volume of 20m3. What is its surface area to volume ratio?

A

2.5:1

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79
Q

Why do multicellular organisms tend to need exchange surfaces and transport systems?

A

Low SA:vol, therefore cannot rely on diffusion across cell membranes.

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80
Q

How does the concentration gradient affect the rate of diffusion?

A

The higher the concentration gradient the faster the rate of diffusion.

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81
Q

State the states of matter that diffusion can be applicable to.

A

Liquids and gases.

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82
Q

Can diffusion happen in solids?

A

No

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83
Q

How are the small intestines adapted for exchanging materials?

A

1) Covered in villi giving them a large surface area
2) Good blood supply
3) Single layer of surface cells - short diffusion pathway

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84
Q

How are the lungs in mammals adapted for exchanging materials?

A

1) Have many alveoli which provide a large surface area
2) Moist lining - allow the easy dissolving of gases
3) Alveoli walls are one cell thick - short diffusion pathway
4) Good blood supply

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85
Q

How are the leaves in plants adapted for exchanging materials?

A

1) Flattened shape of the leaf increases surface area for exchange
2) Underneath of the leaf contains small holes called stomata which allows gases to pass through
3) There are air spaces in the leaf to maximise exposed surface area

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86
Q

Define osmosis.

A

Osmosis is the net movement of water molecules across a partially permeable membrane from a region of high water concentration to a region of low water concentration.

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87
Q

What is a partially permeable membrane?

A

A membrane with small holes in it that allows small molecules like water to pass through but restricts large molecules like starch from passing through.

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88
Q

What happens to an animal cell that loses a lot of water?

A

It shrivels up.

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89
Q

What can happen to an animal cell that gains a large amount of water by osmosis?

A

The cell can burst.

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90
Q

What happens to a plant cell if it loses a lot of water?

A

It becomes plasmolysed (cell membrane shrinks away from the cell wall).

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91
Q

If a plant cell gains a lot of water, what happens?

A

It becomes turgid (cell membrane pushes up against the cell wall).

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92
Q

If a solution is isotonic to the cell, what does this mean?

A

It means the concentration of solutes in the solution outside the cell is the same as the internal concentration.

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93
Q

If a solution is hypertonic to the cell, what does this mean?

A

It means the concentration of solutes in the solution outside the cell is higher than the internal concentration.

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94
Q

If a solution is hypotonic to the cell, what does this mean?

A

It means the concentration of solutes in the solution outside the cell is lower than the internal concentration.

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95
Q

How would water move if a solution was hypotonic to a cell?

A

More water would move into the cell by osmosis.

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96
Q

How would water move if a solution was hypertonic to a cell?

A

More water would move out of the cell by osmosis.

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97
Q

Define active transport.

A

It is the movement of substances from a more dilute solution to a more concentrated solution (against a concentration gradient). This requires energy from respiration.

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98
Q

If there is a low concentration of mineral ions in the soil and a high concentration of mineral ions in the roots, by which process are the minerals absorbed an why?

A

The minerals would be absorbed by active transport because the movement of mineral ions would be against a concentration gradient and so require energy.

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99
Q

What process the energy needed for active transport?

A

Respiration

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100
Q

Does osmosis require energy?

A

No

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101
Q

Does diffusion require energy?

A

No

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102
Q

Why does active transport require energy?

A

Substances are moved against a concentration gradient, this require energy.

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103
Q

Describe the difference between how water and mineral ions are taken up by the roots.

A

Water is taken up by osmosis, whereas mineral ions are taken up by active transport.

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104
Q

Epithelial cells in the small intestine absorb food molecules by diffusion and active transport. Why is it necessary to absorb some food molecules by active transport?

A

So that the food molecules can be absorbed against a concentration gradient.

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105
Q

Epithelial cells in the small intestine absorb food molecules. Suggest why contain a large number of mitochondria?

A

Respiration releases energy from glucose, this is needed for active transport.

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106
Q

What are the basic building blocks of all organisms?

A

Cells.

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107
Q

What is the definition of a cell?

A

The individual unit of an organism.

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108
Q

What is the definition of a tissue?

A

Cells of the same type working together to perform a specific function.

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109
Q

What is the definition of an organ?

A

A structure made from different tissue types to perform a specific function.

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110
Q

What is the definition of an organ system?

A

Multiple organs working together to perform a specific function.

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111
Q

Is the stomach a cell, tissue or organ?

A

An Organ.

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112
Q

Is blood a cell, tissue or organ?

A

Tissue.

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113
Q

What is the function of the mouth in digestion?

A

To mechanically break up food into smaller pieces to increase surface area.

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114
Q

What is the function of stomach acid?

A

To kill potentially pathogenic microorganisms in food (NOT to digest food).
To provide the optimum pH for enzymes to work at

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115
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

To absorb carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids, vitamins and mineral ions from digested food.

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116
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

To absorb water from digested food.

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117
Q

What is the function of the liver in digestion?

A

To produce bile, an emulsifying and neutralising substance.

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118
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder?

A

To store bile until it can be released into the small intestine.

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119
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A protein which can catalyse a reaction (speed it up) without being used up itself.

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120
Q

What is a substrate?

A

A molecule or atom which is acted upon by an enzyme.

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121
Q

Name two environmental conditions that can change an enzyme’s active site.

A

1.pH (either higher or lower than optimum), 2.Higher than optimal temperature

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122
Q

Name where carbohydrase is made in the body.

A

Salivary glands, pancreas and small intestine.

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123
Q

What do carbohydrases break down and what is produced?

A

Carbohydrates to simple sugars (e.g. amylase breaks down starch to glucose).

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124
Q

Name where protease is made in the body.

A

Stomach, pancreas and small intestine.

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125
Q

What do proteases break down and what is produced?

A

Proteins to amino acids.

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126
Q

Name where lipase is made in the body.

A

Stomach, pancreas and small intestine.

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127
Q

What do lipases break down and what is produced?

A

Lipids (fats) to fatty acids and glycerol.

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128
Q

How does bile help the action of lipase? (2)

A
  1. Provides alkaline conditions by neutralising acid from the stomach, 2. Emulsifies fat to form small droplets with a larger surface area.
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129
Q

What happens to the active site of an enzyme if the temperature is to high?

A

The active site changes shape and the enzyme becomes denatured.

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130
Q

What is the name of the model that describes the mechanism for how enzymes work on substrates?

A

Lock and Key model

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131
Q

What are the products of digestion used for?

A

To build new carbohydrates, lipids and proteins.

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132
Q

Why does food need to be digested?

A

To convert it into small soluble molecules that can be absorbed into the bloodstream.

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133
Q

Name the test used to test for reducing sugars

A

Benedict’s test.

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134
Q

Name the test used to test for starch

A

Iodine.

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135
Q

Name the test used to test for proteins.

A

Biuret test.

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136
Q

Name the test used to test for lipids.

A

Ethanol or Sudan III test.

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137
Q

Describe the colour change for a positive test for proteins using the Biuret test.

A

Blue to pink or purple.

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138
Q

Describe the colour change for a positive test for reducing sugars using the Benedict’s test.

A

Blue to green, yellow or brick-red.

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139
Q

Describe the colour change for a positive test for starch using the Iodine test.

A

Browny-orange to blue-black

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140
Q

What is the scientific name given to the windpipe.

A

The Trachea.

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141
Q

What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the lungs.

A

The pleural membrane.

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142
Q

What are the name of the small air sacs located at the end of the bronchioles in the lungs.

A

Alveoli.

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143
Q

What is the name of the gas that passes from the alveoli into the blood capillaries?

A

Oxygen.

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144
Q

What is the name of the gas that passes from the blood capillaries into the alveoli?

A

Carbon dioxide.

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145
Q

What type of circulatory system do humans have?

A

A double circulatory system.

146
Q

Name the three components of the circulatory system.

A

The heart, blood vessels and blood.

147
Q

Where does the right ventricle pump blood to, and is the blood oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

148
Q

Where does the left ventricle pump blood to, and is the blood oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body (excluding the lungs).

149
Q

Which system transports substances around the body in the blood?

A

The circulatory system.

150
Q

What tissue are the walls of the heart made from?

A

Muscle tissue.

151
Q

Name the two types of chambers in the heart

A

Atria and ventricles.

152
Q

Name the upper chambers of the heart?

A

Atria.

153
Q

Name the lower chambers of the heart?

A

Ventricles.

154
Q

Where do the atria force blood upon contraction?

A

To the ventricles.

155
Q

What is the job of the heart valves?

A

To prevent backflow of blood in the heart.

156
Q

Through which blood vessel does blood flow away from the heart?

A

Arteries.

157
Q

Through which blood vessel does blood flow back into the heart?

A

Veins.

158
Q

Name the blood vessel by which blood leaves to the rest of the body.

A

Aorta.

159
Q

Name the blood vessel by which blood arrives back from the rest of the body.

A

Vena cava.

160
Q

Name the blood vessel by which blood leaves the heart to the lungs.

A

Pulmonary artery.

161
Q

Name the blood vessel by which blood leaves the lungs to go back to the heart.

A

Pulmonary vein.

162
Q

Where are the pacemaker cells located in the heart?

A

In the walls of the right atrium.

163
Q

What do the pacemaker cells in the heart do?

A

They control your resting heart rate.

164
Q

Which blood vessels have thick walls containing muscle tissue and elastic fibres?

A

Arteries.

165
Q

Which blood vessels have thin walls and contain valves?

A

Veins.

166
Q

Why do capillaries have permeable walls?

A

To allow substances to diffuse through them.

167
Q

Why are the walls of capillaries only one cell thick?

A

Short diffusion pathway to increase the rate of diffusion of substances.

168
Q

Do arteries or veins have a larger lumen?

A

Veins.

169
Q

Where are the lungs located?

A

The upper part of the body (thorax).

170
Q

What bones protect the lungs?

A

Ribcage.

171
Q

How are the lungs in mammals adapted for exchanging materials?

A

1) Have many alveoli which provide a large surface area
2) Moist lining - allow the easy dissolving of gases
3) Alveoli walls are one cell thick - short diffusion pathway
4) Good blood supply

172
Q

What is the liquid part of blood called?

A

Plasma.

173
Q

Name the four components of blood.

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma.

174
Q

What do red blood cells transport?

A

Oxygen.

175
Q

What do red blood cells lack that normal cells have?

A

A nucleus.

176
Q

What do platelets do?

A

Help clot the blood at wound sites.

177
Q

What is the role of white blood cells in the body?

A

Defend the body against microorganisms.

178
Q

What is the name of the pigment found in red blood cells?

A

Haemoglobin.

179
Q

In the lungs which gas binds to haemoglobin?

A

Oxygen.

180
Q

Why do red blood cells not contain a nucleus?

A

To allow more room to carry oxygen.

181
Q

Describe the shape of red blood cells.

A

Biconcave shape.

182
Q

Name three things that are transported in the blood plasma.

A

Carbon dioxide, urea, hormones, proteins and antibodies.

183
Q

What is produced when oxygen binds with haemoglobin?

A

Oxyhaemoglobin.

184
Q

What are the coronary arteries?

A

Blood vessels that supply the heart muscle tissue.

185
Q

What occurs in CHD and how does this effect the heart?

A

The coronary arteries become blocked with fatty deposits, narrowing them.
Reduces flow of blood to the heart, therefore reducing supply of oxygen.
Oxygen is needed for respiration - so less respiration occurs.
Leading to a heart attack

186
Q

How do stents treat CHD?

A

Re-opens the blocked coronary artery, restoring blood flow.

187
Q

How do statins treat CHD?

A

Decreases the blood concentration of cholesterol, which reduces build-up of fatty deposits in the coronary arteries.

188
Q

State three disadvantages of taking statins.

A

1) Have to be taken regularly
2) Can cause side effects such as headaches
3) They don’t have an instant effect

189
Q

State two complications that can arise during or after surgery to implant stents.

A

1) Infection from surgery

2) Blood clot developing near the stent

190
Q

Name two sources of replacement heart valves.

A
  1. Mechanical.

2. Biological (e.g. pigs or sheep).

191
Q

Why are faulty heart valves life-threatening?

A

Allows backflow of blood - leading to poor circulation.

192
Q

Describe a treatment used in the case of total heart failure.

A

Heart transplant.

193
Q

When would an artificial heart be used?

A
  1. To allow the heart to rest and recover.

2. To keep the patient alive whilst they wait for a transplant.

194
Q

State the main advantage in using an artificial heart over a donor heart.

A

An artificial heart is likely to be rejected by a person’s immune system.

195
Q

What is artificial blood.

A

It is a blood substitute usually a salt solution (saline)

196
Q

If after being given artificial blood a person is not able to produce new blood cells quickly, what will the patient need?

A

A blood transfusion.

197
Q

State two disadvantages of artificial hearts.

A

1) Blood doesn’t flow as smoothly which can cause blood clots.
2) Parts of the heart could wear out or the electric motor could fail.

198
Q

What is “health”?

A

The state of physical and mental well-being.

199
Q

What are the two types of disease?

A

Communicable (caused by a pathogen) and non-communicable.

200
Q

Name three factors, other than pathogens, which can influence health.

A
  1. Diet
  2. Stress
  3. Life situations
201
Q

How can severe physical ill health affect your mental heath?

A

It can lead to depression.

202
Q

Which non-communicable diseases can viruses such as HPV trigger?

A

Cancer.

203
Q

The hepatitis virus causes long-term infections in the liver, this increases the chance of developing which type of cancer?

A

Liver cancer.

204
Q

What is a risk factor?

A

A factor linked to an increased rate of disease.

205
Q

Give two general examples of a risk factor.

A
  1. The lifestyle of a person

2. Substances in the person’s body or environment

206
Q

State a risk factor for diabetes.

A

Obesity.

207
Q

State a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

A

1) Poor diet
2) Smoking
3) Lack of exercise

208
Q

State a risk factor for liver disease.

A

Alcohol consumption.

209
Q

State a risk factor for lung cancer.

A

Smoking.

210
Q

What is cancer?

A

The uncontrolled growth and division of cells.

211
Q

What is a benign tumour?

A

A growth of abnormal cells which is contained in one area within the body and will not invade other body parts.

212
Q

What is a malignant tumour?

A

A growth of abnormal cells which invade neighbouring tissues and spread to different parts of the body in the blood where they form secondary tumours.

213
Q

Which type of tumour is cancerous?

A

Malignant tumours.

214
Q

Which type of tumour is more dangerous and can be fatal.

A

Malignant tumours.

215
Q

Name a risk factor for lung cancer.

A

Smoking.

216
Q

Name a risk factor for skin cancer.

A

Excessive UV exposure.

217
Q

Name a risk factor for breast and ovarian cancer.

A

Inheriting faulty gene.

218
Q

Which type of tumour is localised and does not spread?

A

Benign tumours.

219
Q

Name six plant tissues.

A

Epidermal, palisade mesophyll, spongy mesophyll, xylem, phloem, meristem.

220
Q

Is the leaf a cell, tissue or organ?

A

Organ.

221
Q

What is the epidermal tissue in a plant?

A

The tissue that covers the whole plant.

222
Q

What process mostly happens in the palisade mesophyll tissue?

A

Photosynthesis.

223
Q

Describe how the structure of the spongy mesophyll tissue is related to its function.

A

It contains large air spaces that allow for the diffusion of gases into and out of cells.

224
Q

Why is the upper epidermis transparent?

A

So light can pass through it to reach the palisade layer.

225
Q

How does the structure of the upper epidermis reduce water loss by evaporation?

A

It is covered in a waxy cuticle.

226
Q

What are the names of the holes in the lower epidermis?

A

Stomata.

227
Q

What cells control the opening and closing of the stomata?

A

Guard cells.

228
Q

Which gas diffuses into the leaf through the stomata?

A

Carbon dioxide.

229
Q

Name four factors which affect the rate of transpiration in plants.

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Humidity
  3. Air movement
  4. Light intensity
230
Q

What is translocation?

A

The movement of sugars from the leaves to the rest of the plant through the phloem.

231
Q

What is transpiration?

A

The movement of water from the roots to the leaves through the xylem, eventually leaving the leaves via evaporation.

232
Q

What is the function of the xylem?

A

Transport water and mineral ions from the roots to the rest of the plant

233
Q

What is the function of the phloem?

A

Transport dissolved sugars from the leaves to the rest of the plant

234
Q

What effect does temperature have on the rate of transpiration?

A

Higher temperatures increase the rate of transpiration

235
Q

What effect does humidity have on the rate of transpiration?

A

Higher levels of humidity decrease the rate of transpiration

236
Q

Why does increased light intensity increase the rate of transpiration?

A

Stomata open wider to let more carbon dioxide into the leaf for photosynthesis

237
Q

Describe the structure of phloem tissue.

A

Made of columns of elongated living cells with small pores in the end walls.

238
Q

Describe the structure of xylem tissue.

A

Made of dead cells joined end to end with no end walls between them.
They are strengthened with a material called lignin.

239
Q

What equipment can you use to estimate the rate of transpiration?

A

A potometer.

240
Q

During what time of day the stomata close?

A

At night?

241
Q

What happens to the guard cells and the stomata when the plant is short of water?

A

The guard cells become flaccid making the stomata close.

242
Q

What happens to the guard cells and the stomata when the plant has a plentiful supply of water?

A

The guard cells become turgid making the stomata open.

243
Q

Name the three main ways in which pathogens can be spread.

A

Water, air and direct contact.

244
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Disease causing microorganisms.

245
Q

How do bacteria make you ill?

A

They produce toxins which damage cells and tissue, this damage makes you ill.

246
Q

How do viruses make you ill?

A

Viruses reproduce inside cells using the cell’s machinery. The cell eventually bursts releasing new viruses. The cell damage makes you ill.

247
Q

Name the four different pathogens.

A

Bacteria, Viruses, Protists and Fungi.

248
Q

How can pathogens be spread by water?

A

By drinking or bathing in contaminated water.

249
Q

How can pathogens be spread by air?

A

Pathogens can be carried in the are in droplets produced when people cough or sneeze.

250
Q

State the four ways in which the spread of diseases can be reduced or prevented.

A

1) Being hygienic
2) Destroying vectors
3) Isolating infected individuals
4) Vaccination

251
Q

How is the measles virus spread?

A

Inhalation of droplets from sneezes and coughs.

252
Q

Why are children vaccinated against the measles virus?

A

Measles is a serious illness that can be fatal if complications arise.

253
Q

What are the initial symptoms of HIV infection?

A

HIV initially causes a flu-like illness.

254
Q

How is HIV spread?

A

By sexual contact or by exchanging bodily fluids such as blood.

255
Q

What type of drugs are used to control HIV?

A

Antiretroviral drugs.

256
Q

What do antiretroviral drugs do?

A

Stop the virus from replicating inside the body.

257
Q

How does HIV lead to AIDS?

A

When the body’s immune system becomes so badly damaged it can no longer deal with other infections or cancers.

258
Q

What body cells does the HIV attack?

A

The cells of the immune system.

259
Q

What does TMV stand for?

A

Tobacco mosaic virus.

260
Q

What does TMV do to plants?

A

It causes mosaic like patterns on the leaves of plants causing discouloration. This means plants can’t carry out photosynthesis as well, so the virus affects growth.

261
Q

What type of pathogen is salmonella caused by?

A

Bacteria.

262
Q

What symptoms might people infected with salmonella exhibit?

A

Fever, stomach cramps, vomiting and diarrhoea.

263
Q

How is the spread of Salmonella controlled in the UK?

A

In the UK, poultry are vaccinated against Salmonella to control the spread.

264
Q

How does a person become infected with salmonella?

A

By ingesting contaminated food, or food prepared in unhygienic conditions.

265
Q

How is the bacterial disease Gonorrhoea spread?

A

Gonorrhoea is spread by sexual contact.

266
Q

How can the spread of the bacterial disease Gonorrhoea be controlled?

A

Treatment with antibiotics or use of a barrier method of contraception e.g. condoms.

267
Q

What are the symptoms of Gonorrhoea?

A

Thick yellow or green discharge from the vagina or penis and pain on urination.

268
Q

What issues are there with the treatment for Gonorrhoea?

A

Was easily treated with the antibiotic penicillin until many resistant strains appeared.

269
Q

How does rose black spot affect the leaves of a plant?

A

Plant develops purple or black spots on the leaves.

270
Q

Why does rose black spot affect the growth of a plant?

A

The purple or black spots on leaves causes them to turn yellow and drop off, this means less photosynthesis so the plant doesn’t grow as well.

271
Q

How is rose black spot spread in the environment?

A

By wind or water.

272
Q

How can gardeners treat plants infected with rose black spot?

A

Using fungicides and/or removing and destroying the affected leaves.

273
Q

What type of pathogen causes malaria?

A

Protist.

274
Q

How is malaria spread?

A

Mosquitos are vectors, they spread the disease by feeding on animals.

275
Q

What symptoms does malaria cause?

A

Repeating episodes of fever. They can be fatal.

276
Q

How is the spread of malaria controlled?

A

1) Destroying the mosquito vector by using insecticides
2) Stopping the mosquito vector from breeding
3) Using mosquito nets

277
Q

What are the four first line non-specific defence systems of the human body against pathogens?

A

Skin, nose, trachea and bronchi, stomach.

278
Q

What is the role of the immune system?

A

If a pathogen enters the body the immune system tries to destroy the pathogen.

279
Q

Name three ways in which white blood cells help to defend against pathogens.

A

Phagocytosis, antibody production, antitoxin production. (Make sure you know how each of these work)

280
Q

What happens during phagocytosis?

A

White blood cells engulf and digest invading pathogens.

281
Q

What type of substances does the skin secrete that kill pathogens?

A

Antimicrobial substances.

282
Q

Describe the role of the hairs and mucus in your nose in defending against pathogens.

A

They trap particles that could contain pathogens.

283
Q

Describe the role of the stomach in defending against pathogens.

A

Produces hydrochloric acid which kills pathogens.

284
Q

What do antitoxins do?

A

The neutralise the effects of toxins produced by bacteria.

285
Q

What is the name of the unique molecules found on surface of pathogens?

A

Antigens.

286
Q

What does a vaccination contain?

A

A small quantity of dead or inactive forms of a pathogen.

287
Q

How does the contents of a vaccine prevent future infection?

A

It stimulates the white blood cells to produce specific antibodies. If the same pathogen re-enters the body the white blood cells respond quickly to produce more of the correct antibodies quickly, preventing infection.

288
Q

State two advantages of vaccination.

A

1) Help control lots of communicable diseases and in some cases has eradicated some diseases.
2) Provide herd immunity - control outbreaks of a disease called epidemics

289
Q

State two disadvantages of vaccination.

A

1) They don’t always work.

2) Sometimes people have a bad reaction to the vaccine e.g. swelling

290
Q

Which pathogens do antibiotics work against?

A

Bacteria.

291
Q

Why aren’t antibiotics used against viruses?

A

Viruses reproduce inside of cells. It is difficult to produce drugs that kill viruses without also damaging the body’s tissue.

292
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

They kill the infective bacteria inside the body.

293
Q

How are painkillers different to antibiotics?

A

Antibiotics kill bacteria whereas painkillers only relieve symptoms and do not kill pathogens.

294
Q

Can a single antibiotic be used against all bacteria?

A

No, specific bacteria should be treated by specific antibiotics.

295
Q

Why are antibiotic resistant strains a concern to medical professionals?

A

These bacteria often cause serious infection and can’t be treated by antibiotics.

296
Q

State two ways in which the rate of development of resistant strains of bacteria can be slowed down.

A

1) Doctors should avoid over-prescribing antibiotics.

2) Patients should finish the whole course of antibiotics they are given.

297
Q

Name the drug developed from a chemical found in the willow tree.

A

Aspirin.

298
Q

What is the drug aspirin used for?

A

Used as a painkiller and to lower fever.

299
Q

What is digitalis used to treat?

A

Heart conditions.

300
Q

The drug digitalis was developed from a chemical found in which plant?

A

Foxgloves.

301
Q

Which scientist discovered the antibiotic penicillin?

A

Alexander Fleming.

302
Q

What happens during preclinical testing?

A

The drug is tested in a laboratory on cells, tissues and live animals.

303
Q

Which three important things are determined about the drug during drug testing?

A

The drug’s toxicity, efficacy and optimum dose.

304
Q

What is involved in the first stage of a clinical trial?

A

Clinical trials use small numbers of healthy volunteers and patients. Very low doses of the drug are given at the start of the clinical trial.

305
Q

If a drug is found to be safe in the first stage of testing, what happens next?

A

If the drug is found to be safe, further clinical trials on larger groups of healthy volunteers and patients are carried out to find the optimum dose for the drug.

306
Q

What is a double blind trial?

A

In double blind trials, some patients are given a placebo and the remaining patients the drug being tested. Neither the doctor nor patient know who has been given the drug or placebo. Prevents bias.

307
Q

Why is it essential for drug trial results to be peer reviewed before they are published?

A

To help prevent false claims.

308
Q

State the word equation for photosynthesis.

A

Carbon dioxide + water -> glucose + oxygen (light above the arrow)

309
Q

State the balanced chemical symbol equation for photosynthesis.

A

6CO2 + 6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

310
Q

Is photosynthesis an endothermic or exothermic reaction and why?

A

Endothermic because light energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

311
Q

What is the main of the pigment that absorbs light in plants?

A

Chlorophyll.

312
Q

In which subcellular structure does photosynthesis occur?

A

Chloroplasts.

313
Q

Why is light written on top of the arrow when writing the photosynthesis equation?

A

Light is not a chemical so is not written as a reactant.

314
Q

Name the three factors which affect the rate of photosynthesis.

A

Temperature, light intensity, carbon dioxide concentration

315
Q

What is the inverse square law that describes how distance is linked to light intensity?

A

Light intensity decreases in proportion to the square of the distance. So if distance is halved light intensity increases four fold.

316
Q

Why can’t a commercial grower of plants just increase all three limiting factors of PHS to maximum levels to obtain optimum growth?

A

Light, temperature and CO2 all cost money to supply – a balance between expenditure and income must be struck for a profit to be made.

317
Q

When would we expect a higher rate of photosynthesis, at night or during the day?

A

During the day.

318
Q

What is a limiting factor for photosynthesis?

A

A factor that stops the rate of photosynthesis from increasing any further?

319
Q

On a graph showing light intensity against the rate of photosynthesis, what could be the limiting factors for the flat section of the graph?

A

Carbon dioxide concentration or temperature.

320
Q

On a graph showing carbon dioxide concentration against the rate of photosynthesis, what could be the limiting factors for the flat section of the graph?

A

Temperature of light intensity.

321
Q

Farmers use greenhouses to create the ideal conditions for plants to grow. How do they achieve this?

A

1) Use artificial light during the night
2) Burn paraffin heaters
3) Add fertiliser to soil

322
Q

Describe why farmers might use paraffin heaters in a greenhouse?

A

1) Used to heat the greenhouse

2) Produces carbon dioxide - increase the level of carbon dioxide in the greenhouse

323
Q

Use the inverse law to calculate the light intensity when a lamp is 10cm away from a plant.

A

1/d2 formula, 1/102 = 0.01 a.u.

324
Q

State the 5 main ways plants use glucose.

A

1) For respiration
2) Making cellulose
3) Making amino acids
4) Storing as oils or fats
5) Storing as starch

325
Q

How do plants make amino acids?

A

Plants combine glucose with nitrate ions.

326
Q

Why is cellulose important for plants?

A

It is used to strengthen cell walls.

327
Q

Why do plants store most of the excess glucose made as starch?

A

Starch is insoluble unlike glucose so water it is not drawn into the cells.

328
Q

Is respiration an endothermic or exothermic reaction?

A

Exothermic.

329
Q

State the balanced chemical equation for aerobic respiration.

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

330
Q

Name the two types of respiration.

A

Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.

331
Q

State the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

A

Aerobic respiration uses oxygen, anaerobic respiration takes place without oxygen.

332
Q

Which releases more energy, aerobic or anaerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic respiration

333
Q

Where in a cell does aerobic respiration take place?

A

In the mitochondria.

334
Q

Where in the cell does anaerobic respiration take place?

A

In the cytoplasm.

335
Q

State the three main things organisms need energy for.

A

1) Chemical reactions to build and break down molecules
2) For movement
3) Keeping warm

336
Q

State the word equation for aerobic respiration

A

glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water

337
Q

What is C6H12O6

A

Glucose

338
Q

State the word equation for anaerobic respiration in muscles.

A

glucose -> lactic acid

339
Q

State the word equation for anaerobic respiration in plants and yeast.

A

glucose -> carbon dioxide + ethanol

340
Q

What is anaerobic respiration in yeast called?

A

Fermentation

341
Q

Why is fermentation by yeast important to make bread?

A

Fermentation refers to anaerobic respiration in yeast.

This produces carbon dioxide that makes the bread rise.

342
Q

Why is fermentation by yeast important for the drinks industry?

A

Fermentation refers to anaerobic respiration in yeast.

This produces ethanol which is an alcohol.

343
Q

State the three main changes in the body during exercise to the increased demand for energy.

A

1) Heart rate increases
2) Breathing rate increases
3) Breathing volume increases

344
Q

Changes in your body during exercise mean more oxygen is supplied to the muscle, why?

A

Increase energy demand during exercise.
Aerobic respiration releases energy and requires oxygen.
More oxygen for the increased rate of respiration.

345
Q

If an insufficient amount of oxygen is supplied to the muscle cells, what type of respiration occurs and why?

A

Anaerobic respiration, because this occurs in the absence of oxygen.

346
Q

Anaerobic respiration causes the build up of which chemical in the muscles?

A

Lactic acid.

347
Q

Describe the effect that long periods of vigorous exercise have on muscles.

A

Muscles become fatigued - tired.

Muscles stop contracting efficiently.

348
Q

Which process is more efficient at transferring energy from glucose in the muscles, aerobic or anaerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic respiration.

349
Q

A person runs in a race, how would you expect his heart rate to change during the race?

A

Expect it to increase.

350
Q

What kind of debt is created when muscles respire anaerobically?

A

An oxygen debt.

351
Q

Define oxygen debt.

A

The amount of extra oxygen the body needs after exercise to react with the accumulated lactic acid and remove it from the cells.

352
Q

Some of the lactic acid built up during anaerobic respiration is transported by the blood to the liver, why?

A

The liver converts the lactic acid back into glucose.

353
Q

Define metabolism.

A

Metabolism is the sum of all the reactions in a cell

354
Q

Lots of glucose molecules can be joined together to be stored animals. What is it stored as?

A

Glycogen.

355
Q

Lots of glucose molecules can be joined together to be stored plants. What is it stored as?

A

Starch.

356
Q

Glucose can be converted into a substance found in to cell wall of plants, what is this substance called?

A

Cellulose.

357
Q

What is a lipid molecule made from?

A

One molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids.

358
Q

How can glucose be made into proteins?

A

Glucose can be combined with nitrate ions to make amino acids, which are then made into proteins.

359
Q

In which process is glucose broken down to release energy?

A

Respiration.

360
Q

What is excess protein broken down into, and how is this removed from the body?

A

Excess protein is broken down to produce urea, which is then excreted in the urine.

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