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Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the types of bacteria shapes?

A

Cocci, Bacilli, Spirill

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2
Q

Cocci:

A

spherical shaped bacteria

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3
Q

Bacilli:

A

rod shaped bacteria

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4
Q

Spirilli:

A

spiral shaped bacteria

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5
Q

Describe the difference between an anaerobe and aerobes?

A

The main difference between anaerobe and aerobe is that aerobes require oxygen to metabolize thus the name aerobe where as anaerobes do not require oxygen to metabolize thus the name anaerobe.

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6
Q

Gram positive:

A

the cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan which is made from sugars and AA, it will also contain lipoteichoic acid which can create an immune system response.

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7
Q

Gram negative:

A

the cell wall contain peptidoglycan but only in small amounts and contain lipidsccarides which have a more triggering immune system response.

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8
Q

what is the unique function of a plasmid?

A

in prokaryotic cells a plasmid carries DNA that is not important for fundamental life and development and they are not considered as part of the genome however plasmids might be the key to antibiotic resistance.

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9
Q

What is Binary fission?

A

form of asexual reproduction of prokaryotes that results from DNA replication and split into two daughter cells from the prokaryote.

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10
Q

Describe the concept of genetic recombination and the methods by which bacteria can diversify themselves?

A

Genetic recombination is the process in which bacteria integrate DNA from episomes into their DNA and become more diversified bacteria and helps the evolution of the species over time these happen through three mechanisms

  1. transfromation
  2. Conjugation
  3. Transduction
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11
Q

Transformation:

A

integration of forgegin genetic material into the host genome and the foreign genetic material most frequently comes from bacteria

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12
Q

Conjugation:

A

bacterial form of mating (sexual reproduction) two cells from a conjugation bridge that facilitates the transfer of genetic material from a donor male to a recipient female and this is a UNIDIRECTIOAL transfer
> bacteria must contain sex factors that are plasmids that contain the necessary genes, this allows for genetic recombination and gaining anit-biotic resistant factors

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13
Q

Transduction:

A

ONLY genetic recombination process that requires a vector which is virus that carries genetic information from one bacterium to the other

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14
Q

What are transposons?

A

genetic elements that are capable of inserting and removing themselves from the genome

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15
Q

What happens if a patient is given an antibiotic and does not fully fish the treatment?

A

if a patient fails to complete the antibiotic treatment often discontinuing the treatment because they feel fine the creates antibiotic resistance and kills off the bacteria that are non resistant and leaving bacteria that is more resistance to reproduce resulting in a recurring infection

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16
Q

What is a virus?

A

genetic material that is composed of a protein coat and sometimes an envelope containing lips this genetic info can be DNA, RNA single or Double stranded

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17
Q

What is the protective case around a virus called?

A

capsid is the protein coat around a virus, these coats are very sensitive to heat, detergent etc.

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18
Q

Can virus reproduce independently or live on their own?

A

NO, they must express and replicate genetic information within a host cell because they lack the ribosome to carry out protein synthesis

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19
Q

What is a bacteriophage, is it bacteria or a virus?

A

bacteriophage is a virus that specifically targets bacteria, however they do not enter the bacteria they simply inject genetic material

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20
Q

What is the difference between positive sense and negative sense in viral genomes?

A

Positive Sense: genome my be directly translated to functional proteins by the ribosomes of the host cell just like mRNA, RNA virus stay in cytoplasm and are directly translated into proteins by host cell ribosome
Negative Sense: RNA virus that the RNA acts a template for synthesis of a complementary strand which can be used as a template fro protein synth and contain RNA replicase which ensure that the complementary strand is synthesized. Require the synthesis of a complementary RNA strand through RNA replicase that is translated and formed into protein

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21
Q

What are Retroviruses?

A

single stranded RNA virus that contain two identical RNA molecules that carry an enzyme called reverse transcriptase which synthesizes DNA from a single strand of RNA this DNA integrates into the host genome and replicated as its own host genome (like in HIV)

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22
Q

How can the concept of retroviruses be important in gene therapy?

A

retoerovisus and transduction are potentially going to be used in gene therapy, it can give functional version of a gene so that correct proteins can be synth for certain disease

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23
Q

Lytic:

A

Bacteriophage maximizes the use of the cells own machinery to replicate which no regard to the host cell, lysing the host genome

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24
Q

Lysogenic cycle:

A

virus becomes part of the host genome and my integrate into the host genome indef. however environmental factors can cause viruses to revert to the lytic pathway.

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25
Q

What are the stages of the cell cycle?

A
  1. Interphase
  2. G0
  3. G1
  4. G2
  5. M1
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26
Q

Interphase:

A

first three stages of the cell cycle, and the longest part of the cell cycle where the cells are not actively dividing and spend 90% of their life.

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27
Q

G0:

A

cell is simply living can carrying out its functions without any preparation for division.

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28
Q

G1:

A

the cell creates organelles fro energy and proteins for the production of mitochondria, ribosomes, and ER and the cell also increases its size .

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29
Q

S:

A

cell replicates its own genetic material so that each daughter cell will have identical copies and each chromosome consist of two identical chromatid that are bound by the centromere
he polyploidy of the cell does not change even if the number of chromosomes have doubled, in other words humans in this stage sill only have 46 chromosomes even though 92 chromatids are present.

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30
Q

G2:

A

cells pass through a quality control checkpoint that the DNA has been dubplicated and their are enough organelles and cytoplasm for two daughter cells.

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31
Q

M:

A

Mitosis along with Cytokinesis

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32
Q

G1/S checkpoint:

A

the cell determines if the condition of DNA is good enough for synthesis
> restriction point: if their is damage to the DNA the cell goes in to arrest until the DNA has been repaired and the main protein is controlled of P53.

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33
Q

G2/M checkpoint

A

ensures cells have the proper number of organelles

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34
Q

What happens if a cell does not have any transcription factors?

A

> they promote transcription of genes that are required for the next stage of the cell cycle

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35
Q

How is cancer related to the cell cycle?

A

> the cell cycle controls if cells divide or not, cancer causing genes called oncogene and tumor surpassing genes can effect the cell grown.
> oncogenes: genes that when mutated promote cell growth
> Tumor suppression genes: mutated, lose their ability to regulate or arrest the cell cycle

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36
Q

What is Cytokinesis and when does it occur in a cell?

A

occurs at the end of telophase this is when the cytoplasm separates giving each daughter cell enough material to survive on their own.

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37
Q

Explain what can happen if chromosome in Anaphase 1 or II of meiosis fail to separate properly?

A

if homologus chromosomes in anaphase 1 or sister chromatids in anaphase II fail to separate on of the resulting gametes will have two copies of a particular chromosome and the other gamete will have none. If this gamete gets to fertilization the resulting zygote may have too many copies or too few copies of the chromosome causing trisomy 21 which is downs or klinfelters/ turner syndrome for sex chromosomes.

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38
Q

What are the different pathway a cell can become determined?

A
  1. during cleavage where the existing mRNA and proteins in the parent cell has been asymmetrically distributed between daughter cells and the presence of specific mRNA and protein molecules
    1. secretion of specific molecules from nearby cells, called Morphogens may cause neighboring cells to follow particular developmental pathways
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39
Q

Inducers:

A

how cells become a specific cell type (often called growth factors, that promote differentiation and mitosis in certain tissues)

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40
Q

Responder:

A

the cell that is induced ( responsive cell)

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41
Q

Competent:

A

able to respond to inducing a signal

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42
Q

what are the four methods of cell to cell communication?

A
  1. Autocirne
  2. Paracrine
  3. Juxtacrine:
  4. endocrine
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43
Q

Autocirne:

A

acts on the same cell that screwed the signal in the first place

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44
Q

Paracrine:

A

signal acts on cells in the local area

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45
Q

Juxtacrine:

A

signals do not usually involve diffusion bu involve a cell directly stimulating receptors of an adj cell

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46
Q

endocrine:

A

signals involve the secretion of hormones that travel through the bloodstream to some distant target

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47
Q

Astrocytes:

A

nourish the nerouons in the blood brain barring which functions to control the transmission of solutes from the bloodstream to the nervous system

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48
Q

Ependymal cells

A

line the ventricle of the brain and produces CSF and physically sports the brain and serves as a shock absorber

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49
Q

Microglia

A

phagocytic that ingest and break down waste products and pathogens in the CNS

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50
Q

Oligidendrocytes and Schwann cells:

A

myelin sheets around axons

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51
Q

What happens with potassium leak channels?

A

Potassium leak channel facilitate outward movement of potassium which allows the slow leak of potassium outside of the cell making the outside of the cell positive and the inside of the cell negative.

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52
Q

What is Saltaory conduction?

A

the signal hops from node to node

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53
Q

With an action potential within the same neuron that have the same potential difference during depolarization do you want to increase the intensity or the frequency?

A

you want to increase the freq. because it is an all or none response!

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54
Q

What is Saltaory conduction?

A

the signal hops from node to node

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55
Q

With an action potential within the same neuron that have the same potential difference during depolarization do you want to increase the intensity or the frequency?

A

you want to increase the freq. because it is an all or none response!

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56
Q

What is the difference between electrical and chemical transmissions?

A

> electric uses to pass signals down the length of the axon

> Chemical is between neurons seen in NT and the transmission of glands and muscles.

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57
Q

What is the function of the reflex?

A

the sensory information that makes it way up to the brain but by arrival time the muscle has already reacted

58
Q

Monosynaptic reflex arc:

A

single synapse between the sensory neuron that receives the stimulant and the motor neuron that respond to it like the Knee jerk reflex

59
Q

Polysynatic refelx arc:

A

there is at least one interneroun between the sensory and motor neuron and is usually the withdrawal relax.

60
Q

Hormones:

A

signaling molecules that are secreted directly into the blood stream to target distant tissues by binding to receptors and inducing changes in gene expression or cellular function

61
Q

What is the important role of the noes and mouth besides bringing in air?

A

the important role of breathing they remove dirt particticles from the air at warm and humidify the air before it reaches the lungs.

62
Q

What is the chemical that covers the alveoli in the lungs?

A

Sufactant it functions to lower surface tension and allow the alveoli to not collapse in on itself.

63
Q

What are the plural cavities that surround the lungs?

A
  1. parietal
  2. intraplural
  3. visceral
64
Q

parietal

A

flush with chest wall

65
Q

intraplural:

A

between parietal and visceral

66
Q

Visceral:

A

flush with lungs

67
Q

Are the lungs equal sizes?

A

no, the left lung has a small indentation and contains only two lobe while the right has three this is due to the position in the thoracic cavity this is due to the size of the heart and the Apex it has.

68
Q

do lungs have the muscular strength to survive autonomously?

A

in the body no, the lungs need the diaphragm which is a muscle the lies just under the bottom of the lungs. this muscle is a somatic but is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.

69
Q

What happens in a plural effusion?

A

where fluid accumulates in the interplural spaces

70
Q

What happens in a pneumothorax?

A

air collects in the plural spaces

71
Q

Does plural effusion and pneumothorax effect breathing?

A

YES! they disturb breathing and can cause Atelectasis or complete or partial collapse of the lung where the alveoli become deflated or possibly fill with fluid (common after surgery)

72
Q

What happens with pt. who have Emphysema?

NOSG

A

destruction of the alveolar walls and results in the reduction of elastic recoil of the lungs making exhaling extremely difficult and can be accelerated by smoking.

73
Q

what is important about chemoreceptors in the body?

A

these receptors are sensitive to carbon dioxide concentrations so as the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood rises the respiratory rate will increase to get rid of excess carbon dioxide in the blood.

74
Q

Describe what would happen with increased CO2 levels vs Inc. Oxygen levels?

A

increased CO2 will cause the override of the medulla oblongata and would jump start breathing
> increased O2 will cause inhibition of ventilation.
Describe the regulation of breathing?
> the ventilation center or the medulla oblongata rhythmically fires to the respiratory muscles causing rhythmic contraction. the chemoreceptors that are sensitive to carbon dioxide will increase or decrease the respiratory rate

75
Q

Describe partial pressure and the exchange of gases in the capillaries in the two different areas?

A

o2 in the alveoli flows down its partial pressure gradient from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries where it binds to hemoglobin CO2 flows down its partial pressure from capillaries to alveoli during expiration

76
Q

What is an example of thermoregulation that is correlated with gas exchange?

A

vasocontstirction and vasodilation can transfer or get rid of heat from the environment through evaporation (like panting in dogs)

77
Q

Describe the book PH bicarb and Respiratory rate?

A

> when blood ph decreases RR increases to compensate for blowing off CO2 causing a shift in the buffer reduction in hydrogen ions
> when blood pH increases RR decreases to compensate for trapping CO2 causing the right sift in buffer eq increase hydrogen ion concentration.

78
Q

What does it mean that the heart has myogenic activity?

A

this means it can contract without any input of the nervous system

79
Q

What is the formula for cardiac output?

A

CO= HR X SV

80
Q

What is a heart attach and what is the benefit of using beta blockers?

A

Myocardial infarction is caused by a blockage in blood flow to the heart by the coronary arteries causing decreased oxygen delivery to the cardiac muscle.
beta blockers block the sympathetic stimulation of the heart resulting in a lower HR and lower contractibility and the heart does not have to work as hard so oxygen demand in less and help prevent further damage to cardiac tissue

81
Q

What are the components of blood?

A

> Plasma (which is the liquid portion that contain nutrient salts, respiratory gases. hormones and blood proteins
> Erythrocutes, leukocytes, platelets
> all blood cells are formed from hematopoietic stem cells

82
Q

What are the two types of leukocytes or white blood cells?

A

Graulocytes and Lymphocytes

83
Q

Graulocytes:

A

contain cytoplasmic granules that are visible and released through exocytosis they are commonly found in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction bacteria and parasites.

84
Q

Lymphocytes:

A

do not contain granules, often seen in specific immune response to fight particular pathogens such a viruses a bacteria helping our body learn from experiences. (often seen in vaccines)

85
Q

Describe the concept of universal donors and universal recipients?

A

> People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood will not cause ABO hemolysis, however recipients who are type O can only get blood from type O donors
>People with AB blood types can get transfusions from any donor with no adverse reactions.

86
Q

Describe the role of Rh factor?

A

Rh factor is autosomal dominant for the protein to be expressed

87
Q

What is the condition called Erythroblastasis fetalis?

A

in a Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus this creates problems because antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetal blood cells resulting in hemolysis of fetal blood cells and can be fatal to the fetus. this can be avoided by giving the Rh- mother a Rh- immuneoglobulin which will absorb the fetuses Rh+ cells preventing the production of Rh antibodies by the mother.

88
Q

What are the main components of a membrane?

A
  1. Phospholipids
  2. Steroids
  3. Waxes
  4. Protein components
89
Q

What way solutes are transported across the membrane?

A
  1. Themodynamics
  2. Osmosis
  3. Passive transport
  4. Active transport
90
Q

What is osmosis?

A

a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane.

91
Q

what are examples of colligative properties

A

vapor pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure

92
Q

What is passive transport?

A

is a type of membrane transport that does not require energy to move substances across cell membranes
> uses the second law of thermodynamics

93
Q

what is active transport?

A

the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy.

94
Q

What is sodium potassium pump?

A

The sodium-potassium pump system moves sodium and potassium ions against large concentration gradients. It moves two potassium ions into the cell where potassium levels are high, and pumps three sodium ions out of the cell and into the extracellular fluid. … In doing so, it pumps the three sodium ions out of the cell

95
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

a process by which the contents of a cell vacuole are released to the exterior through fusion of the vacuole membrane with the cell membrane.

96
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

the taking in of matter by a living cell by invagination of its membrane to form a vacuole.

97
Q

What are the defining characteristics of EuK cells?

A

Membrane bound nucleus, presence of organelles. and mitotic division

98
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

compartment in the cell where genetic information is stored

99
Q

what is the primary function of the Nucleoulus?

A

primary function is ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosome biogenesis

100
Q

what is the nuclear envelop

A

keeps the contents of the nucleus, called the nucleoplasm, separate from the cytoplasm of the cell. The all-important genetic material, mainly the DNA is kept separate and relatively safe from the chemical reactions taking place in the cytoplasm.

101
Q

What is the nuclear pore?

A

protein-lined channel in the nuclear envelope that regulates the transportation of molecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

102
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Site of ATP production, with a inner and outer structure, and it self replicating

103
Q

What is the function of the lysosome?

A

membrane bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes, the breakdown/digestion of macromolecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids), cell membrane repairs, and responses against foreign substances such as bacteria, viruses and other antigens.

104
Q

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum

A

he endoplasmic reticulum (ER) serves important functions particularly in the synthesis, folding, modification, and transport of proteins and lipid synthesis

105
Q

What is the smooth ER?

A

make cellular products like hormones and lipids

106
Q

What is rough ER?

A

has on it ribosomes, which are small, round organelles whose function it is to make those proteins.

107
Q

What is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A

package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell

108
Q

What is the function of the peroxisome?

A

are small vesicles, single membrane-bound organelles found in the eukaryotic cells. They contain digestive enzymes for breaking down toxic materials in the cell and oxidative enzymes for metabolic activity.

109
Q

What is Chemotaxis?

NOT IN STUDY GUIDE

A

migration of cells toward attractant chemicals or away from repellents. Virtually, every motile organism exhibits

110
Q

What is the main function of the stomach?

A

storage and churning of food with low pH, gastric juice, mucal protection against self destruction. production of digestive enzymes, site of digestion.

111
Q

What is the main function of the liver?

A

production of bile, role in blood glucose regulation and detoxification

112
Q

What is the function of Bile

A

Bile is a fluid that is made and released by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile helps with digestion. It breaks down fats into fatty acids, which can be taken into the body by the digestive tract

113
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

During digestion, your pancreas makes pancreatic juices called enzymes. These enzymes break down sugars, fats, and starches. Your pancreas also helps your digestive system by making hormones. it also functions to transport enzymes into the small intestine

114
Q

What is the Nucleoid region?

A

this is the DNA region in prokaryotes

115
Q

What is the Nucleoulus?

A

creates ribosomes, sits inside the nucleus and has no membrane

116
Q

Peroxisomes

A

collects and breaks down materials

117
Q

rough ER

A

accepts mRNA to make proteins, containing RNA

118
Q

smooth ER

A

detox and make lipids

119
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

modify and distribute proteins in eukaryotic cells

120
Q

Centrioles

A

9 groups of microtubules that pull the chromosomes during cell division

121
Q

Lysosomes

A

Demolition and recycling center made by golgie and is a single membrane

122
Q

Plasmids

A

in prokaryotes only carrying DNA not necessary for survival

123
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

require oxygen

124
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

dies in O2

125
Q

Facilitative anaerobe

A

switches between aerobic and anaerobic

126
Q

areotoleration anaerobe

A

does not use O2 but will tolerate it

127
Q

G1:

A

makes mRNA and proteins/enzymes along with organelles preparing for mitosis

128
Q

G0:

A

a cell will enter into if it does not need to divide also called the Quiescent phase

129
Q

G1 checkpoint:

A

when cell decides where is should divide or not (checks DNA), P53 is in charge

130
Q

S phase:

A

also called synthesis phase where DNA replicates 2n->4n this is done by DNA polymerase I & III

131
Q

G2 Phase:

A

cell growth and makes organelles, cytoplasm also grows

132
Q

M phase:

A

mitosis and cytokinesis

133
Q

what three thing are needed to be considered a cell?

A
  1. Cell membrane (phospholipid bilayer)
  2. Nucleus (genetic material)
  3. Cytoplasm
134
Q

What is an example of labial or proliferate cells?

A

cells the reproduce often, found in the epithium of the skin, GI tract, Urinary Tract and vaginal canal and hematopoetic stem cells

135
Q

What is an example of stable cells?

A

cells that can reproduce but only with an influence of a stimulis, Liver cells or hepatocytes, Epithelium of Kidney tubules,

136
Q

What is an example of permanent cells?

A

these are cells that are amitotic and dont go through mitosis such as nerves, skeletal muscles, and cardiac muscle cells

137
Q

Prophase:

A

DNA condenses, centrioles migrate to the opposite poles and the micro tubules form and the nuclear envelope disappears

138
Q

Metaphase:

A

where chromosomes meet in the middle on the metaphase plate

139
Q

anaphase:

A

sister chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles

140
Q

Telophase:

A

chromosomes decondense and the nuclear envelope forms and cytokenisis occurs

MCAT (5 decks)

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