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Biohazard And Safety Flashcards

1
Q

DOH Administrative Order
“Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Licensure and Regulation of Clinical Laboratories in the Philippines”

A

DOH AO. No. 2007-0027,

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2
Q

Source that has the potential to cause harm

A

Hazards

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3
Q

possibility that something bad or unpleasant will happen.

A

Risk

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4
Q

Person who has an intent and/or ability to cause harm

A

Threat

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5
Q

associated to biological toxins or infectious agents

A

Biorisk

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6
Q

combination of likelihood and consequence of an undesirable event related to a specific hazard (or threat)

A

Risk

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7
Q

probability of an event occurring

A

Likelihood

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8
Q

severity of an event

A

Consequence

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9
Q

aims to provide all employees a safe work environment.

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

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10
Q

enacted by the US congress in 1970 and has widely been used as a basis by many countries internationally to come up with their own regulations concerning safety in the workplace.

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

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11
Q

governing body responsible for ensuring and monitoring the implementation of the standards set

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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12
Q

Functions of Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A
  1. Conduct on-site inspections
  2. Determine whether an employer is complying with the mandatory standards
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13
Q

LABORATORY HAZARDS

A
  1. Biohazard
  2. Chemical Hazard
  3. Fire Hazard
  4. Electrical Hazard
  5. Physical Hazard
  6. Sharps Hazard
  7. Ergonomic Hazard
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14
Q

include all pathogen or disease-causing microorganisms

A

Biohazards

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15
Q

illustrates how pathogens are transmitted

A

The chain of infection

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16
Q

The disease-causing microorganism

A

INFECTIOUS AGENT / PATHOGEN

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17
Q

Animate inanimate object where the infectious agent is found normally living

A

RESERVOIR

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18
Q

Routes and means utilized by the microorganism to escape from the reservoir

A

PORTAL OF EXIT

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19
Q

Method of conduction from the reservoir to the susceptible host

A

MODE OF TRANSMISSION

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20
Q

MODE OF TRANSMISSION types

A

i. Direct contact
ii. Indirect contact
iii. Droplet transmission

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21
Q

Involves actual contact/ close proximity of the infected individual and the susceptible host

A

Direct contact

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22
Q

“Mother-to-baby” transmission

A

Vertical Transmission

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23
Q

Transfer of infectious agent happens BEFORE birth usually by crossing the placenta

A

Prenatal/ Transplacental Transmission

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24
Q

Transfer happens during passage through the birth canal

A

Perinatal Transmission

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25
Q

Includes Transmission by Fomites

A

Indirect contact

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26
Q

Non-living object that may transmit an infectious disease

A

Fomites

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27
Q

Respiratory particles of moisture containing an infectious agent

A

Droplets

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28
Q

Typically expelled into the air by coughing, sneezing, and even by talking

A

Droplet transmission

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29
Q

Droplet transmission

Usually have a diameter of ___micrometers and capable only of traveling short distances (___meter)

A

> 5
<1

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30
Q

Pathogen is spread through droplet nuclei

A

Airborne Transmission

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31
Q

remnants after evaporation of droplets

A

droplet nuclei

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32
Q

A droplet nuclei has a diameter__micrometers and are typically capable of travelling distances greater than ___

A

less than 5
1 meter

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33
Q

Transfer of infectious agents by an inanimate medium

A

Common Vehicle Transmission

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34
Q

Pathogens are spread by contaminated water, usually with untreated or poorly treated sewage

A

Waterborne transmission

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35
Q

Waterborne transmission diseases

A

cholera and leptospirosis

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36
Q

The pathogens usually develop in soil and is subsequently acquired by the susceptible host from the soil

A

Soil-borne transmission

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37
Q

Soil-borne transmission diseases

A

Hookworm infection and Ascariasis

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38
Q

Pathogens are transmitted in foods that are incompletely cooked, poorly refrigerated, or prepared under unsanitary conditions

A

Foodborne transmission

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39
Q

Foodborne transmission diseases

A

tapeworm infection

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40
Q

Invertebrates capable of harbouring infectious agent

A

Vector-Borne Transmission
-Vector

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41
Q

Vector-Borne Transmission types

A

i. Mechanical transmission
ii. Biological transmission

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42
Q

Utilizes mechanical vectors

A

Mechanical transmission

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43
Q

The infectious agent WILL NOT develop while being transported by the vector

A

Mechanical transmission

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44
Q

Utilizes biological vectors

A

Biological transmission

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45
Q

The infectious agent WILL develop while being transported by the vector

A

Biological transmission

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46
Q

Routes through which the pathogen enter the host

A

PORTAL OF ENTRY

47
Q

three components that are incorporated in 6-part mode

A

(a) source, (b) transmission, and (c) host

48
Q

has four circles and is universally adapted to warn about the existence of biological hazards.

A

biohazard symbol

49
Q

presents preventive measures that can be
implemented to break the chain in each of the component

A

CHAIN OF INFECTION: 3-PART MODEL

50
Q

SOURCE

A

Handwashing
Biohazardous waste disposal
Decontamination
Specimen bagging

51
Q

Handwashing
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Aerosol prevention
Sterile/disposable equipment
Pest control

A

TRANSMISSION

52
Q

Standard precaution
Immunization
Healthy lifestyle
Exposure control plan
Post exposure prophylaxis

53
Q

“Containment principles, technologies, and practices that are implemented to prevented
unintentional exposure to pathogens or toxins, or their accidental release”

54
Q

The protection, control, and accountability for valuable biological materials within the laboratories, in order to prevent their unauthorized access, loss, theft, misuse, or intentional release –Bioterrorism

A

Biosecurity

55
Q

The publication classifies the biological agents into 4 groups, based on biosafety levels.

A

Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories, 5th Edition

56
Q

Not known to consistently cause
diseases in healthy adults

A

Biosafety Level 1 Agent

57
Q

Relatively common agents that are
associated with human disease

A

Biosafety Level 2 Agent

58
Q

Routes of transmission include
percutaneous injury, ingestion, and
mucous membrane exposure

A

Biosafety Level 2 Agent

59
Q

Indigenous or exotic agents that may
cause serious or potentially lethal
disease through inhalation route of
exposure

A

Biosafety Level 3
Agent

60
Q

Dangerous or exotic agents which post
high individual risk of aerosoltransmitted laboratory infections that
are frequently fatal, for which there are
no vaccines or treatments

A

Biosafety Level 4 Agent

61
Q

-Agents not associated with disease in healthy adult humans

-No or low individual and community risk

-a microorganism unlikely to cause
human or animal disease.

A

Risk Group 1

62
Q

Agents associated with human disease that is rarely serious and for which preventive or
therapeutic interventions are often available.

A

Risk Group 2

63
Q

Moderate individual risk; low community risk

A pathogen that can cause human or animal disease but is unlikely to be a serious hazard to laboratory workers, the community, livestock or
the environment

A

Risk Group 2

64
Q

Agents associated with serious or
lethal human disease

High individual risk; low community risk

A pathogen that usually causes serious human or animal disease but does not ordinarily spread

A

Risk Group 3

65
Q

Agents likely to cause serious or lethal human disease for which preventive or therapeutic
interventions are not usually available

High individual and community risk

A

Risk Group 4

66
Q

Mandates that personnel should treat all blood and blood-contaminated samples as potentially infectious

A

Universal Precautions (UP)

67
Q

did not treat other bodily fluids that are not visibly contaminated with blood as potentially infectious

A

Universal Precautions (UP)

68
Q

Considers all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious

A

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

69
Q

Main flaw: Did not recommend hand washing following removal of gloves
unless visual contamination is present

A

Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

70
Q

Combined major features of universal precautions and body substance
isolation

A

Standard Precautions (SP)

71
Q

Most commonly implemented by clinical laboratories

include proper hand washing, utilization of personal protective equipment (PPE), and preventing exposure to potentially infectious aerosols/droplets

A

Standard Precautions (SP)

72
Q

Single most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious diseases

A

PROPER HAND WASHING

73
Q

According to WHO guidelines, rubbing of hands should last for

A

AT LEAST 20 SECONDS

74
Q

According to DOH guidelines, rubbing of hands should last for

A

at least 15s (2 Happy birthday songs)

75
Q

Proper duration of hand-rubbing is approximately equal to the duration of singing

A

2 HAPPY BIRTHDAY SONGS

76
Q

Protective clothing, helmets and other garments designed to protect the wearer’s body from injury or infection

A

PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT (PPE)

77
Q

Device that encloses a workplace in such a way that protects the workers from
exposure to aerosols that may potentially contain infectious disease agents

A

BIOSAFETY CABINETS

78
Q

-Characterized by pores having a diameter of 0.3 um
-Removes air-suspended materials having diameter greater than 0.3 um;
-Capable of removing up to 99.97% of air-suspended materials

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air Filter

79
Q

Open Front BSC

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class I

80
Q

-Does not protect the sample/ product from possible contamination
-Protects the worker and the environment from potentially infectious aerosols

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class I

81
Q

provides worker and environment protection BUT DOES NOT provide product/
sample protection.

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class I

82
Q

Protects the worker from potentially infectious aerosols; Also capable of protecting the sample from possible contamination

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class II

83
Q

70% of air is recirculated to the working area; 30% of air is exhausted

A

BSC Class IIA

84
Q

30% of air is recirculated to the working area; 70% of air is exhausted

A

BSC Class IIB1

85
Q

No recirculation of air; Total exhaust of air through an exhaust HEPA filter

A

BSC Cass IIB2

86
Q

vertical laminar flow hoods (technically a misnomer since it is flow hoods are
different from BSCs

A

BSC Class II

87
Q

Completely enclosed and are equipped with glove ports; Infectious material
within is handled with rubber gloves that are attached and sealed

A

Biosafety Cabinet Class III

88
Q

-Minimal Risk; Only Biosafety Level 1 agents are encountered
-Practices include the essentials of Standard Precautions
-Does not utilize Biological Safety Cabinets, only needs hand washing facilities

A

Biosafety Level I (BSL-1)

89
Q

-Moderate Risk; Includes all those in BSL 1 practices
-Performing aerosol-generating procedures in BSC Class I or BSC Class II
-Biosafety Level 2 agents

A

Biosafety Level II (BSL-2)

90
Q
  • High risk; Biosafety Level 3 agents are encountered by the workers
    In addition to BSL 2 practices: Performing aerosol-generating procedures in BSC Class I, Class II, or Class III
A

Biosafety Level III (BSL-3)

91
Q

-Extreme risk; Biosafety Level 4 agents are encountered in the workplace
-Requiring performance of procedures inside BSC Class III

A

Biosafety Level IV (BSL-4)

92
Q

In cases of chemical contact with skin and eyes, flush with large amounts of water for how many minutes

A

AT LEAST 15 MINUTES.

93
Q

Safety showers for chemical spills

A

dispense 30 to 50 gallons of water per minute at
a pressure of 20 to 50 psi

94
Q

How do you mix acid and water

A

ACID TO WATER, not the other way around.

95
Q

Expel noxious and hazardous fumes from chemicals

96
Q

Fume Hoods
-Face velocity should be

A

100 to 120 feet/ minute

97
Q

True of false

Mouth pipetting is accepted in the laboratory

98
Q

Required by OSHA to be present at workplaces that handles hazardous chemicals

A

ChemicalHygienePlan

99
Q

Responsible for documenting and implementing the chemical hygiene plan

A

Chemical Hygiene Officer

100
Q

Lists all of the hazardous chemical present in a workplace

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

101
Q

Injurious to the skin or eyes by direct contact or to the tissue of the respiratory and GIT if inhaled or ingested

102
Q

Cancer-causing chemicals

A

respiratory

103
Q

Substances that can cause functional and physical defects in the human embryo or fetus after the pregnant mother is exposed to the substance

A

Teratogenic

104
Q

Substances that, under certain conditions, can spontaneously explode or ignite

105
Q

temperature at which sufficient vapour is given off from the chemical to form an ignitable mixture with air.

A

Flash point

106
Q

Flammable chemicals flash point

A

37.8C (100F).

107
Q

Combustible chemicals flash point

A

equal to or above 37.8C (100F)

108
Q

diamond-shaped, color-coded symbol with four quadrants

A

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Symbol

109
Q

blue quadrant

A

health hazards

110
Q

red quadrant

A

flammable hazards

111
Q

yellow quadrant

A

reactivity/stability hazards

112
Q

white quadrant

A

other special information of the chemical

113
Q

presents the four components that should be present for fire to exist

A

Fire Tetrahedron

114
Q

Fire Tetrahedron components

A

 Oxygen
 Fuel
 Heat
 Uninhibited Reaction

PMLS FINALS (3 decks)

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