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Module 2 > Biochemistry (Green) > Flashcards

Biochemistry (Green) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Amino acid at an isoelectric point exists as:
a. acid c. zwitterions
b. base d. all of the above
A

C

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2
Q
  1. Hydrolytic product of chitin:
a. iduronatet c. acetylglucosamine
b. acetylgalactosamine d. glucuronic acid
A

C

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at physiologic pH?
a. cysteine c. lysine
b. glutamic acid d. valine
A

C

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4
Q
  1. Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates
a. nucleoproteins c. phosphoproteins
b. glycoproteins d. chromoproteins
A

B

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5
Q
  1. Cerebrosides are positive in the ff. tests, except:
a. Molisch c. Lassaigne’s
b. Biuret d. none of the above
A

B

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6
Q
  1. The ff. are neutral amino acids, except:
a. methionine c. threonine
b. lysine d. leucine
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form:
a. citrate c. acyl-carnitine
b. carnitine d. none of the above
A

A

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8
Q
  1. The color of the skin, hair and eyes due to pigment called:
a. cyctochrome c. keratin
b. melanin d. heparin
A

B

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9
Q
  1. The following are waxes except:
a. beeswax c. bile acids
b. sperm oil d. lanolin
A

C

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10
Q
  1. Principle involved in the isolation of casein milk:
a. salting in c. isoelectric precipitation
b. salting out d. none of the above
A

C

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11
Q
  1. All are pyrimidine bases except:
a. guanine c. uracil
b.cystocine d. thymine
A

A

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12
Q
  1. The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol
a. Liebermann-Burchard c. both a & b
b. Salkowski d. none of the above
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Protein digestion starts in the
a. mouth b. stomach
c. intestine d. pancreas
A

B

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14
Q
  1. These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other
microorganisms:
a. antibiotic c. hormone
b. enzyme d. vitamins
A

A

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15
Q
  1. The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA
a. transcription c.transamination
b. translation d. replication
A

A

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16
Q
  1. Alkaline bismuth reagent is used to detect the presence of:
a. polysaccharides c. reducing sugars
b. dissacharides d. glycitols
A

C

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17
Q
  1. What vitamin deficiency causes pellagra?
a. riboflavin c. pantothenic acid
b. thiamine d. nicotinic acid
A

D

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18
Q
  1. The inactive form of an enzyme is sometimes called:
a. zymogen c. apoenzye
b. holoenzyme d. coenzyme
A

A

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19
Q
  1. Condition wherein bile pigment is present in excess in the blood:
a. jaundice c. cirrhosis
b. hepatitis d. cystic fibrosis
A

A

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20
Q
  1. Osazone test is also known as:
a. Nylander’s c. Trommer’s
b. Kowarsky test d. Folin’s test
A

B

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21
Q
  1. Serine is converted to ethanolamine by the removal of:
a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide
b. ammonia d. carboxyl group
A

C

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22
Q
  1. A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids is
a. glycerol d. oxaloacetate
b. acetyl CoA e. acetylcholine
c. acetoacetate
A

B

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23
Q
  1. The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
a. Liebberman-Burchard b. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid
b. Salkowski reaction d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry
A

A

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24
Q
  1. Butter becomes rancid upon exposure to air due to formation of
a. acetic acid c. formic acid
b. butyric acid d. propionic acid
A

B

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25
Q
  1. It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action
a. lock & key c. VSEPR
b. molecular d. Kreb
A

A

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26
Q
  1. ID test to detect the presence of glycogen:
a. phloroglucinol c. iodine
b. molisch d. seliwanoff
A

C

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27
Q
  1. Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals:
a. phenylhydrazine test c. mucic acid
b. fermentation d. molisch
A

C

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28
Q
  1. Cellular elements of the blood devoid of nucleus
a. RBC c. thrombocytes
b. WMC d. all of the above
A

A

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29
Q
  1. Liquid vegetable oils may be transformed into solid fats by the process of:
a. oxidation c. substitution
b. hydrogenation d. reduction
A

B

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30
Q
  1. The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in
a. the reticuloendothelial system c. the white blood cells
b. the red blood cells d. the liver cell
A

A

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31
Q
  1. The main carbohydrate of the blood is
a. D-fructose c. mannitol
b. D-glucose d. sorbitol
A

B

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32
Q
  1. Porphyrins are involved in the building of
a. bones c. blood
b. muscles d. connective tissue
A

C

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33
Q
  1. Complimentary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by
a. H-bond c. vander waals
b. ester bond d. dipole dipole
A

A

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an ID test for proteins and amino acids?
a. Ninhydrin c.Biuret
b. Bial’s d. Xanthoproteic
A

B

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35
Q
  1. It is a disease due to protein deficiency
a. Kwashiorkor c. albuminuria
b. diabetes d. jaundice
A

A

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36
Q
  1. The chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands:
a. genes c. vitamins
b. hormones d. enzymes
A

B

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37
Q
  1. The simplest monosaccharide is __________________
a. erythrose c. glyceraldehydes
b. starch d. arabinose
A

C

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38
Q
  1. The activation of pepsinogen requires:
a. pepsin c. enterokinase
b. NaOH d. HCL
A

D

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39
Q
  1. A nucleic acid is made up of:
a. sugar, nucleoside and a base
b. proteins, sugar and a phosphate group
c. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar
d. nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar
A

D

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40
Q
  1. Raffinose, an important non-reducing sugar is a:
a. monosacchride c. trisaccharide
b. disaccharide d. tetrasaccharide
A

C

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41
Q
  1. In which form is glucose stored in the liver?
a. glycogen c. sucrose
b. glucose {unchanged} d. starch
A

A

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42
Q
  1. In man, the principal end product of protein metabolism is:
a. uric acid c. pyruvic acid
b. lactic acid d. urea
A

D

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43
Q
  1. The passage of the end products of digestion from the small intestine into the blood stream
a. metabolism d. oxidation
b. digestion e. reduction
c. absorption
A

C

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44
Q
  1. They are chemical messengers
a. hormones c. vitamins
b. enzymes d. amino acids
A

A

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45
Q
  1. This sugar is also called an “invert sugar”
a. sucrose c. glucose
b. fructose d. galactose
A

A

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46
Q
  1. Are globular proteins, except:
a. collagen c. serum globulins
b. serum albumins d. hemoglobin
A

A

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47
Q
  1. Carbohydrates that cannot be hydrolyzed to compounds with simpler molecules.
a. oligosaccharides c. monosaccharides
b. disaccharides d. polysaccharides
A

C

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48
Q
  1. A mixed triglyceride contains:
a. three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
b. two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
c. three differebt fatty acids esterified with glycerol
d. all of the above
A

C

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49
Q
  1. When trypsinogen is conoverted into tyrpsin, the enzyme is called:
a. pepsin c. enterokinase
b. zymogen d. amylase
A

C

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50
Q
  1. Starches are partially digested in the mouth by:
a. protease c. pepsinogen
b. ptyalin d. pepsin
A

B

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51
Q
  1. Blood minus its cellular components:
a. plasma c. hemoglobin
b. serum d. fibrin
A

A

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52
Q
  1. The study of the composition and the chemical processes occurring in the living matter is:
a. qualitative chemistry d. quantitative chemistry
b. organic chemistry e. inorganic chemistry
c. biochemistry
A

C

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53
Q
  1. Normal pH of the blood:
a. 7.4-7.5 c. 5.5-5.6
b. 6.6-6.9 d. 4.8-8
A

A

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54
Q
  1. The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the
a. nucleus b. mitochondrion
c. ribosome d. golgi bodies
A

B

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristic of lipid?
a. zwitterions c. hydrophobic
b. amphiphilic d. hydrophilic
A

C

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56
Q
  1. The ff. are non-essential amino acids, except:
a. glycine c. cysteine
b. leucine d. glutamine
A

B

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57
Q
  1. These are the glycolipids found in high concentration in the brain and nerve cells especially in the myelin
sheath
a. lecithin c. cerebrosides
b. cephalins d. sphingolipids
A

C

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58
Q
  1. The enzyme present in the stomach which hydrolyzes proteins:
a. trypsin c. amylopsin
b. pepsin d. enterokinase
A

B

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59
Q
  1. For the amino acid cycteine, choose the appropriate description of its side chain.
a. acidic c. aromatic
b. basic d. sulfur-containing
A

D

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60
Q
  1. Deficiency in this vitamins causes red blood cell fragility
a. vitamin A c. vitamin D
b. vitamin K d. vitamin E
A

D

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61
Q
  1. The complementary strand of CGACCTTGATCGACGTCGA:
a. TCGTTCCAGCTAGTACTAG c. AGCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT d. ATCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
A

B

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62
Q
  1. The cholesterol molecule is
a. an aromatic ring c. a steroid
b. a straight chain acid d. tocopherol
A

C

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63
Q
  1. Action of dilute alkali on sugars:
a. dehydration c. hydrolysis
b. hyperconjunction d. tautomerization
A

D

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64
Q
  1. The biochemical function of hemoglobin is:
a. defense c. structural
b. regulatory d. oxygen transport
A

D

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65
Q
  1. Transmission is:
a. conversion of amino acid to hydroxyl acid
b. loss of ammonia from amino acids
c. conversion of amino acids to keto acids
d. formation of ammonium salt from ammonia
A

C

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66
Q
  1. Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group?
a. proline c. glycine
b. hydroxyproline d. both a and
A

D

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67
Q
  1. A type of antibodies that plays an importance role in allergic response which causes anaphylactic shock,
hayfever and asthma:
a. IgA c. IgE
b. IgM d. IgG
A

C

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68
Q
  1. The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its
a. zwitterions form c. COO group
b. NH2 group d. positively charged groups
A

A

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69
Q
  1. The proteins that make the fur, wool, claws, and feathers.
a. collagen c. silk
b. keratin d. none of the above
A

B

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70
Q
  1. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body:
a.40oC c. 37oC
b.60oC d. 10oC
A

C

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following is a phospholipids
a. glycogen c. sphingomyelin
b. prostaglandin d. oleic acid
A

C

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72
Q
  1. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:
a. alanine c. leucine
b. glycine d. valine
A

B

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73
Q
  1. The end-product in the hydrolysis of glycogen is:
a. galactose c. glucose
b. mannose d. arabinose
A

C

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74
Q
  1. An organic cofactor in an enzyme
a. vitamins c. a & b
b. coenzymes d. none of these
A

C

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75
Q
  1. Serotonin, a neurotransmitter is derived from amino acid:
a. tryptophan c. tyrosine
b. threonine d. phenylalanine
A

A

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76
Q
  1. The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:
a. glycerol c. ceramide
b. sphingosine d. phosphocholine
A

C

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77
Q
  1. Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to:
a. swell b. shrink
c. burst d. undergo hemolysis
A

B

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78
Q
  1. Growth hormone is also known as:
a. thyrotropic hormone c. ganodotropin
b. somatotropin d. interstitial stimulating hormone
A

B

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79
Q
  1. The main center of biosynthesis of nucleic acid is the:
a. cell wall c. nucleus
b. cytoplasm d. none of the above
A

C

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80
Q
  1. Principal site for the synthesis of urea:
a. kidney c. spleen
b. liver d. intestinal mucosa
A

B

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81
Q
  1. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized:
a. mRNA c. rRNA
b. tRNA d. none of the above
A

A

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82
Q
  1. Which sugar will NOT give a red precipitate with cupric oxide when heated with Benedict’s solution?
a. glucose b. maltose
c. sucrose d. fructose
A

B

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83
Q
  1. Digestion of starch starts in the:
a. mouth c. small intestine
b. stomach d. large intestine
A

A

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84
Q
  1. The reducing property of sugars is due to this group
a. aldehyde c. carboxyl
b. nitro d. methyl
A

A

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85
Q
  1. Fruity odor of urine is indicative of acetone bodies, a diagnostic value in case of acidosis in:
a. diabetes insipidus c. cretinism
b. porphyria d. diabetes milletus
A

D

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86
Q
  1. Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glusoce:
a. glycogenolysis c. glycolysis
b. gluconeogenesis d. glycogenesis
A

A

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87
Q
  1. An official simple protein obtained from corn:
a. glutelin c. zein
b. gliadin d. maize
A

C

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88
Q
  1. Which is the main constituent of the group substance in the connective tissues?
a. heparin c. hyaluronic acid
b. fructosan d. mannosan
A

C

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89
Q
  1. Glucose and fructose are:
a. anomers c. geometric isomers
b. epimers d. allosteres
A

C

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90
Q
  1. The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:
a. galactose b. fructose
c. glucose d. arabinose
A

C

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91
Q
  1. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?
a. prostaglandin c. cholesterol
b. linoleic acid d. aldosterone
A

C

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92
Q
  1. A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis:
a. insulin c. epinephrine
b. glucagons d. vasopressin
A

A

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93
Q
  1. The reaction that takes place in ctoplasm
a. aerobic c. oxidation
b. anaerobic d. reduction
A

B

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94
Q
  1. Is the sum total of all acitivities directed towards the maintenance of life
a. catabolism d. photosynthesis
b. anabolism e. fermentation
c. metabolism
A

C

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95
Q
  1. Which is the monomer unit of proteins?
a. amino acid c. fatty acid
b. monosaccharide d. purine
A

A

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96
Q
  1. All the amino acid below contain sulfur, EXCEPT:
a. cystine c. cysteine
b. methionine d. glycine
A

D

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97
Q
  1. Blood clotting can be prevented by
a. sodium chloride c. sodium citrate
b. potassium chloride
A

C

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98
Q
  1. The following are examples of chromoprotein except:
a. chlorophyll c. cytochromes
b. hemoglobin d. heparin
A

D

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99
Q
  1. The common metabolic pathway
a. glycosis c. Kreb’s cycle
b. beta oxidation d. glucogenesis
A

C

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100
Q
  1. High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called__________.
a. salting out c. coagulation
b. salting in d. both b & c
A

A

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101
Q
  1. Concentrated dehydrating acids change monosaccharides to
a. simple sugars d. uronic acids
b. saccharic acids e. aldric acids
c. furfurals
A

C

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102
Q
  1. The only element in living matter from strong multiple bonds readily are:
a. oxygen c. carbon
b. nitrogen d. all of the above
A

C

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103
Q
  1. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:
a. alanine c. leucine
b. glycine d. valine
A

B

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104
Q
  1. Known as good cholesterol:
a. HDL c. ACTH
b. ergocalciferol d. LDL
A

A

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105
Q
  1. The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level.
a. parathyroid c. pancreas
b. thyroid d. adrenal
A

C

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106
Q
  1. This compound id not a normal constituent of urine
a. sodium chloride c. urea
b. albumin d. uric acid
A

B

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107
Q
  1. Which is NOT a B-complex vitamin?
a. folic acid c. Riboflavin
b. nicotinic acid d. ascorbic acid
A

D

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108
Q
  1. The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called
a. acidosis c. hyperglycemia
b. alkalosis d. glycosuria
A

A

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109
Q
  1. Glucose is stored in the liver, as:
a. galactose c. lactose
b. glycogen d. fructose
A

B

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110
Q
  1. This test detects the presence of indole rings
a. Molisch c. Millon’s
b. Hopkin’s cole d. Niinhydrin
A

B

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111
Q
  1. Pyridoxine is a component of this enzyme:
a. enolase c. hydrogenase
b. decarboxylase d. isomerase
A

B

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112
Q
  1. The lipid that is converted to Vitamin D2 upon irradiation
a. ergosterol c. cholesterol
b. glycerol d. all of the above
A

A

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113
Q
  1. What amount of glucose is present in the human blood?
a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 ml blood c. 2% of the total human body weight
b. 5 to 6 g in 100 ml blood d. none of these
A

A

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114
Q
  1. The following are proteins in milk, EXCEPT?
a. rennin c. lactoalbumin
b. casein d. lactoglubulin
A

A

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115
Q
  1. The principal site of glucose production in the human body is the
a. blood c. pituitary gland
b. liver d. small intestine
A

B

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116
Q
  1. Bond between 2 amino acids
a. glycosidic bond c. peptide bond
b. N-glycosyl linkage d. hydrogen bond
A

C

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117
Q
  1. What type of sugar is found in nucleic acids?
a. riboses b. mannoses
b. glucoses d. galactoses
A

A

118
Q
  1. Condition wherein the concentration of uric acid accumulates in blood reaches as high as 1mg.percent:
a. leukemia c. murexia
b. gout d. any of the above
A

B

119
Q
  1. Hydrolysis of nucleoproteins will yield:
a. nucleic acids and histones c. nucleic acid and purines
b. nucleic acid and sugar d. nucleic acid and pyrimidines
A

A

120
Q
  1. A synthetic DNA is called
a. replicated DNA c. gene
b. plasmid d. recombinant DNA
A

D

121
Q
  1. A normal value of glucose in the blood
a. 100 to 200 mg% c. 50 to 75 mg%
b. 80 to 120 mg% d. 200 to 300mg%
A

B

122
Q
  1. The following are pathological constituents of urine, except:
a. glucose c. creatinine
b. albumin d. blood
A

C

123
Q
  1. At what stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced?
a. glycolysis c. glycogenesis
b. aerobic stage d. glycogenolysis
A

B

124
Q
  1. Osmic test is used to detect the presence of _______ in lipids:
a. metals c. unsaturated groups
b. prostate groups d. glycerol
A

B

125
Q
  1. Hydrolysis of ATP is an
a. energy requiring reaction c. no energy is involved
b. energy producing reaction d. energy is absorbed
A

B

126
Q
  1. It is the entire genetic make up of an organism.
a. gene c. codon
b. anticodon d. mutation
A

A

127
Q
  1. This hormone elevates blood sugar concentration
a. insulin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. glucagons
A

D

128
Q
  1. Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants:
a. pepsin b. rennin
c. trypsin d. maltase
A

B

129
Q
  1. It is a polysaccharide
a. lactose c. amylase
b. maltose d. fructose
A

C

130
Q
  1. Only form of inorganic nitrogen which can be utilized by living cells:
a. urea c. ammonia
b. ornithine d. nitrogen gas
A

C

131
Q
  1. The ff. are the components of DNA nucleosides, except:
a. phosphoric acid c. adenine
b. sugar d. cytosine
A

A

132
Q
  1. All of the following are simple proteins except:
a. glutelins c. albumins
b. globulins d. glycoproteins
A

D

133
Q
  1. It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site.
a. competitive inhibition c. reversible inhibition
b. noncompetitive d. incomplete inhibition
A

A

134
Q
  1. A mucopolysaccharide which possesses an anticoagulant property
a. pectin d. chitin
b. hyaluronic acid e. chondroitin sulfate
c. heparin
A

C

135
Q
  1. The ff. proteins are present in egg white, except:
a. ovomucin c. albumin
b. ovoglobulin d. osseomucoid
A

D

136
Q
  1. Night blindness is a symptom of a deficiency in this vitamin.
a. vitamin A c. vitamin B
b. vitamin C d. vitamin D
A

A

137
Q
  1. The product obtained from the partial hydrolysis of collagen
a. myosin d. fibrinogen
b. gelatin e. thrombin
c. actin
A

B

138
Q
  1. Genetic defect characterized by mental retardation and cataract, since the unmetabolized sugar is toxic to the
lens of the eyes:
a. galactosemia c. pentosuria
b. fructosemia d. fructosuria
A

A

139
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule.
The mutationl event responsible for the mutation in the beta chain is:
a. crossing over c. deletion
b. insertion d. point mutation
A

D

140
Q
  1. The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:
a. pepsin b. trypsin
c. maltase d. catalase
A

A

141
Q
  1. In the secondary structure of RNA:
a. adenine will always pair with thymine
b. cytosine will always pair with thymine
c. cytosine will always pair with uracil
d. adenine will always pair with uracil
A

D

142
Q
  1. Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by:
a. single-stranded DNA c. double-stranded RNA
b. double-stranded DNA d. single stranded circular DNA
A

B

143
Q
  1. An important protein in contractile muscle.
a. keratin c. elastin
b. myosin d. fibrin
A

B

144
Q
  1. The precursor of vitamin D3:
a. ergosterol c. 7-dehydrocholesterol
b. stigmasterol d. cholesterol
A

C

145
Q
  1. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharide,except:
a. heparin c. glycogen
b. starch d. maltose
A

D

146
Q
  1. In the metabolism of protein, the liver
a. synthesizes amino acid c. absorbs blood
b. breaks down amino acid d. stores amino
A

D

147
Q
  1. Condition wherein acetone accumulates in the blood:
a. ketosuria c. ketosis
b. ketonemia d. ketonuria
A

B

148
Q
  1. Pentose present in gum arabic:
a. xylose c. arabinose
b. ribose d. threose
A

C

149
Q
  1. Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet Irradiation or sunlight
a. vit. A c. vit. C
b. vit. B d. vit. D
A

D

150
Q
  1. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body:
a. 40C c. 10C
b. 60C d. 0C
A

A

151
Q
  1. It is the enzyme which hydrolyzed starch to dextrin and maltose
a. catalase c. pepsin
b. amylase d. lactase
A

B

152
Q
  1. The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals:
a. lactose c. mannose
b.sucrose d. sucrose
A

C

153
Q
  1. The following sugars are aldohexoses EXCEPT:
a. fructose c. glucose
b. galactose d. mannose
A

A

154
Q
  1. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are
a. purines c. fatty acids
b. pyrimidines d. a and b
A

D

155
Q
  1. Major form of utilizable energy in all cells.
a. ADP c. ATP
b. GDP d. GTP
A

C

156
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an amino acid?
a. leucine b. choline
c. valine d. glycine
A

B

157
Q
  1. It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal
a. hypoglycemia c. ketonuria
b. hyperglycemia d. uremia
A

A

158
Q
  1. The ff. are essential amino acids, except:
a. tyrosine c. methionine
b. lysine d. arginine
A

A

159
Q
  1. Separates from cells when blood is coagulated
a. fibrogen d. thrombin
b. plasma e. none of the above
c. serum
A

C

160
Q
  1. What is the end product of electron transport chain?
a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide
b. hydrogen d. water
A

D

161
Q
  1. The process of producing fats from acetyl co-A is called
a. glycolysis c. glycogenolysis
b. lipogenesis d. glucogenesis
A

B

162
Q
  1. Which hormones regulates the level of blood sodium?
a. aldosterone c. corticosteroid
b. sterol d. cortisone
A

A

163
Q
  1. It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells
a. DNA c. nucleoproteins
b. RNA d. hormones
A

D

164
Q
  1. Complete digestion of all foodstuffs occurs in the
a. large intestine d. small intestine
b. stomach e. pancreas
c. mouth
A

D

165
Q
  1. The chief end product of purine metabolism in man
a. CO
    c. uric acid

    b. urea
    d. ammonia
A

C

166
Q
  1. The proteinase that is found mostly in gastric juice of young animals
a. rennin d. ptyaiin
b. pepsin e. none of the above
c. steapsin
A

A

167
Q
  1. Which among the following sugar is sweetest?
a. glucose c. sucrose
b. fructose d. galactose
A

B

168
Q
  1. Polymers that are responsible for the metabolic capabilities and morphology of organisms are
a. carbohydrates c. polysaccharides
b. proteins d. nucleic acids
A

B

169
Q
  1. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:
a. pyruvate c. acetoacetyl CoA
b. acetyl CoA d. palmitic acid
A

B

170
Q
  1. Alkaline hydrolysis of fat:
a. saponofication d. glucocortoids
b. corticosteroids e. all of the above
c. bile acids
A

A

171
Q
  1. The major buffer of the extracellular fluid
a. bicarbonate-carbon dioxide c. phosphate
b. amino acids d. none of the above
A

A

172
Q
  1. The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:
a. progesterone b. testosterone
c. insulin d. glucagons
A

C

173
Q
  1. Detects the presence of alpha amino acids:
a. Biuret c. Ninhydrin
b. Molisch d. Hopkins-cole
A

C

174
Q
  1. Which of the following amino acids is not essential in mammals?
a. phenylaline c. tyrosine
b. lyxsine d. methionine
A

C

175
Q
  1. A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels
a. calcium c. cholesterol
b. pathogens d. ketones
A

C

176
Q
  1. The difference between Benedict’s and Barfoed’s test reagent lies in:
a. sequestering agent used c. pH of the solution
b. active component used d. alkali used
A

C

177
Q
  1. Genetic code is:
a. universal c. continuous
b. composed of three nucleotides d. all are correct
A

D

178
Q
  1. Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA?
a. thymine c. uracil
b. cytosine d. guanine
A

C

179
Q
  1. The monosaccharide most rapidly absorbed from the small intestine is
a. glucose c. mannose
b. fructose d. galactose
A

D

180
Q
  1. Body functions of lipids:
a. transformation into proteins and carbohydrates
b. catabolism to provide body with heat and energy
c. insulation and paddings for organs
d. all of the above
A

D

181
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones promotes rapid glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle?
a. ACTH c. epinephrine
b. glutamine d. proclactin
A

C

182
Q
  1. Lactose can be differentiated from fructose by
a. Mucic acid test d. Iodine test
b. Barfoed’s test e. Tollen’s test
c. Fehling’s test
A

B

183
Q
  1. Prostaglandins are synthesized from:
a. oleic c. essential fatty acid
b. stearic d. non-essential fatty acids
A

C

184
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a test for protein?
a. acrolein c. Millons
b. Biuret d. xanthoproteic
A

A

185
Q
  1. The test detects the presence of two or more peptide bonds:
a. Ninhydrin c. Tollen’s
b. Fehling’s d. Biuret
A

D

186
Q
  1. Competitive inhibition is a _________________ reaction.
a. reversible c. pH and temperature
b. irreversible d. none of these
A

A

187
Q
  1. Carbohydrates are
a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones c. hemiacetals
b. polyhydroxy acids d. polymers of amino acids
A

A

188
Q
  1. Denaturation of protein is a result of
a. cleavage of the peptide bond c. breaking of H-bond
b. formation of H-bond d. none of these
A

C

189
Q
  1. Alpha-hydroxy propionic acid is:
a. lactic acid c. ascorbic acid
b. aminoacetic acid d. pyruvic acid
A

A

190
Q
  1. The energy producing reaction
a. metabolic c. anabolic
b. catabolic d. all of these
A

B

191
Q
  1. The activation of pepsinogen requires:
a. NaOH c. acetic acid
b. bicarbonate d. HCI
A

D

192
Q
  1. The condition wherein protein is found in the urine is:
a. glycosuria c. proteinuria
b. ketonuria d. dysuria
A

C

193
Q
  1. Ketoses can be differentiated from aldoses by this test
a. Molisch’s test c. Seliwanoff’s
b. Benedict’s test d. Tollen’s test
A

C

194
Q
  1. Ketogenic amino acids:
a. leucine c. pheylalanine
b. tyrosine d. all of the above
A

D

195
Q
  1. Photosynthesis is a process involved in the manufacture of
a. carbohydrates c. proteins
b. fats d. all of the above
A

A

196
Q
  1. Non-protein molecules that are often associated with proteins are called
a. prosthetic group c. zwitterions
b. side chain d. casein
A

A

197
Q
  1. DNA is primarily found in the
a. cytosol c. cell wall
b. nucleus/mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum
A

B

198
Q
  1. It is the sugar found in milk:
a. lactose c. sucrose
b. maltose d. rafinose
A

A

199
Q
  1. A hormone which stimulates glycogeneis:
a. insulin
b. glucagons
c. epinephrine
d. vasopressin
A

A

200
Q
  1. A genetic disease due to defective mechanism for pyrimidine dimers:
a. phenyl ketonuria c. albinism
b. xeroderma pigmentosum d. galactosemia
A

B

201
Q
  1. Alcohol in the body is
a. oxidized to CO2 and HOH c.excreted by kidneys
b. excreted mainly by lungs d. excreted by large intestine
A

A

202
Q
  1. Rosenheim’s test is used to detect the presence of:
a. ethanolamine b. cholesterol
b. choline d. glycone moiety
A

B

203
Q
  1. Are fibrous proteins, except:
a. keratin c. elastin
b. histones d. collagen
A

B

204
Q
  1. IUPAC name of acrolyn
a. pentenal c. hexanal
c. propenal d. acetone
A

B

205
Q
  1. Benedict’s reagent yield positive result to:
a. monosaccharide only b. reducing sugars
c. sucrose d. polysaccharides
A

B

206
Q
  1. What amino acid functions as a hormone?
a. valine c. alanine
b. leucine d. thyroxine
A

D

207
Q
  1. Central dogma concept wherein the RNA molecule is used as template
for the synthesis of DNA molecule:
a. transcription c. mutation
b. translation d. none of the above
A

D

208
Q
  1. The ff. are phospholipids, except:
a. plasmalogen c. cephalin
b. lecithin d. choline
A

D

209
Q
  1. RNA which plays an important role in the structure and biosynthetic function of ribosome:
a. mRNA c. tRNA
b. rRNA d. DNA
A

B

210
Q
  1. Which of the following is called transamination?
a. conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids
b. conversion of amino acids to keto acids
c. lose of ammonia from amino acids
d. formation of ammonium salts from ammonia
A

B

211
Q
  1. The ff. are glycolipids except:
a. globosides c. gangliosides
b. phosphatides d. cerebrosides
A

B

212
Q
  1. Gamma decarboxylation of aspartic acid produces
a. alanine c. glutamic acid
b. asparagines d. glycine
A

A

213
Q
  1. Amino acids positive for sakaguchi reaction:
a. gelatin c. arginine
b. alanine d. tyrosine
A

C

214
Q
  1. The end product of anaerobic glucose metabolism is:
a. pyruvate c. carbon dioxide 
b. lactate d. water
A

B

215
Q
  1. Most allergies are caused by :
a. error in the immune system c. dust 
b. histamines produced by the body d. all of the above
A

D

216
Q
  1. Excess vit. A & D is stored in the body, but excess vit. C & D is readily excreted. What property shows this?
a. vit C & D are water soluble c. both a & b
b. vit. A & D are fat soluble d. none of these
A

C

217
Q
  1. The pathway that occurs in the mitochondria.
a. urea cycle c. glycolysis
b. citric acid cycle d. fatty acid cycle
A

B

218
Q
  1. The following are enzymes found in pancreatic juice, except:
a. papain c. chymotrypsin
b. trypsin d. carboxypolypepticase
A

A

219
Q
  1. Endocrine gland that is a small oval body situated at the base of the brain
a. hypophysis c. adrenal
b. pancreas d. none of the above
A

A

220
Q
  1. Build up of urea in the kidney is called
 a. ketonuria c. uremia 
b. glycemia d. all of these
A

C

221
Q
  1. Which of the following tissues contains the enzyme glucose-6-Phosphatase and is able to supply glucose to
the blood?
a. heart c. liver
b. brain d. none of the above
A

C

222
Q
  1. The reagent present is Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction:
a. sodium carbonate c. sulfuric acid
b. magnesium stearate d. NaOH
A

C

223
Q
  1. Information and control centers of the cell:
a. nucleoproteins c. carbohydrates
b. enzymes d. lipids
A

A

224
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid:
a. leucine c. valine
b. choline d. lysine
A

B

225
Q
  1. The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system.
a. vit. A c. vit. C
b. vit. B complex d. vit. D
A

B

226
Q
  1. Hydrolysis of osazones produce:
a. phenylhydrazones c. sugars
b. ozones d. none of the above
A

B

227
Q
  1. Rancidity of fats maybe due to:
a. oxidation b. hydrogenation
c. saponification d. condensation
A

A

228
Q
  1. Dextran is:
a. carbohydrate c. glycoside
b. glucose polymer d. protein
A

A

229
Q
  1. Precipitate of ___________ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample:
a. ammonium phosphomolybdate c. phosphorous triiodide
b. phosphorous periodate d. phospho-ammonium sulfate complex
A

A

230
Q
  1. When starches are heated, they produce
a. sugars c. dextrins
b. glycogen d. disaccharides
A

C

231
Q
  1. General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall:
a. xanthan c. pectin
b. mucilage d. carageenan
A

C

232
Q
  1. Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen
a. dehydrogenase c.decarboxylase
b. dehydrolase d. lipase
A

A

233
Q
  1. What is the stage of glucose oxidation that requires oxygen?
a. anaerobic c. catabolic
b. aerobic d. anabolic
A

B

234
Q
  1. What is the anticodon in tRNA that corresponds to the codon ACG in mRNA?
a. UGC c. GCA
b. TGC d. CGU
A

A

235
Q
  1. Phospoprotein found in egg yolk:
a. ovocasein c. vitelin
b. tendomucoid d. avidin
A

C

236
Q
  1. Decomposition of carbohydrates brought about by the action of enzymes liberating ethyl alcohol and carbon
dioxide
a. fermentation d. hydrolysis
b. adsorption e. saponification
c. detoxification
A

A

237
Q
  1. The substance responsible or the emulsion of fats is
a. HCI c. pepsin
b. bile acids d. trypsin
A

B

238
Q
  1. Are esters of fatty acids with glycerol:
a. phospholipids c. waxes
b. glycolipids d. fats
A

D

239
Q
  1. Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice:
a. trypsin c. gastrin
b. pepsin d. enterokinase
A

B

240
Q
  1. Protein digestion starts in the
a. mouth c. stomach
b. small intestine d. large intestine
A

C

241
Q
  1. Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to
a. presence of the free aldehyde group
b presence of alcohol group
c. presence of amylose portion
d. presence of glucose
A

C

242
Q
  1. Which sugar contains an aldehyde group?
a. ketose c. sorbitol
b. aldose d. mannitol
A

B

243
Q
  1. Compounds of protein with a carbohydrate component:
a. lipoproteins c. glycoproteins
b. phosphoproteins d. nucleoproteins
A

C

244
Q
  1. The inactive form of enzymes are called ___________.
a. zymogens c. cofactor
b. apoenzymes d. both B & C
A

A

245
Q
  1. The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:
a. gluconeogenesis b. glycolysis
c. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysisp
A

A

246
Q
  1. The major extracellular cation is
a. potassium c. calcium
b. sodium d. iron
A

B

247
Q

39 The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in
a. Lock and Key theory c. competitive inhibition
b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis

A

B

248
Q
  1. Differentiating test between helical and linear polysaccharides:
a. Molisch c. Schweitzer
b. iodine d. fermentation
A

B

249
Q
  1. The bond joining pentose sugar to nitrogen base is:
a. 1, 4 glycosidic bond c. peptide bond
b. B 1, 4 glycosidic bond d. N-glycosyl linkage
A

A

250
Q
  1. The ff. test reagents to detect the presence of amino acids, execpt:
a. Grignard’s c. Millon-Nasse
b. Xanthoproteic d. Sakaguchi
A

A

251
Q
  1. Oxidation product of ketone bodies:
a. reduced sugars c. alcohols
b. carbon dioxide d. aldehydes
A

B

252
Q
  1. Positive indication for Anthrone test:
a. purple ring c. effervescenve
b. blue-green color d. yellow ppt
A

B

253
Q
  1. This vitamin easily undergoes oxidation
a. vitamin A c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin C d. vitamin B1
A

B

254
Q
  1. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called
a. gluconeogenesis c. glycolysis
b. glycogenesis d. glycogenolysis
A

B

255
Q
  1. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the
a. nucleus c. cytoplasm
b. mitochondria d. lysosomes
A

C

256
Q
  1. Glutamine is a _____________amino acid:
a. neutral c. acidic
b. basic d. racemin
A

A

257
Q
  1. The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure
a. primary c. tertiary
b. secondary d. quaternary
A

A

258
Q
  1. It is a precursor of vit. A
a. B-carotene c. retinal
b. retinol d. opium
A

A

259
Q
  1. The most important function of HCL in the stomach is
a. hydrolysis of protein d. destruction of bacteria
b. neutralization of chime e. stimulation of pancreatic
c. activation of pepsinogen secretion
A

C

260
Q
  1. It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain.
a. mitochondria b. ribosome
c. nucleus d. lysosome
A

A

261
Q
  1. Hubl’s solution is used to acertain degree of:
a. saturation c. peroxidation
b. unsaturation d. acidity
A

B

262
Q
  1. Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test:
a. tocopherol c. sphingomyelin
b. retinol d. cerebroside
A

A

263
Q
  1. The following enzymes catalyze hydrolysis reactions, EXCEPT:
a. proteases c. transaminases
b. esterases d. nucleases
A

C

264
Q
  1. Insulin is usually classified as:
a. protein b. enzyme
c. hormone d. carbohydrates
A

C

265
Q
  1. An example of globular protein
a. albumin c. fibrin
b. collagen d. silk
A

A

266
Q
  1. The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the:
a.apoenzyme c. cofactor
b.coenzyme d. holoenzyme
A

A

267
Q
  1. The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
a. yellow colored solution c. silver mirror formed in the test tube
b. black markings on filter d. play of colors, from blue to shades paper of red
A

B

268
Q
  1. Histidine is negative for:
a. Pauly reaction c. ninhydrine
b. sodium nitroprusside d. xanthoproteic
A

B

269
Q
  1. Ninhydrin give a blue coloration with
a. proteins c. amino acids
b. carbohydrates d. simple sugars
A

C

270
Q
  1. Which of the following supplies the highest amount of energy per gram?
a. fat c. protein
b. glycogen d. starch
A

A

271
Q
  1. The metallic salt of a high fatty acid:
a. soap c. inorganic salt
b. detergent d. glycerin
A

A

272
Q
  1. An inherited disease that affect red blood cells
a. albenism c. sickle cell anemia
b. hyperglycemia d. hypoglycemia
A

C

273
Q
  1. It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information.
a. adenine c. DNA
b. RNA d. nucleic acid
A

C

274
Q
  1. Presence of glucose in appreciable amounts in the urine:
a. hematuria c. glycosemia
b. glycosuria d. akbuminaria
A

B

275
Q
  1. The sugar involved in DNA
a. ribose c. deoxyribose
b. pentose d. xylose
A

C

276
Q
  1. What is a wobble?
a. the ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
b. an error in translation induced by streptomycin
c. a mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50S submit of the ribosome
d. thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix
A

A

277
Q
  1. The steps of central states:
a. replication, translation and transcription
b. replication, translation and transmission
c. replication, translation and translation
d. transcription, translation and replication
A

C

278
Q
  1. The following are essential fatty acids, EXCEPTt:
a. oleic acid c. linolenic acid
b. linoleic acid d. arachidonic acid
A

A

279
Q
  1. The parent compound of phosphoslipids:
a. glycerol c. ethanolamine
b. phosphatidic acid d. none of the above
A

B

280
Q
  1. The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction _________________.
a. competes with the active site of the enzyme
b. binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site
c. increases the rate of reaction
d. both b and c
A

B

281
Q
  1. Check the incorrect statement
a. ribose is an aldopentose c. galactose is an aldohexose
b. maltose is a ketohexose d. glucose is an aldohexose
A

B

282
Q
  1. A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen’ sphloroglucinol test:
a. galactose c. fructose
b. glucose d. cellobiose
A

D

283
Q
  1. The type of RNA molecule that brings amino acids to the site of protein synthesis is:
a. rRNA c. mRNA
b. aRNA d. Trna
A

D

284
Q
  1. An enzyme is a substance which
a. convert heat to energy b. act as a catalyst
c. change chemically in reaction d. is not specific in reaction
A

B

285
Q
  1. The conversion of beta carotene to vitamin A is carried out in the
a. liver c. lungs
b. small intestine d. pancreas
A

A

286
Q
  1. The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is
a. alanine c. glycine
b. proline d. cysteine
A

C

287
Q
  1. This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
a. muscle glycogen c. lactic acid
b. amino acids d. glucose
A

C

288
Q
  1. Which of the following is the test for reducing sugars for urine?
a. Benedict’s test c. Biuret test
b. Acrolein test d. Brown Ring test
A

A

289
Q
  1. The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
a. galactose c. fructose
b. maltose d. sucrose
A

B

290
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for the transfer of genetic information?
a. ATP c. DNA
b. GTP d. RNA
A

C

291
Q
  1. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called__________.
a. non essential amino acids c. standard amino acids
b. essential amino acids d. alpha amino acids
A

B

292
Q
  1. In the Seliwanioff’s test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms___________.
a. hydroxymethyl furfural c. hydraxine
b. pyranose d. purine
A

A

Module 2 (3 decks)

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