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BIOCHEM Flashcards

1
Q

Referred to as “suicide bags” of the cell, containing a variety of hydrolytic and degradative enzyme
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Microsome
D. Ribosomes

A

A. Lysosomes

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2
Q

The ability of water to absorb and store a large amount of heat thus preventing the rise in body temperature is called
A. High heat conductivity
B. High specific heat
C. High latent heat of evaporation
D. All of the above

A

B. High specific heat

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3
Q

The most prominent feature of the eukaryotic cell, serving as its
information center, is the –
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

C. Nucleus

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4
Q

Reactions in vivo can be differentiated from reactions in vitro by the following
A. Mild due to high specific heat of water.
B. Fast due to presence of enzymes.
C. Orderly due to cell specialization.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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5
Q

Water as hydrophilic colloid system, has for its main function
A. Hastens chemical reaction.
B. Maintains body temperature.
C. Maintenance for the size and shape of cell.
D. All of the above.

A

B. Maintains body temperature.

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6
Q

Susan is 21 years old. Ever since she can remember, her monthly menstrual
periods has been associated with a moderate to severe crampy hypogastric
pains, accompanied by a profuse flow. Her physician prescribed iron
supplements to be taken everyday and referred her for a gynecologic consult.
However, she is so busy in school that it seems impossible to fit this with her
schedule. There are many occasions when she forgets to buy her iron tablets
and, even when she has a supply of it, she forgets to take the medicine regularly.
Lately she has been complaining of body weakness. On more than one occasion,
her friends commented that she looked pale.

The following could be true about the peripheral smear of the blood of Susan.
A. the rbc’s are unusually large (megaloblastic).
B. the rbc’s are small (microcytic) and hypochromic.
C. the rbc’s would have different sizes, and different shapes.
D. All of the above are true.

A

B. the rbc’s are small (microcytic) and hypochromic.

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7
Q

Susan is 21 years old. Ever since she can remember, her monthly menstrual
periods has been associated with a moderate to severe crampy hypogastric
pains, accompanied by a profuse flow. Her physician prescribed iron
supplements to be taken everyday and referred her for a gynecologic consult.
However, she is so busy in school that it seems impossible to fit this with her
schedule. There are many occasions when she forgets to buy her iron tablets
and, even when she has a supply of it, she forgets to take the medicine regularly.
Lately she has been complaining of body weakness. On more than one occasion,
her friends commented that she looked pale.

In her case, the following results could be true:
A. level of hemoglobin is below normal
B. serum transferrin value is depressed.
C. serum ferritin value is elevated
D. All of the above are true.

A

A. level of hemoglobin is below normal

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8
Q

Susan is 21 years old. Ever since she can remember, her monthly menstrual
periods has been associated with a moderate to severe crampy hypogastric
pains, accompanied by a profuse flow. Her physician prescribed iron
supplements to be taken everyday and referred her for a gynecologic consult.
However, she is so busy in school that it seems impossible to fit this with her
schedule. There are many occasions when she forgets to buy her iron tablets
and, even when she has a supply of it, she forgets to take the medicine regularly.
Lately she has been complaining of body weakness. On more than one occasion,
her friends commented that she looked pale.

Therefore, the best thing that Susan could do is:
A. Seek gynecological consult.
B. Eat iron rich foods.
C. Continue with her iron supplement.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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9
Q

Iron in the body is absorbed in:
A. ileum
B. fundus of the stomach
C. duodenum
D. jejunum

A

A. ileum
C. duodenum

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10
Q
  1. The glycoprotein involved in the transport or iron is:
    A. ferredoxin
    B. apoferritin
    C. ferrous iron
    D. transferrin
A

D. transferrin

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11
Q

The major protein involved n the storage or iron is:
A. lactoferrin
B. ferritin
C. transferrin
D. ferredoxin

A

B. ferritin

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12
Q

Iron that has anti-microbial effects thus can protect the newborn:
A. lactoferrin
B. ferredoxin
C. apoferritin
D. transferrin

A

A. lactoferrin

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13
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true about iron:
A. Cooking of food does not necessarily affect its absorption.
B. Low ph is necessary in its absorption
C. Much of it is absorbed in the intestines and much is also excreted.
D. All of the above are true.

A

B. Low ph is necessary in its absorption

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14
Q

Ingested iron is:
A. Absorbed by the mucosal cell
B. Once absorbed by the mucosal cell, it can be excreted through cellular slough.
C. Absorbed, then it could be absorbed by the capillary and trapped by transferrin.
D. All of the above are true

A

D. All of the above are true

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15
Q

Protein digestion starts in the:
A. Mouth where the amylase can be found.
B. Stomach where the acidic environment favors denaturation.
C. Intestines where proteolytic enzymes are abundant
D. All of the above.

A

B. Stomach where the acidic environment favors denaturation.

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16
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true about protein turnover:
A. Proteins that are important in metabolic regulation are generally short-lived
B. Protein turnover takes place constantly in cells.
C. Ubiquitin tap the protein for destruction
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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17
Q

Amino acids released on protein digestion follow this fate:
A. They are degraded into specific compounds
B. The amino group is removed form the amino acid in a process
called deamination.
C. The α keto acids that results are metabolized so that the C
skeletons can enter the TCA cycle.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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18
Q

Excess NH4 from the breakdown of amino acids are:
A. converted into urea and excreted
B. converted to proteins and re-utilized by the body
C. utilized in the glycolytic pathway for glucose formation
D. all of the above

A

A. converted into urea and excreted

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19
Q

The amount of enzyme that will produced one micromote of
product/min. at 250C, under standardized condition is called
A. unit of activity
B. specific activity
C. turnover number
D. Michaelis-Menten constant

A

A. unit of activity

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19
Q

The carbon skeletons of the 5C amino acids enter the citric acid cycle as:
A. glutamate
B. glycine
C. α Ketoglutarate
D. urocanate

A

C. α Ketoglutarate

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20
Q

When lead combines with the sulfhydryl group of enzymes, it inactivates the enzyme; this inactivation is brought about by
A. competitive inhibition
B. non-competitive inhibition
C. allosteric inhibition
D. de-inhibition

A

B. non-competitive inhibition

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21
Q

In a complex enzyme system, the protein, heat labile, non dialyzable portion is called
A. Holoenzyme
B. Apoprotein
C. Co-enzyme
D. Prosthetic group

A

B. Apoprotein

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22
Q

Activity of enzymes is expressed in terms of
A. product formation
B. velocity
C. ES complex
D. Km

A

B. velocity

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23
Q

At the start of the reaction of enzymes, velocity of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to enzyme concentration provided the following
condition(s) is/are present
A. substrate is in excess
B. a zero order kinetics
C. a 1st order kinetics
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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24
Q

In an enzyme-substrate reaction, a large Km means
A. it is equal to its maximum velocity
B. a high affinity of enzyme for the substrate
C. a low affinity of enzyme for the substrate
D. it is directly proportional to its velocity

A

C. a low affinity of enzyme for the substrate

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25
Q

A co-enzyme that can act alternately as an oxidizing and reducing agent is
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B2
D. Vitamin K

A

A. Vitamin C

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26
Q

The following enzyme can bring about the cleavage of C-C, C-O, and C-N bonds in a substrate
A. Lyase
B. Ligase
C. Isomerase
D. Hydrase

A

A. Lyase

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27
Q

An enzyme is considered as oxidase, when in the reaction which it catalyzes:
A. oxygen is added to the substrate
B. oxygen is the H+ acceptor
C. oxygen acts as co-enzyme
D. oxygen is given off

A

B. oxygen is the H+ acceptor

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28
Q

The amount of energy expressed in calories per mole, that must be supplied before there is sufficient interaction between reactants to form
product, is called
A. unit of activity
B. energy of activity
C. catalytic energy
D. Km

A

B. energy of activity

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29
Q

A 2 month old bottle-fed infant was brought to her pediatrician’s clinic
because the mother complained that the infant often had colic and
diarrhea which were especially noted after intake of her formula. This
infant could be deficient in:
A. Lactase
B. Maltase
C. Amylase
D. Sucrase

A

A. Lactase

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30
Q

Initial chemical digestion of carbohydrates to maltose takes place in the:
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. Intestine

A

A. Mouth

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31
Q

Acetylcholine stimulates the secretion of the following, EXCEPT;
A. Saliva
B. Gastric juices
C. Pancreatic enzymes
D. No exception

A

D. No exception

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32
Q

The following statements describe the plasma membranes of the parietal
cells in the stomach:
A. The contraluminal region contains H+/K+ ATPase.
B. Chloride ions are exchanged for HCO3 ions in the luminal side.
C. Under steady state conditions, movement of HCI through the luminal region is coupled to the movement of bicarbonate ions through the contraluminal side.
D. None of the above.

A

C. Under steady state conditions, movement of HCI through the luminal region is coupled to the movement of bicarbonate ions through the contraluminal side.

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33
Q

A 40 year old, G2P2, Filipina, weighing 80 kgs. Came into the
emergency room complaining of severe RUQ pain radiating to the back which was noted after eating lechon at her friend’s birthday party. The internist’s diagnosis which was confirmed by ultrasound was cholecystitis
with cholithiasis. The reasons why gallstones develop in the gallbladder are the following, EXCEPT:
A. Contact time between bile and crystallization nuclei is greater in the
gallbladder.
B. Gallbladder concentrates bile by reabsorbing water
C. Bile secreted by the gallbladder is supersaturated with cholesterol than the bile secreted by the liver which contains more phospholipids.
D. No exception.

A

C. Bile secreted by the gallbladder is supersaturated with cholesterol than the bile secreted by the liver which contains more phospholipids.

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34
Q

True of micelles, EXCEPT:
A. Aggregates of bile acids which possess detergent properties.
B. Major vehicle for moving lipids from the lumen to the mucosal
surface of the enterocytes where absorption occur.
C. Not important in the absorption of fat soluble vitamins.
D. No exception.

A

D. No exception.

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35
Q

The following statement(s) about pepsin is/are true:
A. They denature proteins making them more susceptible to hydrolysis
by amylases.
B. They are active in an acid environment but unstable in a neutral environment.
C. They are generated from the proenzyme pepsinogen which are
activated by HCl alone.
D. All

A

B. They are active in an acid environment but unstable in a neutral environment.

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36
Q

Glucose transport through the intestinal epithelium:
A. Occurs through tight junctions between cells through a Na+-glucose
cotransport.
B. Occurs transcellularly driven by the electrochemical Na+ gradient
C. Is directly dependent on a supply of ATP that energizes the Na+-
K+ATPase.
D. Occurs with the concentration gradient.

A

B. Occurs transcellularly driven by the electrochemical Na+ gradient

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37
Q

Absorption of lipids by the epithelial cells occurs by:
A. Diffusion through the plasma membrane
B. Active transport
C. Cotransport with Na+
D. Carrier mediation

A

A. Diffusion through the plasma membrane

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37
Q

The final digestion of proteins occurs at:
A. The intestinal lumen by trypsin
B. The luminal surface of the enterocytes by aminopeptidases
C. Inside the enterocytes by dipepetidases.
D. In the capillaries located near the bases of the enterocytes

A

C. Inside the enterocytes by dipepetidases.

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38
Q

The principle behind the use of oral rehydration in diarrhea is the theory
of ”itching on” the ff. mechanism:
A. Sodium chloride coupled entry
B. Sodium-glucose coupled entry
C. Passive diffusion of sodium
D. All of the above

A

B. Sodium-glucose coupled entry

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39
Q

Studies have shown that inspite of the diarrhea considerable absorption
in the GIT still occurs which is true for –
A. Carbohydrates – 80%-90%
B. Fats – 50-80%
C. Proteins – 50-75%
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

40
Q
  1. The signs and symptoms of dehydration usually are not obvious until
    fluid losses amount to at least –
    A. 1-2% of body weight
    B. 4-5 of body weight
    C. 6-9% of body weight
    D. 10-15% of body weight
A

B. 4-5 of body weight

41
Q

To achieve maximal absorption of Na+ and water, the ORS solution
should have a glucose concentration of –
A. 10-20 gm/L
B. 20-30 gm/L
C. 30-40 gm / L
D. 40-50 gm/ L

A

B. 20-30 gm/L

42
Q

The leading cause of diarrhea (etiologic agent) in children below 5 years
old is –
A. Staph. aureus
B. E. coli
C. Rotavirus
D. Cholera vibrio

A

C. Rotavirus

43
Q

The following are true regarding inorganic elements, EXCEPT:
A. They are needed to provide a suitable medium for protoplasmic
activity.
B. They play a role in osmotic phenomena.
C. They are involved in acid-base equilibra.
D. They are negligible and are not important in the body metabolism

A

D. They are negligible and are not important in the body metabolism

44
Q

The freely moving calcium in tissue, extracellular fluid and blood is
known as:
A. Ionized calcium
B. Miscible calcium pool
C. Bound-calcium
D. All of the above

A

B. Miscible calcium pool

45
Q

The vitamin that aids the absorption of calcium and phosphates in the
GIT:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K

A

B. Vitamin D

46
Q

Iron in the diet is reduced to the ferrous form in the presence of:
A. Ferritin
B. Antacids
C. Gastric acidity
D. Calcium

A

C. Gastric acidity

47
Q

Extrahepatic tissues like the skeleton and heart muscle utilize the following ketone bodies as source of fuel, EXCEPT:
A. Acetoacetic acid
B. Acetone
C. B-hydroxybutyric acid
D. Ketoacids

A

B. Acetone

48
Q

Chylomicrons produces the “milky” appearance of blood following a
heavy intake of fat, and can be removed only by the action of –
A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. Heparin
C. Insulin
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

49
Q

After long period of starvation, fats may still be found in the tissues, in
the form of –
A. Triglycerides
B. Phospholipids
C. Cholesterol
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

50
Q

Fatty acids, in order to be oxidized through B-oxidation in the mitochondria must be “ferried” through the mitochondrial membrane and
this is brought about by –
A. Acetyl Co A
B. Thiolases
C. Thiokinase
D. Carnithine

A

D. Carnithine

51
Q

Once formed in the body, cholesterol can give rise to –
A. Bile acids
B. Vitamin D
C. Steroid hormones
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

52
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true about glycolysis:
A. It can occur without oxygen.
B. It happens in the mitochondria of cells.
C. It is only an alternative pathway for the metabolism of glucose.
D. Aerobic glycolysis results in the production of lactic acid

A

A. It can occur without oxygen.

53
Q

Storage form of glucose in animals:
A. Starch
B. Polysaccharides
C. Glycogen
D. All of the above

A

C. Glycogen

54
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process of:
A. Transormation of non-glucose substrates into glucose.
B. Breakdown of glycogen into single glucose units.
C. Breaking of glucose into energy.
D. All of the above

A

A. Transormation of non-glucose substrates into glucose.

55
Q

Glycogenolysis means:
A. Breakdown of glycogen into single glucose units.
B. Breakdown of glucose into energy.
C. Formation of glycogen from single glucose units.
D. All of the above

A

A. Breakdown of glycogen into single glucose units.

56
Q

The end product of anaerobic metabolism is;
A. Pyruvate
B. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
C. Lactate
D. 2 phosphoglycerate

A

C. Lactate

57
Q

Only 4 bases in DNA can code for the huge amount of information
needed to make an organism and this is because of the ff. reason(s):
A. The linear order or sequence of bases along the DNA is completely
unrestricted.
B. Base pairs lie almost flat and staked on top of the another
perpendicular to the long axis of the double helix.
C. Base pairings in the double helix are said to be complementary.
D. DNA bases are arranged into codons in different combinations and
in various lengths.

A

A. The linear order or sequence of bases along the DNA is completely
unrestricted.

58
Q

The ff. is/are correct of the nomenclature of nucleotides:
A. They are named as the phosphates of nucleosides.
B. The phosphorus atoms are labeled ,  and gamma starting from
that nearest to the C5.
C. The primed number indicates the position of esterification on
ribose.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

59
Q

Physiologic functions of nucleotides include:
A. Protein and nucleic acid synthesis
B. Regulatory cascades
C. Intra and intercellular signal transduction pathways
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

60
Q

The initial step is the salvage pathway for the recovery of the purines
and pyrimidines released during metabolism involves the following:
A. Phosphorylation of inosine monophosphate to inosine diphosphate
B. Reaction of ribose-5-PO4 with phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
(PRPP) to form the monophosphate.
C. inosine monophosphate is dephosphorylated to form
hypoxanthineribonucleoside.
D. inosine monophosphate is aminated to form inosine

A

B. Reaction of ribose-5-PO4 with phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
(PRPP) to form the monophosphate.

61
Q

Base pairing in the DNA helix is complementary, this means that;
A. Adenine pairs with cystosine
B. Thymine pairs with guanine
C. Guanine pairs with cytosine
D. Thymine pairs with cytosine

A

C. Guanine pairs with cytosine

62
Q

The base pairs are the right size to fit into the helix because:
A. A-C of G-T pairs have the correct H-bonding pattern.
B. The distance between the points at attachment of the bases to the
2 strands of the sugar PO4 backbone is the same for the 2 pairs.
C. The length of one complete turn of the helix contains 10 base pairs.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

63
Q

Denaturation of DNA:
A. is also referred to as “melting”
B. is characterized by hyperchromicity
C. is seen when bases become unstacked
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

64
Q

The foremost utility of DNA denaturation:
A. to determine genetic sequence in gene mapping
B. to obtain single stranded DNAs
C. for experimental purposes of any kind
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

65
Q

Ben was diagnosed to have chronic myelocytic leukemia. He is on the
second cycle of his chemotherapy. After the session, he was given a
prescription for allopurinol tablets. The reason for this is:
A. he has an increased excretion of uric acid
B. there is an increased breakdown of nucleic acids
C. leukemic patients synthesize purines and pyrimidines faster
D. one of the complication of leukemia is gouty arthritis

A

B. there is an increased breakdown of nucleic acids

66
Q

Being his birthday, David had an alcohol binge last night indulging himself with chicken liver and entrails. He woke up with a splitting headache, and acute pain on his left big toe and he was dizzy. The big
toe seems very swollen. David is probably having;
A. a hangover
B. osteoarthritis
C. rheumatoid arthritis
D. acute gouty arthritis

A

D. acute gouty arthritis

67
Q

Primary management in David’s case would be:
A. hydration
B. pain relievers
C. minimize intake of purine rich food
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

68
Q

As to the latest concept of respiratory chain (ETS) it is observed that the
collecting point for reducing substrate is:
A. NAD linked dehydrogenase.
B. Coenzyme Q.
C. FAD linked DEH (dehydrogenase).
D. Electron transferring flavoprotein.

A

B. Coenzyme Q.

69
Q

The enzyme present in RBC that catalyzes the destruction of hydrogen
peroxide thus protecting the membrane lipids and hemoglobin against
oxidation by peroxide is –
A. Catalase
B. Glutathione peroxidase
C. Monooxygenase
D. Superoxide dismutase

A

B. Glutathione peroxidase

70
Q

Some biochemist believed that the toxicity of oxygen is due to its
conversion to superoxide and this is formed –
A. during univalent oxidations with molecular oxygen in the respiratory chain.
B. when reduced NADP are reoxidized univalently by molecular
oxygen.
C. when reduced cytochromes are oxidized.
D. All of the above.

A

A. during univalent oxidations with molecular oxygen in the respiratory chain.

71
Q

In the TCA cycle, FAD is the hydrogen acceptor form the following compounds, thus forming 3 ATPs –
A. Isocitrate
B. α, Ketoglutarate
C. L-malate
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

72
Q

Atractyloside inhibits oxidative phosphorylation by
A. Inhibiting the oxidation of the substrate that communicates directly with the respiratory chain.
B. Inhibiting the transport of ADP into the mitochondria.
C. Blocking the respiratory chain at cytochrome oxidase.
D. Blocking the breakdown of ATP to c-AMP

A

A. Inhibiting the oxidation of the substrate that communicates directly with the respiratory chain.

73
Q

Evaporation through the skin and lungs as a vehicle for losing heat from
the body, removes –
A. 5% of heat
B. 10% of heat
C. 27% of heat
D. 70% of heat

A

C. 27% of heat

74
Q

The ability of the different foodstuffs to replace each other in the diet for
energy as well as for heat production in proportion to their caloric value
is –
A. Specific dynamic action of foods
B. Isodynamic laws of Hubner.
C. Protein sparing action of foods.
D. Plethora Theory of Lusk

A

B. Isodynamic laws of Hubner.

75
Q

The Atwater-Rosa-Benedict calorimeter is used to measure the
following –
A. heat produced
B. oxygen utilized
C. carbon dioxide output
D. core temperature

A

D. core temperature

76
Q

When the temperature of the environment is high, one way of losing heat
from the body is through the skin via the process of –
A. radiation
B. convection
C. conduction
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

77
Q

27 year old female came to the ER for complaints of difficulty of
breathing increase after a quarrel with her boyfriend. All vital signs were
normal except for an increase in the respiratory rate of 30/min. Her
digits were slightly cool and hyperextended. An ABG was taken and the
result showed respiratory alkalosis. The mechanism of the respiratory
alkalosis in this state is the following –
A. The low oxygen content of the air stimulates respiration which
cause excess loss of CO2 and development of mild respiratory
alkalosis upon ascent to high altitude.
B. Major means of compensation are the chemical buffers of the body
fluids and the ability of the kidney to increase bicarbonate
secretion.
C. Overventilation of the lungs causes an excess removal of CO2 from the body.
D. All of the above are true.

A

C. Overventilation of the lungs causes an excess removal of CO2 from the body.

78
Q

A 2 year old male child was brought to the ER by the mother because
of unresponsiveness. The patient had on and off episodes of diarrhea
1 week PTA which the mother cannot account. 3 days PTA, she noted
the child to have increased episodes of stooling, but still not quantified
and gave the child, boiled rice water which she claimed had reduced
the diarrheic episodes. A nite PTA, the patient kept on sleeping and this
morning when patient was awakened by the mother, he was
unresponsive. BP = 40/20 ; CR = 92/MIN ; RR = 12/min shallow;
Temp. = 36.50C. Skin showed (+) testing, oral cavity dry, clear breath
sounds, regular cardiac rhythm, no murmur, abdomen was tympanitic.
Serum electrolytes showed Na = 128 meq/L ; K+ = 2.5 meq/L ; ABG pH
7.3 ; pCO2 = 45 ; HCO3 = 15 ; O2 saturation = 95%. Which of the
following is most likely the problem in this patient?
A. The patient developed metabolic acidosis because of severe dehydration 2° to diarrhea.
B. The patient went into coma because of brain damage.
C. The patient is very weak because of hypokalemia alone.
D. The patient is just tired from having diarrhea and needs to sleep it
off.

A

A. The patient developed metabolic acidosis because of severe dehydration 2° to diarrhea.

79
Q

The mechanism for the above impression is due to:
A. Impairment of renal tubular bicarbonate reabsorption causing the
loss of HCO3- in the urine.
B. Normally, gastrointestinal secretions contain large amounts of HCO3- and they are lost in the stools during diarrheic episodes.
C. Fats in the GIT are split into acetoacetic acid casuing severe
metabolic acidosis.
D. The kidneys of this patient did not have a compensatory
mechanism

A

B. Normally, gastrointestinal secretions contain large amounts of HCO3- and they are lost in the stools during diarrheic episodes.

80
Q

The following are the abnormalities seen in the patient, EXCEPT:
A. Hypoxemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Severe dehydration

A

A. Hypoxemia

81
Q

Other causes that could contribute to metabolic acidosis include the following –
A. chronic renal failure
B. ingestion of aspirin
C. vomiting
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

82
Q

The following statement(s) characterize(s) the hormonal cascade
system:
A. The target gland is the last hormone producing tissue in the
cascade which is stimulated by a specific anterior pituitary
hormone.
B. Signals consisting of external and internal hormonal signals are first
transmitted to the CNS.
C. Negative feedback mechanisms provide tight controls in the
operation of the cascade.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q

A 14 year old female was admitted for multiple injuries secondary to a
vehicular accident. A CT scan was done which showed a fracture in the
sella turcica and a hemorrhage at the posterior pituitary, the anterior
pituitary was intact. The injury would cause failure in the ultimate release of which hormone:
A. Oxytocin
B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Prolactin

A

A. Oxytocin

84
Q

A 14 year old female was admitted for multiple injuries secondary to a
vehicular accident. A CT scan was done which showed a fracture in the
sella turcica and a hemorrhage at the posterior pituitary, the anterior
pituitary was intact. The injury would cause failure in the ultimate release of which hormone:

Symptoms of the above mentioned hormone deficiency would include:
A. Failure of milk letdown
B. Growth delay
C. Easy fatigability
D. Inability of the breast tissue to produce milk

A

A. Failure of milk letdown

85
Q

A 26 year old male, figured in a car accident. Physical examination
showed bleeding on multiple sites with BP noted to be 90/60mmHg.
What is the main driving force for aldosterone synthesis:
A. Angiotensin II
B. Acetylcholine
C. Stress
D. All of the above

A

A. Angiotensin II

86
Q

The following statement about corticosteroid-binding globulin is true:
A. It binds about 80% of the total 17-hydroxysteroids in the blood.
B. 22% of cortisol in the blood is bound to corticosteroid-binding
globulin.
C. Majority of aldosterone is bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin.
D. Hormones bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin bind to intracellular receptors and produce biological effects

A

A. It binds about 80% of the total 17-hydroxysteroids in the blood.

87
Q

Hormones bind to specific receptors sites in the cell. Which is not the right pair:
A. Insulin : Cell surface
B. Cortisol : Cell cytoplasm
C. Aldosterone : Cell surface
D. Thyroid hormone : Nucleus

A

C. Aldosterone : Cell surface

88
Q

“Hormone” is a Greek term which means:
A. to regulate
B. to control
C. to overpower
D. to set in motion

A

D. to set in motion

89
Q

An understanding of the circulating half-life of a hormone is important to:
A. achieve physiologic hormone replacement
B. have an idea on how the hormone is synthesized
C. get a general view on the secretion of the hormone
D. facilitate understanding on how the hormone is degraded

A

A. achieve physiologic hormone replacement

90
Q

Hormones bind to receptors with:
A. high specificity
B. high affinity
C. no regard to the class of the receptor
D. only A and B

A

A. high specificity

91
Q

True about the negative feedback mechanism:
A. Conditions resulting from the action of the hormone prevents its further release.
B. It usually potentiates the activity of the hormone itself.
C. When the target tissue activity rises to a certain level, feedback
signals empower the hormone even more to produce a cascade of
effects.
D. The controlled variable is the secretory rate of the hormone.

A

A. Conditions resulting from the action of the hormone prevents its further release.

92
Q

One of the following hormones uses the cAMP as the second
messenger system:
A. Glucagon
B. Thyroid releasing hormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Angiotensin II

A

B. Thyroid releasing hormone

93
Q

One of the following hormones use the phospholipase C as the second messenger system:
A. Calcitonin
B. B receptors of the catecholamines
C. Alpha receptors of the catecholamines
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

A

C. Alpha receptors of the catecholamines

94
Q

True about the positive feedback mechanism:
A. The biological action of the hormone causes additional secretion of the hormone.
B. The surge of the hormone causes inhibition to its further release.
C. It prevents the overactivity of the hormone system
D. A fitting example would be the hypothalamic, pituitary thyroid axis.

A

A. The biological action of the hormone causes additional secretion of the hormone.

95
Q

Jessica visited her physician a week ago for urinary tract infection. She was given a course of antibiotics which relieved her symptoms. One of the incidental findings in her urinalrysis was a sugar of +2. Her 2 babies were both born big and fat. She herself is on the obese side.

The abnormality in the glucose homeostasis in Jessica’s case could be
due to a derangement in the hormones produced by the following
organs, EXCEPT:
A. kidneys
B. thyroid gland
C. pancreas
D. adrenals

A

A. kidneys

96
Q

Jessica visited her physician a week ago for urinary tract infection. She was given a course of antibiotics which relieved her symptoms. One of the incidental findings in her urinalrysis was a sugar of +2. Her 2 babies were both born big and fat. She herself is on the obese side.

If Jessica’s pancreas is normal, the following would describe the organ anatomically:
A. It would be retroperitoneal at the level of the 4th and 5th lumbar verterbrae.
B. Anterior to it would be the transverse colon, the attachment of the transverse mesocolon and the stomach.
C. Posterior to it would be the lesser sac.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

97
Q

Insulin has the following effect(s):
A. inhibition of lipoprotein lipase
B. increased glycogen synthesis
C. decreased K+ uptake
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

98
Q

Insulin acts rapidly by:
A. inhibiting protein catabolism
B. inhibiting protein synthesis
C. increasing transport of glucose
D. activating phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

A

C. increasing transport of glucose

EBS (4 decks)

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