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ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

The superior boundary of the epiploic foramen:
A. free border of the lesser omentum containing the portal triad
B. inferior vena cava
C. caudate process of the caudate lobe of the liver
D. first portion of the duodenum

A

C. caudate process of the caudate lobe of the liver

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2
Q

Less likely to produce ascites:
A. hepatic cirrhosis
B. cancer of the ovary
C. gastritis
D. congestive hear failure

A

C. gastritis

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3
Q

Important factor in the production of an ulcer in the anterolateral wall of the first part of
the duodenum:
A. acid chime squired as the stomach empties
B. high level of pepsin
C. bile secretion after food intake
D. digestive enzymes excreted out by the pancreas

A

A. acid chime squired as the stomach empties

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4
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to why the appendix is prone to infection:
A. it has a large amount of lymphoid tissue in its wall
B. the lumen has a tendency to become obstructed by hardened intestinal contents
C. it is supplied by a long small artery that does not anastomose with any other artery
D. it is a long narrow blind-ended tube which encourages stasis of large bowel contents

A

C. it is supplied by a long small artery that does not anastomose with any other artery

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5
Q

Occurring at points where the circular muscle is weakest. Where the blood vessels pierce
the muscles, herniation of the lining mucosa through the circular muscle between taenia
coli occurs:
A. volvulus
B. intussusception
C. diverticulosis
D. achalasia

A

C. diverticulosis

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6
Q

Which is not true regarding aneurysm of the abdominal aorta:
A. usually occur below the origin of the renal arteries
B. majority result from atherosclerosis which weakens the wall
C. occur most commonly in elderly women
D. large aneurysms should be surgically excised and replaced with a graft

A

C. occur most commonly in elderly women

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7
Q

Common cause of colic, EXCEPT:
A. compression of the inferior vena cava
B. intestinal obstruction
C. passage of gallstone in the biliary duct
D. passage of the stone in the ureter

A

A. compression of the inferior vena cava

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8
Q

Total gastrectomy for gastric cancer does not include the removal of:
A. lower end of esophagus
B. first part of duodenum
C. head of the pancreas
D. spleen

A

C. head of the pancreas

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9
Q

Herniorrhaphy of an indirect inguinal hernia constitute the repair of the floor of the
inguinal canal, the floor is formed by:
A. internal oblique
B. inguinal ligament
C. lateral umbilical ligament
D. external oblique

A

B. inguinal ligament

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10
Q

While doing a spinal tap, the spinal needle is inserted in between the:
A. L1 and L2 vertebrae
B. L2 and L3 vertebrae
C. L3 and L4 vertebrae
D. L4 and L5 vertebrae

A

D. L4 and L5 vertebrae

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11
Q

The cresenteric inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath:
A. Spigelian line
B. arcuate line of Douglas
C. semilunar line
D. linea alba

A

B. arcuate line of Douglas

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12
Q

Intraperitoneal organ:
A. lower third of rectum
B. jejunum
C. kidney
D. pancreas

A

B. jejunum

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13
Q

The femoral ring:
A. is the medial opening of the inguinal canal
B. is the base of the femoral canal
C. forms the medial border of the Hesselbach’s triangle
D. contains the spermatic cord

A

B. is the base of the femoral canal

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14
Q

In the neck:
A. the anterior rami of the C1-C4 spinal nerves supply the skin antero-laterally
B. the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia forms the stylomandibular ligament
C. the pretracheal fascia is attached superiorly to the hyoid bone
D. all of the above are correct

A

B. the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia forms the stylomandibular ligament

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15
Q

Forms the floor of both the submental and the digastric triangle:
A. hyoglossus
B. thyrohyoid
C. mylohyoid
D. geniohyoid

A

C. mylohyoid

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16
Q

Surgical procedures at the digastric triangle could possibly injure the following nerves,
except:
A. vagus nerve
B. spinal accessory nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
D. glossopharyngeal nerve

A

B. spinal accessory nerve

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17
Q

In doing cricothyroidotomy, hemorrhage can occur from accidental injury to branches
of:
A. thyroidea ima artery
B. superficial cervical artery
C. superior thyroid artery
D. external laryngeal artery

A

C. superior thyroid artery

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18
Q

In doing stellate ganglion block, the needle of the anesthetic syringe is inserted through
the skin over the carotid tubercle; this carotid tubercle is a part of:
A. cricoid cartilage
B. 1st rib
C. hyoid bone
D. 6th cervical vertebra

A

D. 6th cervical vertebra

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19
Q

Due to the close proximity of their drainages in the nasal cavity, frontal sinusitis nearly
always involves this sinus:
A. maxillary
B. posterior ethmoidal
C. anterior ethmoidal
D. sphenoidal

A

A. maxillary

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20
Q

The trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the face except for a small area
which is supplied by the:
A. zygomaticotemporal nerve
B. lesser occipital nerve
C. great auricular nerve
D. auriculotemporal nerve

A

C. great auricular nerve

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21
Q

On its way to the tongue, the chorda tympani:
A. passes through the mastoid wall of the tympanic cavity
B. enters the infratemporal fossa through the petrotympanic fissure
C. join a branch of the posterior division of mandibular nerve
D. all of the above are correct

A

D. all of the above are correct

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22
Q

In the living subject, the foramen lacerum of the cranial fossa is closed inferiorly by
cartilage and fibrous tissue; above this closed inferior opening, foramen lacerum
receives the:
A. carotid canal
B. condylar canal
C. foramen cecum
D. inferior orbital fissure

A

A. carotid canal

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23
Q

The artery supplying the “leg area” of the cerebral cortex:
A. is the biggest branch of the internal carotid artery
B. passes in the longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum
C. is a component of the circulus arteriosus
D. all of the above are correct

A

A. is the biggest branch of the internal carotid artery

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24
Q

The sensory nerve supplying the tip of the nose is the distal continuation of the:
A. infraorbital nerve
B. long sphenopalatine nerve
C. anterior ethmoidal nerve
D. buccal nerve

A

C. anterior ethmoidal nerve

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25
Q

The following extraocular muscle is supplied by the most slender cranial nerve:
A. superior oblique
B. superior rectus
C. lateral rectus
D. none

A

A. superior oblique

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26
Q

The retina extends anteriorly as far as the:
A. ora serrata
B. ciliary processes
C. iris
D. limbus

A

C. iris

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27
Q

True regarding the walls of the middle ear:
A. the inferior wall transmits a branch from glossopharyngeal nerve
B. the roof separates the middle ear from the temporal lobe of cerebrum
C. the posterior wall contains the origin of stapedius
D. all of the above are correct

A

D. all of the above are correct

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28
Q

Epistaxis usually occur upon rupture of the anastomosing branches of:
A. greater palatine and sphenopalatine arteries
B. sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
C. greater palatine and maxillary arteries

A

B. sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries

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29
Q

The vestibular ligaments of the larynx represent the inferior margin of the:
A. fibroelastic membrane of the larynx
B. cricothyroid ligament
C. quadrangular membrane
D. false vocal cords

A

C. quadrangular membrane

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30
Q

Frey’s syndrome is due to damage to the following nerves:
A. auriculotemporal and zygomaticotemporal
B. zygomaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial
C. great auricular and auriculotemporal
D. chorda tympani and buccal branch of facial nerve

A

C. great auricular and auriculotemporal

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31
Q

In the pelvic cavity, the ureter turns medially to enter the urinary bladder at the level of:
A. greater sciatic foramen
B. sacral promontory
C. ischial spine
D. upper border of symphysis pubis

A

C. ischial spine

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32
Q

In the Caldwell-Moloy pelvic classification, a transversely wide pelvis is:
A. gynecoid
B.platypelloid
C. android
D. anthropoid

A

B.platypelloid

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33
Q

Components of anorectal ring, except:
A. internal anal sphincter
B. external anal sphincter (deep part)
C. puborectalis
D. valves of Houston

A

D. valves of Houston

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34
Q

The following branches of internal iliac artery pass through the greater sciatic foramen,
except:
A. superior gluteal
B. inferior gluteal
C. internal pudendal
D. obturator

A

D. obturator

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35
Q

In the pelvic cavity, this structure lies at the apex of the V-shaped root of the sigmoid
mesocolon:
A. left ureter
B. origin of the internal iliac artery
C. superior rectal artery
D. sacral promontory

A

A. left ureter

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36
Q

Boundaries of pelvic inlet, except:
A. sacral promontory
B. symphysis pubis
C. ischial spine
D. arcuate line

A

C. ischial spine

Boundaries of Pelvic Inlet:
Posteriorly: sacral promontory
Laterally: Iliopectineal lines
Anteriorly: Symphysis pubis

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37
Q

Voluntary control of micturition is done at the level of:
A. internal urethral meatus
B. urogenital diaphragm
C. fossa navicularis
D. apex of the urinary bladder

A

B. urogenital diaphragm

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38
Q

The pudendal nerve:
A. has 3 major branches in the perineum
B. passes out from the pelvic cavity via the lesser sciatic foramen
C. enters the perineum via the greater sciatic foramen
D. none of the above is correct

A

A. has 3 major branches in the perineum

This nerve leaves the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and enters the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen.

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39
Q

Which of the following components of the respiratory tract wall increase/s in amount from
trachea to alveoli:
A. cilia
B. elastic fibers
C. smooth muscle
D. cartilage

A

B. elastic fibers

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40
Q

The presence of iron deposits in the cytoplasm of which of the following lung cell type is a
diagnostic feature of congestive heart failure:
A. Goblet cell
B. pneumocyte Type II
C. dust cell
D. Clara cell

A

C. dust cell

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41
Q

In hypersensitivity reactions, this cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell in the skin:
A. keratinocyte
B. Langerhan’s cell
C. melanocytes
D. Merkel’s cell

A

B. Langerhan’s cell

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42
Q

Which of the following cell types comprises the visceral layer of Bowmann’s capsule affected
in glomerular filtration disorders:
A. endothelial cell
B. juxtaglomerular cell
C. mesangial cell
D. podocyte

A

C. mesangial cell

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43
Q

Which of the following hormone is most likely affected in hypothalamic tumors:
A. ADH
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. TSH

A

A. ADH

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44
Q

Diarrhea may result if which of the following organs fails to carry out its primary role in
absorbing water from the feces:
A. anal canal
B. colon
C. jejenum
D. ileum

A

B. colon

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45
Q

Contraction of the muscles of the forearm that commonly follows fractures of the distal
end of the humerus or fractures of the radius and ulna:
A. compartment syndrome of the forearm
B. Dupuytren’s contracture
C. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
D. Bontonniera deformity

A

C. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

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46
Q

Fracture of the distal end of the radius which occurs from a fall on the back of the hand:
A. Colle’s fracture
B. Smith’s fracture
C. Monteggia’s fracture
D. Bennett’s fracture

A

B. Smith’s fracture

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47
Q

A young boy sustained a superficial laceration in front of his right wrist which was
bleeding profusely. He had sensory loss over the palmar aspect of the medial 1 ½
fingers but normal sensation on the back of these fingers over the middle and proximal
phalanges. Which of the following statements about the patient is true:
A. the radial artery was cut in front of the flexor retinaculum
B. the loss of skin sensation was caused by the injury to the ulnar nerve as it crossed
in front of the flexor retinaculum
C. there was no sensory loss in the palm of the hand because the palmar cutaneous branch
of the ulnar nerve was cut
D. this will lead to carpal tunnel syndrome

A

B. the loss of skin sensation was caused by the injury to the ulnar nerve as it crossed
in front of the flexor retinaculum

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48
Q

Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff muscles:
A. infraspinatus
B. subscapularis
C. supraspinatus
D. teres major

A
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49
Q

Tennis elbow is characterized by pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of the
humerus. It is caused by:
A. repeated friction between the anconeus and abductor pollicis longus
B. partial tearing of the extensor muscles from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. supracondylar fracture of the humerus
D. dislocation of the elbow joint

A

B. partial tearing of the extensor muscles from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus

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50
Q

Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by:
A. upper lesion of the brachial plexus
B. lower lesions of the brachial plexus
C. Waiter’s tip position
D. excessive traction or tearing of C5 & C6

A

B. lower lesions of the brachial plexus

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50
Q

Which blood vessel passes along the deltopectoral groove:
A. axillary artery
B. suprascapular artery
C. cephalic vein
D. basilic vein

A

C. cephalic vein

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51
Q

Nerve supply of the anterior fascial compartment of the leg:
A. deep peroneal nerve
B. superficial peroneal nerve
C. posterior tibial nerve
D. sciatic nerve

A

A. deep peroneal nerve

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52
Q

A 17 year old boy was crossing a busy street when he was bumped by a car on the
lateral part of his right knee. X-ray showed a fracture of the head of the fibula. The patient was seen to be dragging his right foot and catches his toes on the ground as he walks. Which of the following explains this:
A. the patient injured his common peroneal nerve
B. the medial meniscus was injured
C. skin sensation on the posterior leg is lost
D. the patient will not be able to plantarflex his right foot

A

A. the patient injured his common peroneal nerve

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53
Q

The dostalis pedis artery lies between the tendons of extensor hallucis longus and:
A. peroneus tertius
B. extensor digitorum longus
C. extensor digitorum brevis
D. extensor hallucis brevis

A

B. extensor digitorum longus

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54
Q

Arch of the foot which consists of the bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and
the 3 cuneiform bones:
A. medial longitudinal arch
B. lateral longitudinal arch
C. transverse arch
D. posterior arch

A

C. transverse arch

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55
Q

Pain in myocardial infarction is referred to the areas of distribution of the following
spinal nerves:
A. C2 – C4
B. C5 – C6
C. T1 – T4
D. T5 – T9

A

C. T1 – T4

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56
Q

In what division of the mediastinum is thoracic duct to the duct to the left side of the
vertebral column:
A. superior
B. inferior
C. middle
D. posterior

A

A. superior

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57
Q

A patient with cancer of esophagus develops hoarseness. This is suggestive of direct
invasion of the following structures:
A. larynx
B. nasal cords
C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. bronchus

A

C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve

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58
Q

Sound of closure of the cardiac valve is heard best over the sternal end of right 4th
intercostal space:
A. aortic
B. pulmonic
C. ventral
D. tricuspid

A

D. tricuspid

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59
Q

Apex beat has the some auscultation area as the following heart valve:
A. aortic
B. mitral
C. pulmonic
D. tricuspid

A

B. mitral

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60
Q

Composed the medial and lateral bronchopulmonary segments:
A. superior lobar
B. apical bronchopulmonary segment
C. middle lobar
D. inferior lobar

A

C. middle lobar

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61
Q

The cardiac area of dullness extends as far left as the:
A. midclavicular line
B. parasternal line
C. anterior axillary line
D. midaxillary line

A

A. midclavicular line

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62
Q

At what reference line in the thorax would you find the lower border of the lung and its
visceral pleura at the lower border of the 8th rib:
A. midclavicular
B. anterior axillary
C. mid axillary
D. scapular line

A

C. mid axillary

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63
Q

The base of an adult female breast extends up to the following:
A. lower border of clavicle
B. 1st rib
C. 2nd rib
D. 3rd rib

A

C. 2nd rib

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64
Q

A stab wound in an the anterior chest wall just to the right of sternum at 4th ICS would
most likely injure the following structure:
A. superior vena cava
B. right atrium
C. right ventricle
D. inferior vena cava

A

B. right atrium

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65
Q

A 48 year old female teacher was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed on a CT scan
to have a thrombosis of pontine vessels supplying the medial left sector of caudal pons. Expected neurologic findings of the patient would be:
A. ipsilateral hemiplegia
B. inability of the left eye to look laterally
C. inability to close the right eye
D. dysphagia

A

B. inability of the left eye to look laterally

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66
Q

Initial manifestation of syringomyelia at the level of C6 – T1 involves:
A. flaccid paralysis at the level of injury
B. positive Babinski reflex on the ipsilateral side
C. bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the upper extremities
D. bilateral proprioceptive loss

A

C. bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the upper extremities

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67
Q

“Upper motor neuron lesions” involving the spinal cord can be produced by the damage
to the:
A. spinothalamic tract
B. posterior columns
C. corticospinal tract
D. spinocerebellar tract
E. Lissauer’s tract

A

C. corticospinal tract

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68
Q

Stimulation of the middle frontal cortex (area *) of the cerebral cortex would most likely produce:
A. contraction of the muscles of the contralateral leg
B. visual agnosis
C. auditory hallucination
D. conjugate eye movements

A

D. conjugate eye movements

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69
Q

The inferior angle of the trigone of the urinary bladder has opening/s for:
A. urethra
B. ureters
C. renal papilla
D. ejaculatory ducts

A

A. urethra

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70
Q

Attached to the central tendon of perineum:
A. bulbospongiosus
B. external anal sphincter
C. superficial transverse perineal muscle
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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71
Q

The pudendal nerve and/or its branches have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A. traverse the pudendal (Alcock’s) canal
B. enter the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen
C. give origin to the posterior scrotal nerves
D. supply the ischiocavernosus muscle
E. arise from S1, 2 and 3 spinal nerves

A

E. arise from S1, 2 and 3 spinal nerves

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72
Q

The broad ligament contains all of the following , EXCEPT the:
A. round ligament of the ovary
B. uterine artery
C. round ligament of the uterus
D. uterine tubes
E. ureters

A

E. ureters

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73
Q

A 60 year old man consults at your clinic with the complain of occasional deep-seated
retrosternal discomfort radiating to the left shoulder, 2 months duration, associated with exertion. Upon auscultation, you take note of bradycardia and dysrthmia. By incidence, the slowly
occluding vessel would be the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Right Coronary artery
C. Circumflex artery
D. Anterior Descending artery

A

B. Right Coronary artery

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74
Q

A 70 year old chronic hypertensive patient consults with you regarding difficulty of swallowing solid food, 3 months duration. You proceed to request for a chest X-ray and note of a 0.7 cardio-thoracic ratio. As far as the heart is concerned, the best explanation you can give the patient regarding her swallowing difficulty is:
A. Impingement of the vagus nerve by an overriding ascending aorta
B. Compression of the thoracis esophagus by an enlarged left atrium
C. Compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve underneath the aorta
D. Overly stretched pericardiophrenic and pericardiosternal ligaments, compromising
swallowing

A

B. Compression of the thoracis esophagus by an enlarged left atrium

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75
Q

In the emergency evacuation of a massive hemopericardium compromising cardiac and
systemic circulation, the best and safest area to make your access incision en route to the
pericardial cavity is via:
A. 5th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
B. 7th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
C. 6th left ICS 10 cm from the midsternal line
D. Immediately subxiphoidal

A

D. Immediately subxiphoidal

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76
Q

A 70 year old male suffered massive myocardial infarction involving the right coronary artery. With your recent knowledge, want part/s of the heart does the right coronary artery supplies?
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. right atrium
D. right ventricle
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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77
Q

Which of the following nerve will most likely to be injured in surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus?
A. right phrenic
B. right recurrent laryngeal
C. left phrenic
D. left recurrent laryngeal

A

D. left recurrent laryngeal

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78
Q

If blood regurgitates back in the right atrium during systole. Which of the following valve is
most likely to be damaged?
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. aortic
D. pulmonic

A

B. Tricuspid

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79
Q

Increase aqueous humor of the eye is due to the secretion by:
A. ciliary epithelium
B. choriocapillary layer
C. Schlemm’s canal
D. corneal endothelium

A

A. ciliary epithelium

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80
Q

In the auscultation of heart valves, what valve is heard best behind the right half of the
sternum opposite the 4th intercostal space?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve

A

A. Tricuspid valve

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81
Q

The lower border of the heart is formed mainly by what structure?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium

A

A. Right ventricle

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82
Q

An 80 year old presents to your clinic with the complaint of easy fatigability. Upon auscultation
of the left upper sternal border you note a systolic murmur. On X-ray of the chest, you observe a
cardiothoracic ratio of .60 with mainly right ventricular enlargement. These findings point to:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Pulmonary insufficiency
C. Aortic insufficiency
D. Pulmonary stenosis

A

D. Pulmonary stenosis

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83
Q

A 40 year old male comes to you regarding dizziness and occasional chest pain. Upon
auscultation you note a land apical murmur. X-rays of the chest reveal normal cardio-thoracic
ratio. This finding point to a:
A. Aortic valve incompetence
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Pulmonary stenosis
D. Tricuspid valve stenosis

A

B. Mitral valve stenosis

84
Q

Which of the following structures prevents the spread of urine inferiorly to the thigh in case of
ruptured penile urethra due to straddle injury?
A. Camper’s fascia
B. Scarpa’s fascia
C. conjoint tendon
D. rectus sheath

A

B. Scarpa’s fascia

85
Q

Which of the following structures protects an abdominal viscus from herniation into the
inguinal triangle?
A. inguinal ligament
B. conjoint tendon
C. rectus abdominis muscle
D. lacunar ligament

A

B. conjoint tendon

86
Q

The triangle of Calot is used to identify the:
A. hepatic artery proper
B. bile duct
C. cystic duct
D. cystic artery

A

D. cystic artery

87
Q

The Celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta approximately at the level of:
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12

A

D. T12

88
Q

A 25 year old female was hit on her left side by a car and thrown about 10 feet. Aside from
multiple fractures, the patient was diagnosed to have internal bleeding upon initial physical
exam. What organ was most likely injured?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Intestines
D. Spleen

A

D. Spleen

89
Q

Swallowed gas within the proximal GIT will almost always collect in this region, as appreciated
on antero-posterior X-ray views of the abdomen:
A. Esophageal hiatus
B. Fundus
C. cardia
D. pylorus

A

B. Fundus

90
Q

What part of the posterior cranial fossa occupies the central area of the floor and transmits
the Medulla oblongata?
A. Cerebellar fossa
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Foramen magnum
D. Foramen rotundum

A

C. Foramen magnum

91
Q

A 20-year old male was involved in a riot and was allegedly hit by a baseball bat at the
back of the head. What injury would the patient sustain?
A. Rupture of the Middle meningeal artery
B. A large tear in the Circle of Willis
C. Tearing of the Superior cerebral veins
D. Rupture of the Lenticulostriate artery

A

C. Tearing of the Superior cerebral veins

92
Q

A 15-year old girl consulted because of a growing abscess on the side of her nose. The
following statements are true, Except:
A. The blood in the facial vein is unable to spread upward because of the presence of
valves.
B. The danger area is drained by the facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur by the spread of infection by the venous
blood
D. The facial vein communicates with the cavernous sinus via the superior and inferior
ophthalmic veins

A

A. The blood in the facial vein is unable to spread upward because of the presence of
valves.

93
Q

Ischemia due to thrombosis in the anterior spinal artery would affect the following sensory
modalities of that particular spinal segment, EXCEPT:
A. pain
B. light touch
C. temperature
D. proprioception

A

D. proprioception

94
Q

What congenital anomaly results from the failure of development of the spines and arches of
one or more vertebra?
A. Scoliosis
B. Anencephaly
C. Spina bifida
D. Lordosis

A

C. Spina bifida

95
Q

Bone will be able to heal properly as long as which of the following structures remains intact?
A. epiphysis
B. endosteum
C. medullary cavity
D. periosteum

A

D. periosteum

96
Q

The muscle that initiates the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction is the:
A. trapezius
B. supraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. deltoid

A

B. supraspinatus

97
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a loss of the median nerve function?
A. Dupuytren’s contracture
B. Carpal Tunnel syndrome
C. Fracture of the spiral groove of the humerus
D. Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus

A

B. Carpal Tunnel syndrome

98
Q

Femoral neck fractures may disrupt which of the following vessels?
A. femoral artery
B. deep femoral artery
C. circumflex femoral artery
D. artery to the head of the femur

A

C. circumflex femoral artery

99
Q

If the medial border of the cubital fossa is severed by a knife, which of the following structure
most likely suffers damage?
A. radial nerve
B. brachioradialis
C. pronator teres
D. ulnar nerve

A

C. pronator teres

100
Q

To maintain balance and prevent the hips from tilting and sagging in the unsupported side of the
pelvis while walking, the muscle involved is the:
A. gluteus maximus
B. gluteus medius
C. piriformis
D. quadratus femoris

A

B. gluteus medius

101
Q

The bony protruberance on the dorsal aspect of the wrist is part of what bone?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Phalanges
D. Metacarpals

A

B. Ulna

102
Q

A patient suffering from “Wrist drop” is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve

A

C. Radial nerve

103
Q

A patient suffering from “Claw hand” is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve

A

B. Ulnar nerve

104
Q

Fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus will most likely injure which of the following
nerves?
A. musculocutaneous
B. median
C. axillary
D. radial

A

C. axillary

105
Q

Which of the following nerve is jeopardized in a fracture of the medial epicondyle (X-ray) of
the humerus?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. median
D. musculocutaneous

A

A. Ulnar

106
Q

A knife wound immediately below the right 4th rib along the midclavicular line will most likely
injure the following bronchopulmonary segment:
A. apical and posterior segment
B. medial and lateral segment
C. medial basal and anterior basal
D. posterior basal and lateral basal

A

B. medial and lateral segment

107
Q

The driver of a van involved in a vehicular accident comes in with contusions in his anterior
chest wall. On X-ray, you check for rib fractures. The most likely portion of the rib to be fractured
is the:
A. neck
B. attachments to its costal cartilages
C. anterior to the costal angle
D. posterior to the costal angle

A

C. anterior to the costal angle

108
Q

The costal margin is the lower boundary of the thorax. It is formed by the cartilages of the:
A. 8th and 9th rib only
B. 9th and 10th rib only
C. 8th, 9th and 10th rib only
D. 8th, 9th,10th rib and the ends of the 11th and 12th rib

A

D. 8th, 9th,10th rib and the ends of the 11th and 12th rib

109
Q

The trachea extends from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage in the neck to
approximately the level of the:
A. 10th thoracic vertebra
B. Sternal angle
C. Xiphisternal joint
D. Suprasternal notch

A

B. Sternal angle

110
Q

An impalement injury at the area of the sternal angle would most likely injure the following
structures, EXCEPT:
A. T4/T5 IV disc
B. ascending aorta
C. carina
D. larynx

A

D. larynx

111
Q

Which of the following ligaments transmits the uterine artery as it supplies the uterus?
A. round ligament
B. broad ligament
C. cardinal ligament
D. uterosacral ligament

A

C. cardinal ligament

112
Q

Which of the following provide dynamic support to the uterus?
A. position of the uterus relative to the urinary bladder
B. transverse cervical ligament
C. uterosacral ligament
D. muscles of the pelvic diaphragm

A

D. muscles of the pelvic diaphragm

113
Q

In females, the rectouterine pouch is best accessible to examination via:
A rectal vault
B. anterior vaginal fornix
C. lateral vaginal fornix
D. posterior vaginal fornix

A

D. posterior vaginal fornix

114
Q

Prostatic cancer cells metastasize to the skull via the:
A. pampiniform venous plexus
B vertebral venous plexus
C. lumbar nodes
D. internal iliac nodes

A

B vertebral venous plexus

115
Q

The normal anatomic position of the uterus is:
A. Anteverted and anteflexed
B. Retroverted and anteflexed
C. Retroverted and retroflexed
D. Anteverted and retroflexed

A

A. Anteverted and anteflexed

116
Q

A culdocentesis was performed on a 27-year old female suspected to have a ruptured
ectopic pregnancy. She had a 10 week history of amenorrhea and presented with severe
hypogastric pain. In culdocentesis, blood pools in the area of the rectouterine pouch
because:
A. It is the most dependent part of the entire peritoneal cavity
B. The pouch lies anteriorly to the vagina
C. The pouch has a direct contact with the uterine tubes
D. All of the above

A

A. It is the most dependent part of the entire peritoneal cavity

117
Q

A 22 year old male was rushed to the emergency room semiconscious with multiple hematomas
on the right lumbar area of the posterior abdominal wall, right gluteal region and right lateral area of the thigh. The organ most likely to be traumatized is the:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen

A

B. Kidney

118
Q

Having inserted approximately 11-12cm. of the catheter, you note some difficulty in insertion.
The catheter tip is most probably in what part of the urinary system?
A. Spongy urethra
B. Membranous urethra
C. Prostatic urethra
D. Urinary bladder

A

B. Membranous urethra

119
Q

Relative anatomy of the kidney, EXCEPT:
A. Retroperitoneal
B. In the Paravertebral gutter
C. At the level of T10 and L1 vertebral bodies
D. Right kidney is lower than the left

A

C. At the level of T10 and L1 vertebral bodies

120
Q

A 55-year old man was diagnosed to have ureteric stones. With your knowledge in the
anatomy of the ureters, the following are considered to be the anatomic narrowings,
except:
A. The pelviureteral junction
B. Pass the level of L3
C. The pelvic brim
D. Upon entering the urinary bladder

A

B. Pass the level of L3

121
Q

The renal artery arises approximately from the level of the:
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4

A

B. L2

122
Q

A 40 year old male complained of episode of severe pain which starts in the costovertebral
angle radiating to the left scrotal area. His urinalysis showed microscopic RBCs. He is diagnosed
to have ureterolithiasis (ureter stone). Blood in the urine is most likely to come from the following
vessels, EXCEPT:
A. Testicular
B. Renal
C. Superior vesical
D. Left colic

A

D. Left colic

123
Q

A KUB-IVP was done and showed a dilated left ureter from the renal pelvis up to the level of
L4. You then suspect the uterolith to be lodged in the:
A. renal pelvis
B. pelvic brim
C. ureterovesical junction
D. bladder

A

B. pelvic brim

124
Q

Which part of the pituitary gland is really a downward continuation of the hypothalamus?
A. Neurohypophysis
B. Adenohypophysis
C. both
D. neither

A

A. Neurohypophysis

125
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of neurohypophysis?
A. pituitary stalk
B. posterior lobe
C. intermediate lobe
D. all of the above

A

C. intermediate lobe

126
Q

The thyroid gland synthesizes the following hormones, EXCEPT for the:
A. T3
B. T4
C. calcitonin
D. melatonin

A

D. melatonin

127
Q

You are manipulating the external ear canal of a 6 year old boy, attempting to remove an insect using a cotton bud. All of a sudden, the boy starts coughing continuously and the mother begins to show concern. You should assure her that this is merely due to:
A. The insect beginning to enter the middle ear space
B. Stimulation of branches of the vagus nerve
C. Beginning effusion within the middle ear cavity due to the presence of the insect
D. None of the above

A

B. Stimulation of branches of the vagus nerve

128
Q

In chronic otitis media, the part of the ossicular chain that is usually first to undergo necrosis
due to its poor blood supply is the:
A. lenticular process of the incus
B. stapes footplate
C. capitulum of the stapes
D. manubrium of the malleus

A

A. lenticular process of the incus

129
Q

The optic nerve enters the orbit passing through the optic canal is accompanied by the:
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Suspensory ligaments of the eye
C. Ophthalmic vein
D. Trochlear nerve

A

A. Ophthalmic artery

130
Q

What structure in the middle ear separates the tympanic cavity from the meninges and
temporal lobe of the brain?
A. Floor of the middle ear
B. Anterior wall of the middle ear
C. Tegmen tympani
D. Mastoid antrum

A

C. Tegmen tympani

131
Q

Inadequate treatment of otitis media can result in acute mastoiditis due to spread via what
structure?
A. Semicircular ducts
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Petrous bone
D. Tegmen tympani

A

B. Mastoid antrum

132
Q

In an asthmatic person, you expect the peripheral blood smear to have higher than normal
amount of:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

A

B. Eosinophils

133
Q

In a person with multiple abscess formation due to bacterial infection, you expect the peripheral
blood smear to show higher than normal values of:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

A

D. Neutrophils

134
Q

On surfaces constantly exposed to abrasion, such as the skin and esophagus, the most suitable
epithelium that can afford protection is:
A. simple squamous
B. transitional
C. stratified squamous
D. pseudostratified

A

C. stratified squamous

135
Q

A spiral fracture in the middle to distal third of the humerus may injure this structure:
a. axillary artery
b. radial nerve
c. radial artery
d. axillary nerve

A

b. radial nerve

136
Q

Chest radiograph taken during the inspiratory phase of respiration will show a vertically
elongated cardiac shadow because :
a. the heart is compressed by the expanded lungs
b. the fibrous pericardium is adherent to the mediastinal pleura
c. parietal pericardium is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm
d. of increased intrathoraic pressure

A

c. parietal pericardium is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm

137
Q

The hormone calcitonin is produced by what particular endocrine cell?
a. thyrocyte
b. chief cell of the parathyroid
c. parafollicular cells
d. oxyntic cells of the prathyroid

A

c. parafollicular cells

138
Q

Surfactant production is a function of which of the following cells of the pulmonary
system?
a. pneumocytes type I
b. pneumocytes type II
c. endothelium
d. Clara cells

A

b. pneumocytes type II

139
Q

The following are features of the right primary bronchus, EXCEPT that:
a. It is shorter
b. It is narrower
c. it is more vertical
d. It has 3 branches

A

b. It is narrower

140
Q

The blood supply of the heart are branches of:
a. ascending aorta
b. arch of aorta
c. thoracic aorta
d. bronchial artery

A

a. ascending aorta

141
Q

A blood clot detached from the right ventricular wall will likely cause obstruction to the
blood vessel that supply the following organ:
a. lungs
b. kidney
c. brain
d. liver

A

a. lungs

142
Q

Deoxygenated blood from the fetus is brough back to the maternal circulation through the
following blood vessels
a. ductus venosus
b. umbilical vein
c. umbilical artery
d. vitteline vein

A

c. umbilical artery

143
Q

Sternal angle of Louis refers to a:
a. depression at the upper border of the sternum
b. joint between manubrium and body of sternum
c. joint between body and xiphoid process of sternum
d. junction of 1st rib, clavicle and manubrium sterni

A

b. joint between manubrium and body of sternum

144
Q

The following intrinsic muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve
EXCEPT the:
a. oblique arytenoid
b. cricothyroid
c. thyroarytenoid
d. posterior cricoarytenoid

A

b. cricothyroid

145
Q

ACTH is release by released by the pituitary gland through the influence of:
a. thalamus
b. cerebellum
c. hypothalamus
d. basal ganglia

A

c. hypothalamus

146
Q

Parathyroid hormone stimulates this cell to increase the blood calcium level:
a. Osteoclast c. chondroblast
b. Osteoblast d. chondrocyte

A

a. Osteoclast

147
Q

Thyroid hormones, T3 and T4 are secreted by what cell of thyroid gland?
a. acidophil c. follicular
b. basophil d. parafollicular

A

c. follicular

148
Q

The veins which drain the tongue, tonsils and the rest of the oral cavity all drain in the:
a. external jugular vein
b. internal jugular vein
c. external carotid vein
d. external carotid vein

A

b. internal jugular vein

149
Q

The nerve supply for general sensations of the mucous membrane covering the anterior
two thirds of the tongue is the:
a. glossopharyngeal nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. lingual nerve
d. chorda tympani branch of facial nerve

A

c. lingual nerve

150
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the lower part of the greater curvature of the
stomach?
a. left gastric artery
b. right gastric artery
c. left gastroepiploic artery
d. right gastroepiploic artery

A

d. right gastroepiploic artery

151
Q

The submucosallayer is seen in the following organs of the digestive system EXCEPT:
a. oesophagus
b. gallbladder
c. large intestines
d. duodenum

A

b. gallbladder

152
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT a component of the portal triad of the liver?
a. bile ductile
b. hepatic arteriole
c. central vein
d. portal vein

A

c. central vein

153
Q

Which cell consist monocyte – marcophage system of the liver?
a. Ito cells
b. Fibroblast in the space of Disse
c. Kupffer cells
d. hepatocytes

A

c. Kupffer cells

154
Q

The cells of zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex procedure what hormone that influences
the electrolyte and water balance of the body?
a. cortisone c. aldosterone
b. vasopressin d. epinephrine

A

c. aldosterone

155
Q

The renal facia is derived from the fascia of the abdominal wall
a. lumbodorsal
b. transversalis
c. psoas
d. diaphragmatic

A

b. transversalis

156
Q

Which of the following organs is located anterior to the right kidney?
a. Pancreas c. duodenum
b. Jejunum d. spleen

A

c. duodenum

157
Q

The arrangement of the structures in the renal pedicle from anterior to posterior is:
a. vein, artery, ureter
b. artery, vein ureter
c. ureter, vein artery
d. vein, ureter, artery

A

a. vein, artery, ureter

158
Q

Which of the following statement regarding the bladder is NOT true?
a. It’s a muscular receptacle for storage of urine
b. The empty bladder in adults is located entirely in the pelvis
c. It’s posterior wall is also its base
d. It is an intraperitoneal organ

A

d. It is an intraperitoneal organ

159
Q

The blood vessels that conveys 70% of blood to the liver is the:
a. hepatic artery
b. portal vein
c. hepatic vein
d. inferior vena cava

A

b. portal vein

160
Q

Among the following tributaries, which vein joins the splenic vein to form the portal vein
a. left gastric vein
b. inferior mesenteric vein
c. right gastric vein
d. superior mesenteric vein

A

d. superior mesenteric vein

161
Q

Which of the following represents an internal difference between the small and large
intestines?
a. Longitudinal muscle arrangement
b. Appendices epiploicae
c. plicae circulares
d. intestinal sasculation

A

c. plicae circulares

162
Q

The part of the duodenum which is posterior to the fundus of the gallbladder, right hepatic lobe and transverse colon and anterior to the hilium of the right kidney is:
a. duodenal cap (superior)
b. descending part
c. transverse part
d. ascending part

A

b. descending part

163
Q

The structure along the gastrointetinal tract that is formed from the most caudal protion
of the foregut and the most cephalic end of the midgut is the:
a. gastroesophageal junction
b. duodenum
c. iloececal junction
d. left colic flexure

A

b. duodenum

164
Q

The endocrine part of the testis that secretes the hormone Testosterone?
a. sertoli cells
b. Lyedig cells
c. spermatocyte
d. spermatogonia

A

b. Lyedig cells

165
Q

The integrity of the blood-testis barrier is a function of which cell of the male reproductive
tract?
a. sertoli cells
b. Leydg cells
c. germinal epithelium
d. spermatozoons

A

a. sertoli cells

166
Q

After traumatic rupture of penile urethra distal to urogenital diaphragm, urine would likely
extravasate to the:
a. scrotum
b. posterior abdominal wall
c. anal triangle
d. deep perineal pouch

A

a. scrotum

167
Q

Fertilization of an egg by a sperm normally occurs at the:
a. infusdibulum of the fallopian tube
b. ampulla of the fallopian tube
c. isthmus of the fallopian tube
d. entrauterine portion of the
fallopian tube

A

b. ampulla of the fallopian tube

168
Q

The structure that maintains the normal position of the uterus is the:
a. broad ligament
b. round ligament
c. peritoneum
d. ureter

A

b. round ligament

169
Q

The vas deferens end by joining the ducts of the:
a. epididymis
b. prostate gland
c. bulbourethral glands
d. seminal vesicles

A

d. seminal vesicles

170
Q

Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system is supplied by a branch of
the abdominal aorta?
a. epididymis
b. vas deferens
c. seminal vesicles
d. prostate gland

A

a. epididymis

171
Q

The narrowest part of the male urethra is the:
a. Prostatic
b. membranous
c. spongy
d. external orifice

A

d. external orifice

172
Q

When doing hysterctomy one should be careful in cutting the following ligaments because
it contains the ovarian artery and veins and may cause bleeding if anadvertently cut
a. broad ligaments
b. suspensory ligaments
c. round ligaments
d. ovarian ligaments

A

b. suspensory ligaments

173
Q

This uterine ligament extends from the utherus to the labia majora
a. transverse cervical ligament
b. uterosacral ligament
c. round ligament
d. broad ligament

A

c. round ligament

174
Q

The endothelium of capillaries is well adapted for the function of exchange of gases and
nutrients because it is made up of what type of epithelium?
a. stratified
b. psuedostratified
c. transitional
d. simple

A

d. simple

175
Q

The main cell in connective tissue involved in tissue repair:
a. plasma cell c. fibroblast
b. mast cell d. adipose cell

A

c. fibroblast

176
Q

The type of specialized connective tissue which has a rigid consistency due to disposition of inorganic salts:
a. cartilage c. myeloid
b. bone d. blood

A

b. bone

177
Q

The spinal cord is anchored vertically to the coccyx by the:
a. denticulate ligament
b. cauda equina
c. filum terminale
d. ligamentum flavum

A

c. filum terminale

178
Q

The fasciculus cuneatus is found at this spinal cord segment:
a. lumbar c. sacral
b. thoracic d. cervical

A

d. cervical

179
Q

The lateral coticospinal tract carry these impulses to the effector organs:
a. motor c. sympathetic
b. sensory d. parasympathetic

A

a. motor

180
Q

Pain and temperature impulses on the left sole ascends to the thalamic are via:
a. ipsilateral lateral spinothalamic tract
b. contralateral lateral spinothalamic tract
c. ipsilateral posterior column
d. contralateral posterior column

A

b. contralateral lateral spinothalamic tract

181
Q

Loss of pain ad temperature sensation at the level of the umbilicus points to a lesion at
this cord level:
a. T10 c. T8
b. L2 d. T12

A

c. T8

182
Q

The fiber tract that coordinates the functions of cranial nevers II, IV and VI:
a. medial lemniscus
b. fasciculus gracilis
c. medial longitudal fasciculus
d. lateral lemniscus

A

c. medial longitudal fasciculus

183
Q

The efferent nucleus of the pupillary light reflex is:
a. lateral geniculate body
b. oculomotor nucleus
c. Edinger-Westpal
d. trouchlear nucleus

A

c. Edinger-Westpal

184
Q

CSF flows from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle via:
a. Formina of Monro
b. Foramina of Magendie
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. Foramina of Luschka

A

c. cerebral aqueduct

185
Q

Pain and temperature sensation from the head is received in the brainstrem by the:
a. mesencphalic nucleus of V
b. trigeminal spinal nucleus
c. motor nucleus of V
d. nucleus ambigous

A

b. trigeminal spinal nucleus

186
Q

Postoperative hoarseness after thyroidectomy results if one of the recurrent nerves is
accidentally cut while ligating which of the following vessels?
A. superior thyroid artery
B. inferior thyroid artery
C. superior thyroid vein
D. middle thyroid vein

A

B. inferior thyroid artery

187
Q

Which of the following nerves is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus and supplies all the
muscles of the anterior fascial compartment of the thigh?
A. femoral
B. sciatic
C. obturator
D. deep peroneal

A

A. femoral

188
Q

A 50 year old male patient sustains an injury to the lateral aspect of the right knee. Due to the heavy impact on the injured area the nerve most likely to be injured is likely to produce:
A. plantar flexion
B. knee flexion
C. dorsiflexion
D. foot enversion

A

A. plantar flexion

189
Q

The safest area to administer intramuscular medications in the gluteal area is at the
A. upper inner quadrant
B. upper outer quadrant
C. lower inner quadrant
D. lower outer quadrant

A

B. upper outer quadrant

190
Q

The medial umbilical fold in the posterior surface of the anterior abdominal wall covers the
A. internal epigastric vessels
B. remnant of the urachus
C. obliterated umbilical artery
D. linea alba

A

C. obliterated umbilical artery

191
Q

Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint?
A. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
B. metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger
C. shoulder joint
D. wrist joint

A

A. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

192
Q

All of the following statements about the adrenal gland are correct EXCEPT:
A. They are retroperitoneal organs.
B. Both adrenal veins drain into the inferior vena cava.
C. The superior adrenal arteries are branches of the inferior phrenic arteries.
D. They are innervated predominantly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers.

A

B. Both adrenal veins drain into the inferior vena cava.

193
Q

Which is an INCORRECT statement about an intervertebral disc?
A. during aging, fluid within the nucleus pulposus is replaced by fibrocartilage
B. atlanto-axial joint possesses no disc
C. nucleus pulposus is most likely to herniate in an anterolateral direction
D. disc are thickest in the lumbar region

A

C. nucleus pulposus is most likely to herniate in an anterolateral direction

194
Q

After extensive surgical dissection in the posterior cervical triangle, drooping of the skin in the
neck was noted postoperatively. This is due to injury of what nerve?
A. trigeminal
B. hypoglossal
C. spinal accessory
D. facial

A

D. facial

195
Q

Not found in the CNS
A. astrocytes
B. Schwann cell
C. bipolar cells
D. oligodendrocytes

A

B. Schwann cell

196
Q

Which of the following structures does not form the anterior surface of the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. right atrium
C. left ventricle
D. left atrium

A

D. left atrium

197
Q

An occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery would result in necrosis of each of the following EXCEPT the:
A. ascending colon
B. rectum
C. cecum
D. ileum

A

B. rectum

198
Q

Space between the cornea and the iris and lens
A. anterior chamber
B. posterior chamber
C. vitreous cavity
D. aqueos humor

A

A. anterior chamber

199
Q

A severe infection that obstructs the middle meatus would affect drainage from each of the
following sinuses EXCEPT the
A. maxillary sinus
B. frontal sinus
C. nasolacrimal duct
D. anterior ethmoid air cells

A

C. nasolacrimal duct

200
Q

A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar placed on the anterior part of the tongue.which cranial nerve is likely to have a lesion?
A. hypoglossal nerve
B. vagus nerve
C. glossopharyngeal nerve
D. facial

A

D. facial

201
Q

When a patient attempts protrusion of the tongue,the tongue deviates to the right. This would
indicate damage to which of the following nerves?
A. right glossopharyngeal
B. left accessory
C. right hypoglossal
D. left hypoglossal

A

C. right hypoglossal

202
Q

If a patient presented with a permanently dilated pupil, which one of the following nerves
could be assumed to be involved?
A. optic
B. sympathetic trunk
C. ophthalmic
D. occulomotor

A

D. occulomotor

203
Q

Damage to the anatomic snuffbox might be expected to injure the
A. ulnar nerve
B. median nerve
C. ulnar artery
D. radial artery

A

D. radial artery

204
Q

Following a tonsillectomy, a patient noted loss of general sensation and taste from the
posterior 1/3 of the tongue. It could be assumed that the injured nerve was a branch of the
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. facial nerve
C. lingual nerve
D. vagus nerve

A

A. glossopharyngeal nerve

205
Q

A stab wound on the neck which injures the spinal root of CN XI results to the following signs
and symptoms EXCEPT:
A. loss of pain sensation on the shoulder and upper chest
B. drooping of the shoulder
C. inability to elevate the shoulder
D. weakness and atrophy of the trapezius

A

A. loss of pain sensation on the shoulder and upper chest

206
Q

The cerebral aqueduct is located in the
A. cerebrum
B. diencephalons
C. midbrain
D. pons

A

C. midbrain

207
Q
A

EBS (4 decks)

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