BIO202 EXAM 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of filaments and tubules that

  1. Provides mechanical support to the cell and maintains its shape.
  2. Provides the cell with mobility
  3. Mediates the movement of organelles and individual molecules (Within the cell)
  4. Regulates biochemical activities of the cell by transmitting mechanical forces.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are microtubules?

A

They are hollow tubes made of the globular protein tubulin. Their walls are made up of alpha-beta polymer chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are the walls of microtubules formed?

A

Alpha-subunits and beta-subunits polymerize into alpha-beta dimers. Those dimers then polymerize into chains that form the walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do microtubules grow?

A

By adding alpha and beta subunits to their ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Functions of microtubules

A

To Maintain the shape of the cell by resisting compression, movement of the cell, and movement of organelles. Also, the movement of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the cytoskeleton move the cell?

A

Not by contracting and extending but by assembly and disassembly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Centrosomes

A

In animal cells, microtubules often grow from structures called centrosomes, which are made of 2 centrioles. When cells divide, the centrioles divide too. Plant cells do not have centrioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cilia

A

Locomotive organs formed by a special arrangement of microtubules. They occur in large numbers on the cell surface. They move back and forth like an oar stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flagella

A

Locomotive organs formed by a special arrangement of microtubules. There’s usually a single flagellum per cell. It is the same diameter as cilium but is much longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Function of the basal body

A

anchors cilia or flagella to the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The core of cilia and flagella

A

Consists of 9 doublets of microtubules arranged in a circle, and 2 single microtubules in the center= 9+2 structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

function of dynein arms

A

connect the 9 doublets of microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

radial spokes

A

connects each doublet to the two central microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Structure of the basal body

A

Has a structure identical to a centriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dynein-mediated movement

A

The dynein arms of one doublet attached to a neighboring doublet. The pull and the doublets move in opposite directions. They detach then reattach at a higher position to continue the movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to cilia and flagella move?

A

Dynein mediated movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Microfilaments

A

2 intertwined strands of protein called actin. Polymers of globular monomers of actin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Functions of microfilaments

A

They maintain the cell shape by resisting tension. Provide motility in cell division, muscle contraction, and cytoplasmic streaming.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens to microfilaments when muscles contract?

A

In muscles, actin filaments are arranged parallel to myosin filaments. When actin and myosin filaments pass each other, the cell becomes shorter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the presence of microfilaments affect the cytoplasm?

A

It makes the cytoplasm more “rigid” -> a gel state. Less microfilaments results in the sol state. The gel state/sol state transition takes place due to actin myosin interactions. This causes cytoplasmic streaming (mainly in plants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cytoplasmic streaming

A

The circular motion of cytoplasm within large cells to help distribute materials inside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Microvilli

A

Microfilaments are found in the center of microvilli. They are cellular projections (often on the surfaces of intestinal cells) that increase surface area to help absorb material from outside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

The intermediate between microfilaments and microtubules. They are made of fibrous protein, super-coiled into thicker strands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Proteins comprising intermediate filaments belong to the ______ family.

A

keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Functions of intermediate filaments

A

They maintain cell shape by resisting tension. They anchor the nucleus and other organelles. They form the nuclear lamina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Major difference between microfilaments/microtubules and intermediate filaments.

A

Microfilaments and microtubules are often disassembled, but intermediate filaments are more permanent. (They support more constant features of cell shape and structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the intercellular connections in animal cells?

A

Gap junctions and TNTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the intercellular connections in plant cells?

A

plasmodesmata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which intercellular connections are permeable?

A

Gap junctions, TNTs, and plasmodesmata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Plasmodesmata/TNTs versus gap junctions

A

Plasmodesmata and TNTs are larger and can open further to move molecules. Gap junctions are smaller and cannot open more than they normally are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Non -permeable intercellular connections

A

Desmosomes and tight junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Desmosomes

A

anchor adjacent cells together (ex: in cardiac muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tight junctions

A

Areas where membranes of adjacent cells are fused (ex. in intestinal epithelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gap junction protein

A

connexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

6 connexin units make up a

A

connexon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are gap junctions made up of?

A

2 connexons (one from each cell) connected to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TNTs (acronym for what)?

A

Tunneling nanotubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How are TNTs formed?

A

One cell forms an actin-driven protrusion directed towards the target cell. Then, the cell protrusion fuses with the membrane of the target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cargoes transferred by TNTs

A

lysosomal, ER, golgi vesicles are transported with the help of molecular motors, proteins, organelles, and pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Structure of a phospholipid

A

A polar phosphate head, a glycerol backbone, and two fatty acid tails. If the fatty acid has a double bond, it is bentl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What’s a phospolipid micelle?

A

When the phospholipids form a circle with the heads facing outward and the hydrophobic tails are on the inside. These may exist inside a wet environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Membrane fluidity

A

Membrane lipids drift laterally and even “flip-flop”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why do phospholipids rarely “flip-flop” in a membrane?

A

It invloves transitions between hydrophobic and hydrophilic environments and that requires a lot of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Are membranes always fluid?

A

No. They solidify at low temperatures. Unsaturated fatty acids solidify at lower temperatures compared to saturated fatty acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The effect of cholesterol on membranes

A

At higher temperatures, they restrict the movement of phospholipids and reduce fluidity. At lower temperatures, they prevent the close packing of phospholipids, increasing fluidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Types of mosaic proteins

A

There are integral and peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Integral proteins

A

Are at least partly inserted into membranes. (Most completely span it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Peripheral proteins

A

Are attached to the membrane surface, but not inserted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Functions of the cell membrane

A

Cell-cell recognition and communication involve specific molecules on cell surfaces. One of the most important properties of biological membranes is the ability to regulate transport into and out of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is transport across a membrane passive and what does that mean?

A

It is passive when it occurs down the concentration gradient. This means that it does not require energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is transport across a membrane active and what does that mean?

A

It is active when it occurs against a concentration gradient. This means that it requires energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What types of molecules typically move passively across membranes?

A

Hydrophobic and small, uncharged molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diffusion

A

Transport or a solute down a concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Osmosis

A

Transport of water down ITS concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hyperosmostic or hypertonic

A

There will be a net movement of water into the cell because there is more water conc. outside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Isoosmotic or isotonic

A

There is no net movement of water because the conc. of water is the same inside and outside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hypoosmotic or hypotonic

A

There is a net movement of water outside of the cell because there is a higher water conc. inside the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

The tendency for a solution to take up water when separated from pure water by a selectively permeable membrane.

59
Q

What is osmotic pressure measured in?

A

mOsm (The sum of concentration of all ions)

60
Q

In which direction of the concentration gradient does diffusion occur?

A

Down the concentration gradient.

61
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

It’s an intermediate step between diffusion and active transport. It occurs down the concentration gradient but it is also facilitated by proteins.

62
Q

How do transport proteins function?

A

Like enzymes. They bind specifically to transport substrate and exhibit saturation by transport substrate.

63
Q

Na+-K+ pump facts

A
  • A 4-protein complex that spans the membrane
  • Binds 3 ions of sodium inside the cell, receives energy by phospholylation
  • Changes conformation and expels sodium ions to outside
  • Bind 2 ions of potassium outside the cell, is dephosphorylated and and returns to original conformation, releases potassium ions inside the cells and again binds 3 ions of sodium
64
Q

What is another name for the sodium-potassium channel?

A

Sodium-potassium ATPase because it causes the hydrolysis of ATP

65
Q

Chlorine channel

A
  • Ion transport channel regulated by phosphorylation (cAMP dependent)
  • Defects in this channel cause cystic fibrosis
  • The channel is called CFTR=CF transmembrane conductance regulator
66
Q

Co-transport

A

It increases membrane potential by removing protons.H+ gradient can drive another active transport.

67
Q

Phagocytosis

A

A way of transporting large molecules across membranes. Non-specific engulfing and internalizing a particle

68
Q

Pinocytosis

A

A way of transporting large molecules across a membrane. Non-specific engulfing and internalizing liquid droplets. (Same as phagocytosis it just involves liquid droplets)

69
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis (What is it?)

A

specific internalizaiton (The major type of transport of macromolecules across membranes)

70
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A
  • Macromolecules bind to a specific receptor on cell surface.
  • These receptors are in specific areas (Called coated pits)
  • Coated pits are coated with specific protein (Clathrin) on the inner side of the membrane
  • Binding results in internalization and formation of the transport vesicles (endosomes)
71
Q

What are the receptors in receptor-mediated endocytosis called?

A

Coated pits

72
Q

What are the receptors in receptor-mediated endocytosis coated with?

A

A specific protein called clathrin

73
Q

Some functions of trans-membrane proteins

A

Transport, intercellular joining, enzymatic activity, cell-cell recognition, signal transduction, attachment to the cytoskeleton and ECM.

74
Q

What is the result of binding with receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

Results in internalization and formation of the transport vesicles (endosomes)

75
Q

Examples of virus infection by endocytosis

A

Influenza and vesicular stomatitis virus

76
Q

How to multicellular organisms communicate with each other?

A

Using neurons

77
Q

paracrine

A

signals released into the extracellular fluid. They go to all cells but they are recognized only by specific cells that have receptors for the signals.

78
Q

Hormonal or endocrine

A

signals move a long distance through vascular system or even through the air

79
Q

What are the 3 stages of cell signaling?

A

Reception, transduction, and response.

80
Q

What is reception?

A

The first stage of cell signaling. Cells detect an incoming signal which binds to a receptor molecule. The information carried by the signal is received by the cell.

81
Q

Where are receptors located?

A

Usually on the surface of the cell but they can also be found with in cells. (Ex. the nucleus)

82
Q

What is transduction?

A

Binding of signal to its receptor changes the receptor. This change begins a sequence of biochemical events (called pathway) that ends in cellular response. The information carried by the signal is transduced into the cell.

83
Q

What is a cells response to cell signaling?

A

Almost any cellular activity. This includes growth, movement, synthesis of a molecule, or even death.

84
Q

Signaling by epinephrine

A

Epinephrine is a hormone that can only interact with the cell via a receptor program. By binding to the receptor it causes a series of events that leads to glucose being released from the liver and into the blood during the “fight or flight” reaction

85
Q

What are the signals that bind to receptors called?

A

Ligands

86
Q

What are the 4 major types of receptors?

A

G protein-linked, enzymes, ligand-gated ion channels, and internal.

87
Q

G protein-linked receptor

A

Works in a g-protein system.A signal molecule binds to the g-protein-linked receptor and causes the GDP on a g-protein to be displaced by GTP. GTP causes the g-protein to become active and interact with an activated enzyme. The activation of the enzyme causes a cellular response.

88
Q

Enzyme receptors

A

They have enzymatic activities themselves. The extracellular part binds to the ligand and the intracellular part acts as an enzyme.

89
Q

Tyrosine kinase receptor

A

It is a protein kinase enzyme that phosphorylates tyrosine residues within proteins (The phosphate group comes from ATP)

90
Q

Cellular response to tyrosine kinase receptors

A

Cell division. Inappropriate activation can lead to uncontrolled cell division and cancer

91
Q

Ligand-gated ion channels

A

A ligand attaches to an ion-channel protein which causes it to open and allows the flow of ions. When the ligand detaches from the channel, it closes and ions cannot glow.

92
Q

Internal receptors

A

If a signal can pass through the cell membrane then there is no need for extracellular receptors. Instead, the cell uses intracellular receptors to receive such signals.

93
Q

Membrane receptors

A

A type of signal transduction pathway. They have multiple steps and must carry information from the outside of the cell to the inside.

94
Q

Internal receptors

A

Can carry out transduction themselves.

95
Q

Advantages of multiple-step signal transduction pathways

A

Amplification and regulation

96
Q

amplification of signal

A

One signal can transmit information to multiple molecules at each step

97
Q

regulation with multiple-step signal transduction

A

More steps means more checkpoints to regulate the final response

98
Q

Mechanism of multiple-step signal transduction pathways

A

The signal causes conformation changes in cellular proteins

99
Q

Protein kinase

A

an enThe zyme that transfers a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate protein

100
Q

The major mechanism of signal transduction

A

phosphorylation

101
Q

IP3

A

Second messengers that usually activate Ca2+ channels to move Ca2+ from the ER into the cytosol

102
Q

Cytostolic Ca2+

A

A second messenger that activates other protein components of transduction pathway either directly or via calmodulin

103
Q

DAG

A

Second messengers that remain in the plasma membrane. It activates protein kinase C

104
Q

Cellular respiration

A

The major catabolic pathway to produce energy from food in eukaryotes

105
Q

Glycolysis

A

The splitting of sugar and it occurs in the cytosol. Includes 10 steps; 5 that require energy and 5 that produce energy.

106
Q

Glycolysis reaction

A

Glucose + 2ATP&raquo_space;> 2 pyruvate + 4 ATP + 2 NADH + 2H2O

107
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

No

108
Q

What happens to pyruvate before it enters the krebs cycle?

A

It is converted to acetyl CoA

109
Q

Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

A

First, pyruvate is transported into the mitochondrial matrix. Then, the carboxyl group is removed in the form of CO2, which diffuses out of the cell. Then, the rest of pyruvate is further oxidized and NAD+ is reduced to NADH. Finally, the oxidized acetyl group of pyruvate is attached to CoA, forming acetyl CoA.

110
Q

What does the Krebs cycle do?

A

It takes acetyl CoA (from glycolysis), NAD+, ADP, and FAD+ to produce ATP, NADH, FADH2, and CO2

111
Q

What happends following the Krebs cycle?

A

The energy of NADH/FADH2 is converted to ATP in the electron transport chain.

112
Q

How is ATP produced?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation.

113
Q

The electron transport chain

A

A collection of molecules with active groups that donate and accept electrons. In this process electrons from NADH and FADH2 pass through the electron transport chain, slowly releasing energy, which is used to drive ATP synthesis. Also, molecular oxygen is reduced to water.

114
Q

What follows the ETC?

A

A H+ gradient is generated by chemiosmosis and this step requires O2. Then, ATP synthesis is carried out ATP synthase.

115
Q

What poison inhibits the ETC?

A

Cyanide

116
Q

What blocks ATP synthase?

A

Oligomycin

117
Q

What abolishes H+ gradient?

A

DNP (dinitrophenol)

118
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation

A

Energy is supplied by the ETC in the form of an H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

119
Q

Chemiosmosis

A

The process by which ATP is produced on the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The ETC transfers H+ from the matrix into the intermembrane space; as the H+ flow back to the matrix through the ATP synthase, the energy of their movement is used to add P to ADP, making ATP

120
Q

What happens if ATP synthesis is uncoupled from the ETC?

A

No ATP is made, but energy is released as heat

121
Q

Cellular respiration in prokaryotes

A

Prokaryotes don’t have mitochondria so they have the ETC in the plasma membrane. They don’t have to convert NADH TO FADH2 so they don’t lose energy in that step

122
Q

Lactic acid fermentation

A

After glycolysis, pyruvate oxidizes NADH back to NAD+ instead of going in to the Krebs cycle. ATP is made by substrate-level phosphorylation.

123
Q

Why is pyruvate a key juncture in catabolism?

A

It can be used in anaerobic conditions and aerobic conditions

124
Q

Control of cellular respiration

A

Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that’s induced by AMP and inhibitied by ATP and citrate. (Feedback inhibition)

125
Q

What are the reactions of photosynthesis?

A

Light reactions and the calvin cycle.

126
Q

Light reactions

A

Convert solar energy into NADPH and ATP. They release molecular oxygen by splitting of water. These reactions require light.

127
Q

The calvin cycle

A

Converts CO2, ATP, and NADPH into sugar by carbon fixation. This does not require light.

128
Q

How do light reactions convert solar energy into ATP?

A

photophosphorylation

129
Q

How do light reactions convert solar energy into NADPH?

A

By transferring an electron from H2O to NADP+

130
Q

Is sugar produced during light reactions?

A

NO

131
Q

How do photosystems transfer electrons?

A

Cyclic electron flow and non-cyclic electron flow

132
Q

Cyclic electron flow

A

Only takes place in photosystem I and only ATP is made. Electrons originated from photosystem I go back to photosystem I and reduce it.

133
Q

Non-cyclic electron flow

A

Both in photosystem I and photosystem II. O2, ATP, and NADPH are made.

134
Q

Why is there a need for both cyclic and non-cyclic flow?

A

Non-cyclic makes for similar amounts of ATP and NADPH but Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH so additional ATP comes from the cyclic flow.

135
Q

photophosphorylation

A

ATP synthesis in chloroplasts

136
Q

ATP synthesis in chloroplasts is driven by

A

chemiosmosis

137
Q

chemiosmosis

A

the process by which ATP is produced on the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast. The ETC transfers H+ from the stroma into the thylakoid space; as the H+ flow back to the stroma through the ATP synthase, the energy of their movement is used to add Pi to ADP, making ATP

138
Q

Cytochrome complex

A

electron transport chain (ETC) It pumps H+ from the stroma into the thylakoid space. H+ diffuses back and drives ATP synthase which makes ATP in the stroma where it is used in the Calvin cycle

139
Q

Steps of the Calvin cycle

A

Step 1: Carbon fixation. Step 2: Reduction.

Step 3: Regeneration of RuBP

140
Q

What happens in the carbon fixation step of the calvin cycle?

A

CO2 from the air is attached to a cCO2 receptor, RuBP sugar. This is catalyzed by RUBISCO (The most abundant protein on earth)

141
Q

What happens in the reduction step of the calvin cycle?

A

Reactions use NADPH as an H+ source. Also, phosphorylation reactions occur that use ATP. NADPH and ATP come from the light reactions. 6 molecules of G3P are made. Only 1 exits the cycle to be used in the biosynthesis of other products.

142
Q

What happens in the regeneration of RuBP step of the calvin cycle?

A

5 of the 6 G3P molecules produced during reduction step is used to recreate RuBP.

143
Q

C4 plants (Calvin cycle)

A

Separation between CO2 fixation and Calvin cycle is spatial. Adaptation to semi-dry conditions (stomata are open only partially during hot days). First, they fix CO2 into organic acids in a specific type of cells and then they transport these organic acids to another type of cells where the organic acids enter the calvin cycle as a carbon source.

144
Q

CAM plants (calvin cycle)

A

Separation between CO@ fixation and calvin cycle is temporal. Adaptation to dry conditions (Stomata are closed during hot days). To prevent evaporation of water through stomata during the day, they take up CO2 only at night and incorporate it into organic acids. Then, when the air is light, and ATP and NADPH are made, the organic acids enter the calvin cycle as carbon source. (All takes place in the same cells)