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Sem 1 > Bio Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Bio Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What do mitochondria produce from Pyruvate (a sugar) and ADP?

A

ATP and CO2

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2
Q

What are allosteric enzymes?

A

An enzyme that is activated or inhibited when binding to another molecule, it changes its shape.

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3
Q

What are amatoxins?

A

Selective inhibitors of RNA polymerase II, which is a vital enzyme in the synthesis of messenger
RNA (mRNA), microRNA, and small nuclear RNA (snRNA).

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4
Q

Describe the main aspects of glycolysis

A
  • Happens in cytoplasm
  • Starts with consuming 2 ATP to cleave the glucose into two 3-carbon molecules
  • Each of the 3-carbon molecules produce 2 ATP, 1 NADH and 2 electron carriers
  • Each 3-carbon molecule becomes a pyruvate (sugar) by the end
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5
Q

Describe Acetyl-CoA synthesis

A

The pyruvate is transported into the
mitochondrial matrix from the cytosol
and converted to acetyl-CoA within the
mitochondria. One NADH is formed, CO2 is produced and, coenzyme A is used

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6
Q

Citric Acid Cycle

A
  • Per pyruvate 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 2 FADH2
  • GTP –> GDP + Pi –> Pi + ADP –> ATP
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7
Q

Oxidative phosphorilation

A
  • Complex 1 reduces NADH to NAD = H (e-) and transports H atom to IMS
  • Complex 2 reduces FADH2 to FAD = H2 (2x e-)
  • Complex 3 adds H atom to IMS
  • Complex 4 adds H atom to IMS and uses electrons to synthesise H2O from H4 and O2
  • ATP synthase requires an H atom to synthesise ATP uses electrochem gradient
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8
Q

Mitotic cell division

A

the basis of asexual reproduction in
unicellular eukaryotes and the process by which cells divide in multicellular eukaryotes.

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9
Q

Meiotic cell division

A

essential for sexual reproduction,
the production of offspring that combine genetic material from two parents.

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10
Q

Mitotic cell division Prokaryote vs Eukaryote

A

Prokaryote:
- Genome is small and circular
- DNA in cytoplasm

Eukaryote:
- Genome is large and linear
- DNA in nucleus

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11
Q

M Phase

A

the time during which the parent cell
divides into two daughter cells

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12
Q

Interphase

A

the time between two successive M
phases. preparations include
DNA replication and an
increase in the cell size.

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13
Q

S phase

A
  • Attaches two haploid chromatids at a singular centromere
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14
Q

Prophase

A
  • Chromatids condense into chromosomes in the nuclear envelope
  • Centrosomes migrate to opposite poles
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15
Q

Pro-metaphase

A
  • Nuclear envelope breaks down
  • Microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to the chromosomes
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16
Q

Metaphase

A
  • Chromosomes align at centre of the cell
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17
Q

Anaphase

A
  • Microtubules pull chromosomes apart to opposite poles
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18
Q

Telophase

A
  • Nuclear envelope reforms and chromatids decompress
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19
Q

Cytokinesis in plants vs animals

A

In animals a ring of actin filaments form in the middle of the two cells so they can break off into their respective daughter cells. In plants a cell wall just forms between the two cells, and they stay stuck together but separated down the middle

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20
Q

What is a bivalent?

A

Two chromosomes that attach to each other during prophase and exchange DNA

21
Q

What are the differences between mitotic cell division, meiosis I and meiosis II

A
  • Mitotic is asexual, Starts with diploid homologous chromosomes and ends with = amount of diploid homologous
  • Meiosis I starts with bivalent diploid chromosomes and ends with diploid w recombination chromatids, ends with half the amount
  • Meiosis II starts with the recomboed chromosome diploids, ends with equal amount of haploid chromosomes in daughter cells
22
Q

What is glycogen?

A
  • Stored in liver and muscle cells
  • Core protein surrounded by glucose strings
  • Used for glucose 1-phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate
  • Starch w/o the protein
  • Polysaccharides help form glucose chains
23
Q

What are hydrogenosomes

A

H2- producing mitochondrial homologs found in some
anaerobic microbial eukaryotes.

24
Q

In fungi, the cytoplasmic union of two cells (____) is not always followed immediately by the fusion of their nucleus (_____)

A

Plasmogamy, Karyogamy

25
Q

The ____ _____ ends with nuclei fusion, which leads to the formation of a ____ ____

A

heterokaryotic stage, diploid zygote

26
Q

PFK-1

A

When ATP levels are low, it is activated, allowing glycolysis to continue. When high, it is inhibited. Regulated by citrate, an intermediate
of the citric acid cycle. When citrate binds to the
enzyme, its activity is also slowed.

27
Q

Describe parasexuality

A

Cells go through mitosis, however the haploid nuclei undergo karyogamy to form diploid nuclei. Then mitosis occur however the nuclei crossover, like in meiosis I, and the amount of nuclei in the daughter cells = the amount in the parent cells after some of them are lost.

Goes from 1, double nuclei cell to a single nucleus cell then loses chromosomes before final daughter cells

28
Q

What are the key characteristics of chytrids?

A
  • Do not form a true mycelium
  • Mostly decomposers
  • Mostly single cells w/ chitin walls
  • Lack a heterokaryotic stage, form flagellated gametes instead
29
Q

What are the key characteristics of zygomycetes?

A
  • Grow mycelium
  • Produce spores
  • Sexually reproduce
  • When germinated, karyogamy and meiosis follow
  • Pilobolus (example) can force out all sporangium instead of individual spores
30
Q

What are the key characteristics of dikaryotic fungi?

A
  • After every mitotic division a septum is formed to separate the cells
  • Can control the amount of nuclei in each cell
  • Sub groups are:
    Ascomycetes
    Basidiomycetes
31
Q

What are the differences between ascomycetes and basidiomycetes?

A

Asmocyetes:
- Mating cells nuclei fuse soon after formation, dikaryotic stage is short
- Meiosis is followed by a single round of mitosis, asci have 8 haploids
- Turgor pressure releases spores

Basidiomycetes:
- Nuclei remain separate for long time
- Fusion happens in basidium
- Haploid products of meiosis don’t do mitosis
- Fruiting body made up of dikaryotic hyphae

Overall:
- Septal pores are different in each group

32
Q

Define karygomy

A

The last phase in the process of fusing two haploid eukaryotic cells together, and it refers to the fusion of the two nuclei in particular.

33
Q

What is the process of the calvin cycle?

A
  1. CO2 enters the cycle
  2. Rubisco catalyses the reaction between CO2 and RuBP which results in x2 3-carbon molecules (3-PGA)
  3. ATP and NADPH are reduced to ADP, NADP + e-, triosephosphate is formed
  4. Carbohydrates exit the cell as 3-carbon compounds
  5. 3-carbon molecules are reorganised to regenerate RuBP and an ATP is reduced to do so
34
Q

What is the function of photosystem II?

A

To absorb light which is used to cleave H2O into H2 and 1/2 O2. The electrons broken off of H2O go to the primary electron acceptor within the PSII

35
Q

What happens to electrons during chlorophyll light absorption?

A

The electron starts at ground state and the light excites it. When going from ground state to excitatory the electron can jump between chlorophyll molecules. When the electron goes from excited to ground and jumps molecules it releases energy in the form of heat and fluorescence

36
Q

Describe first-division nondisjunction

A

When the parent cell divides into two daughter cells after meiosis I, two of the gametes have an extra chromosome and the other two have missing chromosomes

37
Q

What causes downsyndrome?

A

An exact copy of chromosome 21

38
Q

What is the process of regulation of the cell cycle?

A
  1. Cyclins bind to and activate CDK
  2. The cyclin-CDK compound binds to and phosphorylates proteins that promote cell division
  3. Cyclin degrades
39
Q

Describe cyclin D and E-CDK function

A
  • Active at the end of G1/S phase
  • promote the expression of histone
    proteins
40
Q

Describe the function of cyclin A-CDK

A
  • Involved in the initiation of DNA synthesis
  • Prevents reassembling the same
    proteins and re-replicating the same DNA
  • S phase
41
Q

Describe the function of Cyclin B-CDK

A
  • Initiates multiple events
    associated with mitosis
  • Breakdown of the nuclear envelope during
    prophase
  • Formation of mitotic spindles
  • G2 phase
42
Q

What is the function of p53?

A

A protein found in the nucleus that, when phosphorylated, turn on genes that inhibit the cell cycle in G1 phase so that damaged DNA can be repaired

43
Q

What are pro-oncogones and oncogones, and tumor suppressors?

A
  • Proto-oncogenes: normal genes important in cell
    division that have the potential to become
    cancerous if mutated
  • Oncogene: cancer-causing gene
  • Tumor suppressors: encode proteins whose
    normal activities inhibit cell division
44
Q

catabolism vs anabolism

A

Anabolism requires energy to grow and build. Catabolism uses energy to break down. These metabolic processes work together in all living organisms to do things like produce energy and repair cells.

45
Q

substrate level phosphorylation vs oxidative

A

Substrate-level phosphorylation is when a nucleoside diphosphate (ADP or GDP) is phosphorylated by a substrate to produce a nucleoside triphosphate (ATP or GTP). Oxidative phosphorylation is the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP using the free energy produced from redox reactions in the electron transport chain

46
Q

what is the role of nadh and fadh2 in oxidative phosphorylation

A

During oxidative phosphorylation, electrons derived from NADH and FADH2 combine with O2, and the energy released from these oxidation/ reduction reactions is used to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP.

47
Q

What is the role of each complex?

A

Complex I:
- Reduce NADH and transfer 4 electrons into IMS

Complex II:
- Reduce FADH2 to FAD, coenz 2 transports to com III

Complex III:
- Pumps 4 electrons into IMS, carrier C transports to com IV

Complex IV:
- Pumps 2 protons into IMS and synthesises water

48
Q
A

Sem 1 (5 decks)

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