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bio lab final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

10 meters = _____ millimeters = ____ micrometers

A

10,000 ; 10,000,000

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2
Q

50 kilograms = ____ grams = ____ micrograms

A

50,000 ; 50,000,000

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3
Q

when measuring the volume of liquid in a beaker, measure at the bottom of the ___

A

meniscus

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4
Q

the ____ is how close all of your measurements are

A

precision

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5
Q

the ____ is the middle value of a group of measurements

A

median

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6
Q

the ___ is the arithmetic average

A

mean

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7
Q

the ___ is the difference between the smallest and largest value

A

range

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8
Q

the ___ is how closely your measurements agree with the true measurement

A

accuracy

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9
Q

select the basic metric unit for volume

A) liter

B) gallon

C) meter

D) kilogram

A

a) liter

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10
Q

what is the prefix for 10^-6?

A) deci
B) micro
C) nano
D) centi

A

b) micro

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11
Q

convert 8.4 grams to milligrams

A

8400 milligrams

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12
Q

which is a metric unit for length?

A)nanogram
B)kilometer
C)deciliter
D)inch

A

b) kilometer

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13
Q

what is the mean of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?

A

5

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14
Q

what is the median of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?

A

5

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15
Q

what is the range of ( 3, 4, 5, 6, 5, 7)?

A

4

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16
Q

the size of FOV is ____ related to magnification of the microscope, as the magnification increases the FOV ___

A

inversely ; decreases

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17
Q

_____ refers to the enlargement of size

A

magnification

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18
Q

______ is the ability to see details

A

resolution

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19
Q

___ holds the different objective lenses in place

A

nosepiece

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20
Q

total magnification of a microscope with a 4x objective lense and 10x ocular lense is ___

A

40x

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21
Q

which magnification gives greatest working distance?

a) 4x
b)10x
C) 40x
d)100x

A

a) 4x

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22
Q

distance between the specimen and the objective lense is the _____

A

working distance

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23
Q

_____ helps focus light onto the specimen

a) condenser
b)light switch
c)objective lens
d) fine focus knob

A

a) condenser

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24
Q

the function of the diaphragm on the microscope is to ____

a)hold objective lens
b)focus the image
c)adjust amount of light
d)adjust wavelength of light

A

c)adjust amount of light

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25
Q

an organism exhibits positive ____ when it moves towards light

A

phototaxis

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26
Q

amoeba move via foot-like projections called ____

A

pseudopods

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27
Q

the pigment ____ gives red algae their red color

A

phycoerythrin

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28
Q

_____ are a diverse group of single celled eukaryotic organisms

A

protists

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29
Q

_____ is an autotrophic colonial protist

A

volvox

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30
Q

chlamydomonas use ____ for locomotion

A

flagella

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31
Q

Paramecium have two types of nuclei called ____ and ____

A

micronucleus and macronucleus

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32
Q

what structures are essential for phototaxis in euglena?

A

flagella and stigma

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33
Q

conjugation in paramecia involves

A

meiosis and mitosis

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34
Q

what is a green multicellular algae?

A

spirogyra

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35
Q

what is a holdfast in algae?

A

root-like structure

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36
Q

carrageenan may be found in ____

A

red algae

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37
Q

scientific investigation begins with_____

A

observation

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38
Q

the outcome being measured in an experiment is the ____

A

dependent variable

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39
Q

amoeba reproduce by

A

binary fission

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40
Q

in scientific investigations the factor you manipulate is the____

A

independent variable

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41
Q

moss gametophytes have multicellular sex organs that produce _____ via mitosis. ____ are the male sex organs, while ___ are female sex organs

A

gametes ; antheridia ; archegonia

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42
Q

what are the two main generations in alterations of generations?

A

gametophyte ; sporophytes

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43
Q

moss requires ___ for pollination, while pine trees needs ____

A

water ; pollen

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44
Q

ferns are ____ in that one type of spores are produced

A

homosporous

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45
Q

what is the dominant stage in the fern life cycle?

A

sporophyte

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46
Q

what produces eggs in ferns?

A

archegonia

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47
Q

what plant bears sori?

A

fern

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48
Q

lands alternate between _____ stage and ___ stage

A

diploid sporophyte ; haploid gametophytes

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49
Q

what is a homosporous plant?
a)moss
b)maple
c)pine
d)strawberry

A

a)

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50
Q

spores are ____

A

haploid

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51
Q

antheridia are ____

A

male gametangia

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52
Q

name two things that apply to moss life cycle….

A

homospory ; oogamy

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53
Q

the dominant stage in moss is _____ while the dominant stage in ferns is ____

A

1n ; 2n

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54
Q

in ferns spores are produced in ___

A

sori

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55
Q

the gametophyte in ferns are ____ and ___

A

independent ; heart-shaped

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56
Q

fronds refer to ____ and rhizomes refer to ___ in ferns

A

leaves ; stems

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57
Q

a diploid cell may undergo mitosis and cytokinesis to form ____

A

two diploid cells

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58
Q

in land plants spores are produced by ___

A

meiosis

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59
Q

in land plants gametes are produced by ___

A

mitosis

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60
Q

what are the three layers in the pericarp?

A

exocarp ; endocarp; and mesocarp

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61
Q

____ was used to stain ___ in corn grains

A

iodine ; starch

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62
Q

gymnosperms bear naked seeds on ____

A

cones

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63
Q

monocots usually have flowers in multiples of ___, while dicots have flower multiples of ___

A

3 ; 4/5

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64
Q

an embryo develops from ___

A

fertilized egg

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65
Q

peach is a ___ fruit

A

simple

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66
Q

the dominant generation for a maple tree is the ____

A

sporophyte

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67
Q

an ovule can be found in ____ or a ____

A

mega strobilus ; carpel

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68
Q

which process is unique to angiosperms?

A

double fertilization

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69
Q

strawberries are an ____ fruit

A

accessory

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70
Q

the ploidies of mega/micro spores are ___

A

1n/1n

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71
Q

pollination in gymnosperms is mainly ____

A

wind

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72
Q

____ is an aggregate fruit

A

raspberry

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73
Q

pineapple is an example of _____ fruit

A

multiple

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74
Q

the leaf veins of tulips are ____

A

parallel

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75
Q

cnidaria generally have a sexually reproducing _____, or an asexually reproducing ____

A

medusa ; polyp

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76
Q

cnidaria have two germ layers and are ____

A

diploblastic

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77
Q

cnidarians have specialized feeding cells called ___

A

cnidocytes

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78
Q

obelia is a ___ hydrozoan with multiple polyps

A

colonial

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79
Q

the large opening where water exits the sponge is the ____

A

osculum

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80
Q

cnidarians are ____

A

radially symmetrical

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81
Q

what is the typical life cycle of Obelia?

A

alternating between polyp and medusa, with a dominant polyp

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82
Q

scyphozoans with tentacles hanging down are in the ____ form

A

medusa

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83
Q

the Portuguese man of war is a ____

A

hydrozoan

84
Q

Earthworms have two types of muscles called _____ muscles and _____ muscles

A

circular ; longitudinal

85
Q

earthworms intestine has an in-fold called ____

A

typhlosole

86
Q

_____ studied in this lab are acoelomates

A

planaria

87
Q

squids and octopuses have _______ to change color

A

chromatophores

88
Q

the molluscan shell is secreted by the ____

A

mantle

89
Q

all arthropods share an outer covering, _____ that supports _____ appendages, and segmented bodies

A

exoskeleton ; jointed

90
Q

a hexapod has 3 body regions, ____, ____, and ____

A

head ; thorax; abdomen

91
Q

planaria are ____

A

triploblastic

92
Q

Planaria’s auricles are loaded with ____

A

chemoreceptors

93
Q

planaria exhibits ____

A

bilateral symmetry

94
Q

Planaria uses tubular structure called ____ to suck in food

A

pharynx

95
Q

name three specialized segments in the earthworm…

A

prostomium ; clitellum ; pygidium

96
Q

are flatworms and flukes acoelomates?

A

yup

97
Q

what feature of the squid is not important for its predatory lifestyle?

A

external shell

98
Q

chitons use ____ to scrape algae from rocks to feed themselves

A

radula

99
Q

what body feature is directly involved in reproduction?

A

swimmerets

100
Q

carapace in crustaceans covers the ____ and ___

A

head ; thorax

101
Q

spiders are ____

A

chelicerates

102
Q

_____, _____, _____ are examples of acoelomates studied in this lab

A

planaria ; fluke ; tapeworm

103
Q

a bony fish has _____ that detect vibrations

A

lateral lines

104
Q

a shark has _____ vertebrae

A

cartilaginous

105
Q

a perch has ____ that helps regulate buoyancy

A

swim bladder

106
Q

a lamprey uses ___ for support

A

notochord

107
Q

bony fish have ____ to cover their gills

A

operculum

108
Q

what organism was the first to become fully terrestrial?

A

reptiles

109
Q

conditioned reflex is a type of ____ learning

A

associative

110
Q

habituation is a type of _____ learning

A

non-associative

111
Q

taxis is a _____ response to a stimulus

A

directional

112
Q

kenesis is a ____ response to a stimulus

A

non-directional

113
Q

the increase in the turns of pillbugs in the dry environment is an example of:

A

kinesis

114
Q

what does not require learning?

A

taxis

115
Q

the decreased response to a stimulus is….

A

habituation

116
Q

animal’s movement towards light is ……

A

positive phototaxis

117
Q

which of the following is an example of associative learning?

A

conditioned reflex

118
Q

spider web spinning is an ____ behaivor

A

innate

119
Q

the most common kind of color blindness is _____

A

red-green

120
Q

the fluid in the small cavity in the anterior of the eyes is the ______

A

aqueous humor

121
Q

an oval-shaped pigmented area near the retina is called ______

A

macula

122
Q

which area of the retina has the most highly concentrated cones?

A

fovea

123
Q

the outermost layer of the eyeball is called the….

A

sclera

124
Q

What is the sensory relay center of the brain?

A

thalamus

125
Q

______ are responsible for our vision at night

A

rods

126
Q

_____ are responsible for our color vision

A

cones

127
Q

the posterior cavity of eyeballs has _____ humor

A

vitreous

128
Q

the blind spot has _____

A

blood vessels

129
Q

this structure connects the left+right hemispheres of the brain

A

corpus callosum

130
Q

____ carries blood away from the heart

A

arteries

131
Q

arteries are generally ____ muscular and ___ elastic than veins of equivalent sizes

A

more ; more

132
Q

three layers of tissue in the heart:

A

epicardium ; myocardium ; endocardium

133
Q

cardiovascular system in sharks has __ circuit(s)

A

one

134
Q

what is the most muscular chamber of the heart?

A

left ventricle

135
Q

gas exchange happens in the ____

A

capillaries

136
Q

cardiac muscles receive nutrients from the ____

A

coronary arteries

137
Q

resting heart ratees of humans is generally in the range of ____

A

60-100 bpm

138
Q

in sharks, oxygen poor blood is carried by veins back to the atrium via a thin-walled sac called____

A

sinus venosus

139
Q

animals are ______

A

heterotrophic

140
Q

chemical digestion relies on ____ enzymes

A

hydrolytic

141
Q

food is moved through the digestive system via ______

A

peristalsis

142
Q

the wall of mammalian gastrointestinal tract consists of four layers, ____, _____, _____, ____

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, adventitia

143
Q

the human stomach has many folds called ____

A

rugae

144
Q

bile is produced in the _____

A

liver

145
Q

in humans most of the digestion takes place in the ____

A

duodnem

146
Q

the submucosa is enriched with _____

A

blood vessels, and lymph vessels

147
Q

the mammalian small intestine has the following sections….

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

148
Q

Which of the following is the correct metric unit to measure the volume of a liquid in biological experiments?
A) Kilogram (kg)
B) Liter
C) Meter
D) Celsius (°C)

A

B) Liter

149
Q

How many milliliters (mL) are in 2.5 liters (L)?
A) 250 mL
B) 25 mL
C) 2500 mL
D) 0.25 mL

A

C) 2500 mL

150
Q

Given the dataset: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. What is the median of this dataset?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

A

C) 6

151
Q

If a dataset has values of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10, what is the range of the data?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10

A

C) 8

152
Q

What is the difference between precision and accuracy in biological measurements?
A) Precision refers to how close measurements are to the true value, while accuracy refers to how consistent repeated measurements are.
B) Precision refers to how consistent repeated measurements are, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.
C) Precision and accuracy mean the same thing.
D) Precision refers to the number of decimal places in a measurement, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.

A

B) Precision refers to how consistent repeated measurements are, while accuracy refers to how close measurements are to the true value.

153
Q

Which of the following microscope components is responsible for adjusting the light intensity on a compound microscope?
A) Ocular lens
B) Iris diaphragm
C) Coarse focus adjustment
D) Condenser

A

B) Iris diaphragm

154
Q

What is the primary function of the condenser in a compound microscope?
A) To adjust the brightness of the image
B) To concentrate light onto the specimen
C) To change the magnification of the specimen
D) To focus the image on the ocular lens

A

B) To concentrate light onto the specimen

155
Q

If the specimen is moved to the right or left under a compound microscope, how does the image appear to move?
A) The image moves up
B) The image moves down
C) The image moves right
D) The image moves in the opposite direction (left or right) of the specimen’s movement

A

D) The image moves in the opposite direction (left or right) of the specimen’s movement

156
Q

What happens to the brightness of the image when switching from a lower-power objective to a higher-power objective on a compound microscope?
A) The brightness increases
B) The brightness decreases
C) The brightness stays the same
D) The brightness fluctuates randomly

A

B) The brightness decreases

157
Q

Which of the following provides a larger field of view under a compound microscope?
A) 4X objective
B) 40X objective
C) Both provide the same field of view
D) Neither provides a field of view

A

A) 4X objective

158
Q

What role do protists play in the environment?
A) They are important decomposers in ecosystems.
B) They are a major source of oxygen production in oceans.
C) They can cause diseases in humans, such as malaria.
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

159
Q

Which of the following protists have a stigma, and what is its function?
A) Amoeba; helps in capturing food
B) Paramecium; aids in movement
C) Euglena; helps in detecting light for phototaxis
D) Spirogyra; assists in conjugation

A

C) Euglena; helps in detecting light for phototaxis

160
Q

What occurs during conjugation in Spirogyra?
A) Two cells divide to form new cells.
B) Two cells exchange genetic material to increase genetic diversity.
C) One cell splits into multiple smaller cells.
D) One cell engulfs another to form a larger cell.

A

B) Two cells exchange genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

161
Q

Why do protists like Amoeba and Paramecium accumulate excess water, and how do they remove it?
A) They absorb water for movement; they expel it through the contractile vacuole.
B) They store water for photosynthesis; they expel it through diffusion.
C) They accumulate water for reproduction; they expel it through osmosis.
D) They absorb water for energy; they expel it through the cell membrane.

A

A) They absorb water for movement; they expel it through the contractile vacuole.

162
Q

How did Miracle-Gro affect the profile of protists in the lab?
A) It increased the number of protists by providing more nutrients.
B) It caused the protists to become larger in size.
C) It decreased the protist population due to toxicity.
D) It had no effect on the protists.

A

A) It increased the number of protists by providing more nutrients.

163
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the life cycle of a moss and its adaptation to terrestrial life?
A) The moss life cycle involves the production of seeds, which help it adapt to dry environments.
B) The moss has a dominant gametophyte stage, which relies on water for fertilization, helping it adapt to moist environments.
C) The moss alternates between diploid and haploid sporophyte stages, reducing its dependence on water.
D) The moss life cycle involves a dominant sporophyte stage that can survive in dry conditions.

A

B) The moss has a dominant gametophyte stage, which relies on water for fertilization, helping it adapt to moist environments.

164
Q

What is the primary difference between pollination and fertilization?
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
B) Pollination occurs inside the ovule, while fertilization occurs outside the ovule.
C) Pollination results in the formation of seeds, while fertilization results in the formation of pollen.
D) Fertilization is the first step in the process of seed formation, while pollination occurs after seed formation.

A

A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.

165
Q

What is the primary difference between pollination and fertilization?
A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.
B) Pollination occurs inside the ovule, while fertilization occurs outside the ovule.
C) Pollination results in the formation of seeds, while fertilization results in the formation of pollen.
D) Fertilization is the first step in the process of seed formation, while pollination occurs after seed formation.

A

A) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to female reproductive organs, while fertilization is the union of sperm and egg.

166
Q

What is the evolutionary significance of pollen in gymnosperms and angiosperms?
A) Pollen allows for the fertilization of plants in water, supporting aquatic life cycles.
B) Pollen enables fertilization without the need for water, increasing the ability of plants to colonize terrestrial environments.
C) Pollen is responsible for the formation of seeds, allowing for faster reproduction in plants.
D) Pollen helps plants absorb nutrients from the soil, improving growth and reproduction.

A

B) Pollen enables fertilization without the need for water, increasing the ability of plants to colonize terrestrial environments.

167
Q

Which of the following is an example of a dry fruit?
A) Pea pod (legume)
B) Apple (pome)
C) Orange (citrus)
D) Tomato (berry)

A

A) Pea pod (legume)

168
Q

Which of the following parts of a flower is responsible for producing pollen?
A) Stigma
B) Ovary
C) Anther
D) Style

A

C) Anther

169
Q

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the polyp form of a cnidarian from the medusa form?
A) The polyp is usually mobile, while the medusa is sessile.
B) The polyp has a cylindrical body and is usually attached to a surface, while the medusa is bell-shaped and free-swimming.
C) The medusa form is found in freshwater species, while the polyp form is found in marine species.
D) The medusa has a prominent gastrovascular cavity, while the polyp lacks this structure.

A

B) The polyp has a cylindrical body and is usually attached to a surface, while the medusa is bell-shaped and free-swimming.

170
Q

What major evolutionary trend is associated with bilateral symmetry in animals, such as flatworms?
A) Increased mobility and the development of a head region
B) Decreased mobility and the ability to form colonies
C) Ability to capture and digest food externally
D) Formation of radial nerve systems and less directional movement

A

A) Increased mobility and the development of a head region

171
Q

How do cnidocytes use their nematocysts in food capture and defense?
A) Nematocysts release toxins to paralyze prey and deter predators.
B) Nematocysts secrete digestive enzymes to break down food.
C) Nematocysts eject spines to capture prey, which is then digested externally.
D) Nematocysts create a mucus barrier that traps food particles in the water.

A

A) Nematocysts release toxins to paralyze prey and deter predators.

172
Q

Which type of symmetry do cnidarians have, and what major evolutionary trend is associated with bilateral symmetry?
A) Cnidarians have radial symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with increased mobility and directional movement.
B) Cnidarians have bilateral symmetry, and radial symmetry is associated with greater mobility.
C) Cnidarians have asymmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with radial nerve development.
D) Cnidarians have no symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is related to reproductive efficiency.

A

A) Cnidarians have radial symmetry, and bilateral symmetry is associated with increased mobility and directional movement.

173
Q

How can you distinguish a feeding polyp from a reproductive polyp in the colonial organism Obelia?
A) Feeding polyps have larger, more muscular tentacles than reproductive polyps.
B) Reproductive polyps have specialized structures for food capture, while feeding polyps do not.
C) Feeding polyps have specialized tentacles for capturing prey, while reproductive polyps focus on producing medusa.
D) Both types of polyps look identical and cannot be distinguished.

A

C) Feeding polyps have specialized tentacles for capturing prey, while reproductive polyps focus on producing medusa.

174
Q

How does the coelomic cavity of a Planaria compare to that of an earthworm?
A) Planaria have a true coelom, while earthworms have a pseudocoelom.
B) Both Planaria and earthworms have a true coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
D) Planaria and earthworms both lack a coelom.

A

C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.

175
Q

How does the coelomic cavity of a Planaria compare to that of an earthworm?
A) Planaria have a true coelom, while earthworms have a pseudocoelom.
B) Both Planaria and earthworms have a true coelom.
C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.
D) Planaria and earthworms both lack a coelom.

A

C) Planaria lack a coelom, while earthworms have a true coelom.

176
Q

Which of the following animals is a coelomate?
A) Tapeworm
B) Fluke
C) Roundworm
D) Earthworm

A

D) Earthworm

177
Q

Which muscles in an earthworm are responsible for lengthening the segments during movement?
A) Circular muscles
B) Longitudinal muscles
C) Both circular and longitudinal muscles
D) None of the above

A

A) Circular muscles

178
Q

What are the three main parts of a mollusk’s body plan?
A) Head-foot, mantle, and radula
B) Visceral mass, shell, and foot
C) Circulatory system, gills, and mantle
D) Tentacles, radula, and head

A

B) Visceral mass, shell, and foot

179
Q

What are the primary functions of the exoskeleton in arthropods?
A) To provide buoyancy and aid in movement
B) To protect internal organs and prevent desiccation
C) To assist in food digestion
D) To serve as a sensory organ

A

B) To protect internal organs and prevent desiccation

180
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature shared by chordates?
A) Notochord
B) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
C) Pharyngeal slits
D) Lungs

A

D) Lungs

181
Q

Which type of fish can move water over their gills without moving through the water, and what role does the operculum play?
A) Sharks, the operculum helps propel water over the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
C) Rays, the operculum moves water from the mouth to the gills.
D) Cartilaginous fish, the operculum helps push water out of the gills.

A

B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.

182
Q

Which type of fish can move water over their gills without moving through the water, and what role does the operculum play?
A) Sharks, the operculum helps propel water over the gills.
B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.
C) Rays, the operculum moves water from the mouth to the gills.
D) Cartilaginous fish, the operculum helps push water out of the gills.

A

B) Bony fish, the operculum acts as a cover to move water over the gills without swimming.

183
Q

How does the buoyancy of an air bladder affect the movement of bony fish in contrast to sharks?
A) Bony fish use their air bladder to maintain buoyancy and swim horizontally, while sharks rely on their liver for buoyancy.
B) Sharks use an air bladder for buoyancy, while bony fish rely on their large fins.
C) Bony fish rely on their gills for buoyancy, while sharks do not need buoyancy control.
D) Sharks use the air bladder to help control vertical movement, while bony fish do not have such an adaptation.

A

A) Bony fish use their air bladder to maintain buoyancy and swim horizontally, while sharks rely on their liver for buoyancy.

184
Q

Which of the following structures in a perch helps with buoyancy?
A) Lateral line
B) Swim bladder
C) Heart
D) Gills

A

B) Swim bladder

185
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of being endothermic (having a constant internal body temperature)?
A) It allows animals to be more energy-efficient.
B) Endothermic animals can remain active in a wider range of temperatures.
C) Endothermic animals require less food to maintain body heat.
D) It reduces the need for insulation or protective layers.

A

B) Endothermic animals can remain active in a wider range of temperatures.

186
Q

Which of the following is the correct definition of taxis?
A) A random movement toward or away from a stimulus.
B) A purposeful, directional movement toward or away from a stimulus.
C) A learned behavior based on environmental experiences.
D) An innate, fixed response to environmental changes.

A

B) A purposeful, directional movement toward or away from a stimulus.

187
Q

How do pillbugs respond to dry and wet environments, and is this response a tactic or a kinetic response?
A) They move randomly in dry environments and toward moisture in wet environments. This is a kinetic response.
B) They move toward dry environments and away from wet environments. This is a tactic response.
C) They move randomly in both environments, which is a kinetic response.
D) They move toward moisture in wet environments and away from it in dry environments. This is a tactic response.

A

D) They move toward moisture in wet environments and away from it in dry environments. This is a tactic response.

188
Q

Which of the following structures are present in the head region of a flatworm, and what are their functions?
A) Eyespot for light detection, auricles for sensing chemicals.
B) Eyespot for light detection, pharynx for digestion.
C) Mouth for feeding, auricles for balance.
D) Pharynx for feeding, eyespot for vision.

A

A) Eyespot for light detection, auricles for sensing chemicals.

189
Q

Does Planaria move toward or away from light?
A) Toward light.
B) Away from light.
C) In a random direction.
D) Planaria do not respond to light.

A

B) Away from light.

190
Q

How does Planaria accomplish gas exchange, given that they lack specialized gas exchange organs?
A) Through diffusion across the body surface.
B) Using a specialized respiratory system.
C) Through gills located near the pharynx.
D) Through a circulatory system.

A

A) Through diffusion across the body surface.

191
Q

Which brain structure is primarily responsible for balance and coordination?A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Brainstem
D. Hypothalamus

A

B. Cerebellum

192
Q

Why is it advantageous that we are not aware of all activities within our nervous system?
A. It allows us to process information faster.
B. It prevents sensory overload and distraction.
C. It improves our reaction time in emergencies.
D. It enhances our conscious decision-making ability.

A

B. It prevents sensory overload and distraction.

193
Q

Which term describes the area of the retina responsible for sharp central vision?A. Macula
B. Fovea
C. Blind Spot
D. Retina

A

B. Fovea

194
Q

What does 20/40 vision on a Snellen eye chart indicate?
A. The person sees at 40 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
B. The person sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 40 feet.
C. The person has perfect vision at 20 feet.
D. The person is nearsighted.

A

B. The person sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 40 feet.

195
Q

What is the primary purpose of the visual motor experiment?
A. To measure reaction time to visual stimuli.
B. To understand the coordination between vision and motor control.
C. To test visual acuity using a Snellen chart.
D. To identify color blindness and its effects.

A

B. To understand the coordination between vision and motor control.

196
Q

Which structure carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body?
A. Coronary artery
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta
D. Carotid artery

A

C. Aorta

197
Q

Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the wall of the right ventricle?
A. To store more blood for circulation.
B. To pump blood a shorter distance to the lungs.
C. To generate more force to pump blood through the systemic circulation.
D. To reduce blood pressure during diastole.

A

C. To generate more force to pump blood through the systemic circulation.

198
Q

What is the purpose of arteries in appendages being buried deeper than veins?
A. To prevent blood pooling in the extremities.
B. To regulate body temperature more efficiently.
C. To protect arteries from external injuries.
D. To increase blood flow during exercise.

A

C. To protect arteries from external injuries.

199
Q

What is the significance of blood passing through the liver after leaving the digestive system?
A. To regulate body temperature before distribution.
B. To detoxify harmful substances and process nutrients.
C. To oxygenate the blood before it reaches the heart.
D. To deliver nutrients directly to muscle tissue.

A

B. To detoxify harmful substances and process nutrients.

200
Q

What effect does caffeine have on the heart rate of Daphnia, and why?
A. Decreases heart rate by inhibiting nerve signals.
B. Increases heart rate by stimulating the nervous system.
C. No effect, as Daphnia do not respond to caffeine.
D. Increases heart rate by reducing blood oxygen levels.

A

B. Increases heart rate by stimulating the nervous system.

201
Q

Which organ is responsible for storing bile produced by the liver?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Pancreas
D. Gall bladder

A

D. Gall bladder

202
Q

How does the digestive system of a shark differ from that of a fetal pig?
A. Sharks have a spiral valve to increase nutrient absorption, while fetal pigs rely on a longer small intestine.
B. Sharks have a stomach for storing bile, while fetal pigs use their liver for this purpose.
C. Sharks have a cecum, while fetal pigs do not.
D. Sharks digest food only in the stomach, while fetal pigs digest food in the intestine.

A

A. Sharks have a spiral valve to increase nutrient absorption, while fetal pigs rely on a longer small intestine.

203
Q

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter?
A. To prevent bile from entering the esophagus.
B. To regulate the passage of food from the esophagus to the stomach.
C. To aid in the digestion of carbohydrates.
D. To control the release of stomach contents into the small intestine.

A

B. To regulate the passage of food from the esophagus to the stomach.

204
Q

What histological characteristic distinguishes the esophagus from the small intestine?
A. The esophagus has villi, while the small intestine does not.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
C. The esophagus has a thicker muscularis externa compared to the small intestine.
D. The esophagus has crypts of Lieberkühn, while the small intestine has none.

A

B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.

205
Q

What histological characteristic distinguishes the esophagus from the small intestine?
A. The esophagus has villi, while the small intestine does not.
B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.
C. The esophagus has a thicker muscularis externa compared to the small intestine.
D. The esophagus has crypts of Lieberkühn, while the small intestine has none.

A

B. The esophagus has stratified squamous epithelium, while the small intestine has simple columnar epithelium.

206
Q

Why does food pass through the duodenum immediately after leaving the stomach?
A. To be filtered by the liver before absorption.
B. To neutralize stomach acid and begin nutrient absorption.
C. To mix with bile stored in the pancreas.
D. To be stored temporarily before entering the small intestine.

A

B. To neutralize stomach acid and begin nutrient absorption.

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