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Spring 2016 Exams > Bio Exam 1 > Flashcards

Bio Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the specialities of biopsychology?

A

Physiological psychology Psychopharmacology Neuropsychology Psychophysiology Cognitive Neuroscience

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2
Q

What is physiological psychology?

A

Direct manipulation of brain in animal research; focuses more on theory rather than immediate practical application.

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3
Q

What is Psychopharmacology?

A

Manipulation of neural systems and bx with drugs; animals and humans

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4
Q

What is Neuropsychology?

A

Cognitive & psychological effects of brain damage in human patients Clinical app of brain behavior concepts. Testing of cog abilities, gathering info from other sources and consolidating.

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5
Q

What is Psychophysiology?

A

Relationship between physiological activity and psychological processes in humans (EEG) Biofeedback—heart rate, muscle tension, skin temp, etc. Using biofeedback ppl can control their physiological responses

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6
Q

What Cognitive Neuroscience?

A

Brain basis for cognitive / emotional behavior(PET Scan, fMRI)

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7
Q

Who is Dr. Egas Moniz and why is he significant in Neuropsych?

A

Portuguese neurologist attended a conference in 1935, which resulted in him developing the prefrontal lobotomy.

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8
Q

What were the initial findings of the prefrontal lobotomy?

A

A patient who had removal of prefrontal lobes during tumor resection showed no intellectual impairment – IQ scores remained the same post surgery

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9
Q

Why were prefrontal lobotomies discontinued?

A

Even tho IQ scores didn’t change, behavioral changes did. Neuropsych tests showed there were impairments. Apathy, couldn’t feel emotions, or demonstrate affect, passive, indifferent. Apathy was so extreme they needed daily supervision to get through a routine.

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10
Q

What are dichotomous traits?

A

Present in one form or another but never in combination e.g. pea color

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11
Q

What are true breeding lines?

A

Interbred members always produce offspring with the same trait E.i. brown pea parents produce brown pea children- white pea parents produce white pea children.

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12
Q

What did Mendela find when he interbred brown and white peas?

A

He found that demonstrated traits not expressed by parents could be passed on to children (First generation offspring all had brown peas – Dominant trait Second generation offspring were 75% brown and 25% white – white was recessive trait)

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13
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

The organism’s observable traits – the expression of the trait on the outside

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14
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The traits that can be passed on to children thru genetic material – underlying genetic make up

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15
Q

What were the 4 ideas Mendel proposed?

A
  1. Two kinds of inherited factors for each dichotomous trait – now referred to as genes. 2. Each organism possesses two genes for each of its dichotomous traits 3. One of the genes in a heterozygous pair dominates the other in expression of the trait 4. For each trait, a child randomly inherits one of the father’s two genes and one of the mother’s two genes
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16
Q

What are alleles?

A

Two genes that control the same trait are called

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17
Q

What are homozygous genes?

A

Identical genes

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18
Q

What are heterozygous genes?

A

Two different genes

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19
Q

Where are genes located?

A

On chromosomes in the nucleus of the cells

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20
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have?

A

46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs

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21
Q

What are autosomes?

A

The 22 pairs of chromosomes that are NOT the sex chromosomes

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22
Q

Where are the two genes (alleles) that control a trait located?

A

At the same locus, one on each chromosome of a particular pair

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23
Q

What is Meiosis?

A

Process of cell division that produces gametes (i.e. sperm and egg)

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24
Q

What are the phases of meiosis (generally)?

A
  • Chromosomes divide and one of the pair goes to one gamete and the other of the pair goes to the other gamete - Each gamete contains only half the usual number of chromosomes i.e. 23 instead of 46 - Union of sperm and egg combines these two sets of 23 chromosomes to produce 46
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25
Q

How many possibilities are there for gamete combinations?

A

Approximately 8.3 million

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26
Q

What is mitosis?

A

All cell growth that occurs after Meiosis

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27
Q

What is genetic recombination?

A

During early stages of meiosis, chromosomes overlap or crossover one another and break apart at the points of contact, exchanging sections of chromosome. The chromosomes are not passed on in tact – it’s a splice of both members of the pair. This increases the potential combination of chromosomes

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28
Q

What results happen from genetic recombination?

A
  1. Parents rarely pass on intact chromosomal clusters of genes to children 2. Each gamete contains chromosomes that are unique spliced together combinations inherited from your father and mother 3. Crossover rarely occurs between adjacent genes and frequently between genes at opposite ends of chromosome
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29
Q

What are the two different types of sex related genes?

A

XX for females XY for males

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30
Q

What are sex-linked traits?

A

Traits influenced by genes on a sex chromosome (traits conveyed on the sex chromosome)

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31
Q

What chromosome controls almost all sex-linked traits and why?

A

The X chromosome because Y is smaller and carries fewer genes (mostly just carries the ones determining male sex development)

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32
Q

True or false: traits controlled by genes on the X chromosome occur in one sex more often than the other

A

true

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33
Q

True or false: recessive traits occur more often in females than males

A

False; dominate traits occur more often in females than males because they have twice the chance of inheriting the dominate gene

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34
Q

Why do recessive sex-linked traits occur more in males?

A

If they inherit the trait on X, there is nothing to over-ride it on Y and they express the trait, whereas in females they will express it only if they inherit two recessive genes Ex: Color blindness is recessive sex-linked trait and is rare in women

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35
Q

Each strand of DNA is composed of what?

A

Nucleotides bases

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36
Q

What are the 4 nucleotides?

A

Adenine Thymine Guanine Cytosine

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37
Q

What determines the genetic code?

A

The sequence of the nucleotide bases

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38
Q

What nucleotides attract to each other?

A
  • Adenine attracts to thymine - Guanine attracts to cytosine
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39
Q

What happens in replication?

A

The helix unravels and loose nucleotides are attracted to the unpaired strands and form two identical chromosomes

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40
Q

What are structural genes?

A

They are the most prevalent They contain information necessary for synthesis of proteins

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41
Q

What are proteins?

A

Long chains of amino acids that control physiological activities of cells and are important components of their structure

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42
Q

True or False: All cells in the body (brain, hair, bone, etc.) do not contain exactly the same set of structural genes.

A

False, they do contain exactly the same set of structural genes

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43
Q

What are enhancers?

A
  • Sections of DNA that control structural genes and whether or not they initiate synthesis of protein - If protein is synthesized the gene is expressed – no protein synthesis, gene is not expressed.
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44
Q

How do enhancers work?

A

Enhancers work like switches, they can increase or decrease the extent to which a structural gene is expressed.

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45
Q

What are transcription factors?

A
  • Proteins that bind to DNA and regulate genetic expression - Many of these binding proteins that influence enhancers are influenced by signals received from the cell as it responds to the environment - Thus providing the mechanism for interaction of the environment and genes to influence development - Even if there was a perfect transcription and translation there can still be abnormalities
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46
Q

What is the process for the expression of a gene?

A
  1. Enhancer/promoter genes initiate process 2. DNA for the section of structural gene unravels 3. exposed DNA attracts messenger RNA (mRNA) which forms a strand until reaching another enhancer/promoter gene that signals the end of the structural gene 4. mRNA then goes to a ribosome in the cytoplasm of the cell 5. ribosome moves along the mRNA and transcribes the genetic code 6. each group of 3 consecutive nucleotides is called a codon - codon instructs the ribosome which of 20 amino acids to add to the protein it is constructing 7. as ribosome reads mRNA it attracts transfer RNA attached to an amino acid 8. ribosome reads codon after codon and adds amino acid after amino acid until it reaches another enhancer/promoter gene that signals the end of the structural gene 9. the completed protein is then released into the cytoplasm
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47
Q

What is the difference in the nucleotides between mRNA and DNA?

A
  • mRNA is the same as DNA except it has uracil instead of thymine
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48
Q

What is the Human Genome Project (HGP)?

A

Allowed us to map the entire genetic blueprint of a human being, to ultimately build another human being

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49
Q

What are loci?

A

-Composed of hundreds/thousands of nucleotide bases.

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50
Q

How many nucleotide bases (A, C, T, and G) does the human genome contain?

A

-3.1 billion nucleotide bases

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51
Q

How many nucleotide bases does the average gene contain?

A

-Roughly 3,000 nucleotide bases

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52
Q

What is the largest known human gene (comprised of the single most nucleotide bases)?

A

Dystrophin (don’t need to know, but dystrophin definition = a protein found in skeletal muscle, which is absent in sufferers from muscular dystrophy.)

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53
Q

What percentage of our genes are structural genes (that code for protein)?

A

1%

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54
Q

What percentage of functions of discovered genes are unknown ?

A

Over 50%

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55
Q

What is Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)?

A

About 1.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences occur in humans (used to find chromosomal locations for disease associated sequences).

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56
Q

What are 3 Epigenetic factors that influence genetic expression?

A

1) Non-gene DNA 2) Small RNA molecules 3) DNA Methylation and Histone remodeling

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57
Q

Genes make up about 1% of human genome, while the rest are called:

A

Non-gene DNA

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58
Q

What does Nongene DNA do?

A

Influences the expression of nearby genes

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59
Q

What is the main role of Small RNA Molecules?

A

To regulate gene expression

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60
Q

What are 4 main genetic influences?

A

1.) Not only structural genes 2.) Interaction of many structural genes 3.) Influence of epigenetic factors 4.) Developmental timing of expression of particular genes in specific brain structures

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61
Q

What does the big picture of the structure of a cell look like?

A

>Cell >Chromosomes >DNA strand/molecule (double helix) >Genes (adenine & thymine, guanine & cytosine) >Proteins

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62
Q

What is Epigenetics?

A

Other moderating factors that influence the way genes are expressed (rather than the genes themselves)

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63
Q

What is RNA editing?

A
  • Cleave or splice mRNA to form new base sequence - Once messenger RNA transcribed the protein, therefore the expression of the gene is altered
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64
Q

What are some basic tenets DNA Methylation and Histone remodeling?

A

-Methylation causes Histone molecule to change it’s shape, which effects DNA expression -Can be induced by experience: neural activity, hormonal change -Changes can last a lifetime and be passed on genetically

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65
Q

What is Down Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21 (extra chromosome on #21; supposed to be 2, but has 3)

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66
Q

Is there one specific gene (APOE-E4) that creates Alzheimers?

A

No. APOE-E4 does not create Alzheimers. But, about 2/3 of ppl with alzheimers will have APOE-E4, and about 2/3 of ppl with the gene APOE-E4 will have alzheimers.

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67
Q

True or False: Genes help metabolize fatty acids?

A

True

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68
Q

True or False: Breastfeeding increases IQ?

A

-It depends :) - It depends on many things; allele, environment, etc. -Dull rats worse than bright rats only if raised in impoverished environment -Genetics CAN always be mediated by environment (getting hit by max doesn’t matter how many or what genes you have); our environment CAN’T always be mediated by our genes.

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69
Q

What is one of the main points of genetic research methods?

A

To attempt to demonstrate the linkage between genes and bx.

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70
Q

True or False: Identical (MZ) twins share only 90% of their genes?

A

False. They share 100% of their genes.

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71
Q

True or False: Fraternal twins (DZ) share a bout 50% of their genes?

A

True

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72
Q

What is a Concordance Rate?

A

It examines the likelihood of whether a twin shares a behavioral trait with the other twin

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73
Q

What are some examples of genetic influences on human bx?

A

1.) Down Syndrome 2.) Huntington’s Dz 3.) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (recessive X-linked abnormality; effects primarily boys) 4.) Fragile X (most common form of inherited intellectual disability in boys; portion of X chromosome is repeated)

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74
Q

In the MN Twin Study, Schizophrenia was 4x higher in MZ twins than DZ twins, and MZ twins raised together had an IQ correlation of .80, and .75 for those raised apart. What does this mean?

A

Differences between individuals’ I.Q. and expression of schizophrenia has a genetic influence.

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75
Q

What is the Heritability Estimate (H.E.)?

A

-It tells us about the contribution of genetic differences to phenotypic differences among subjects – i.e. in the population or in a group of ppl. -H.E. says nothing about the relative contribution of genetics and experience to the development of an individual.

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76
Q

True or False: There is a difference in heritability of IQ in 7-yr-old twins with very low SES and high SES?

A

True. Heritability near 0 for very low SES, and Heritability near 1.0 for high SES

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77
Q

True or False: Found in a Epigenetic twin study of MZ twins over time, their epigenetics were indistinguishable early in life but they accumulated differences over time and eventually each tissue type showed a different epigenetic profile?

A

TRUE! Oofta.

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78
Q

What are 2 main points of Epigenetic twin studies implications?

A

1.) Different epigenetic rates for MZ twins may account for why one twin develops a disease and the other doesn’t. 2.) Disease discordant MZ twin studies may reveal epigenetic factors that contribute to the disease.

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79
Q

Neurons contain what three usual structures?

A

Soma Dendrites Axon

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80
Q

What does the Soma or cell body contain?

A

The nucleus and much of the machinery that operates the cell

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81
Q

What is the Dendrites purpose?

A

Receives information from other neurons, can grow and form new connections.

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82
Q

Describe an Axon

A

It looks like the tail of the neuron, typically protected by the myelin sheath. It can grow and form new connections. Nerves are composed of many axons surrounded by tough elastic connective membranes.

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83
Q

What are the nodes that are found on the Myelin Sheath? Describe them

A

Nodes of Ranvier, they are the gaps that can be found on the myelin sheath. It serves to facilitate the rapid conduction of nerve impulses

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84
Q

What is the Myelin Sheath’s function?

A

To increase the speed of impulses. Waves vs hopping. Unmyelinated nerves conduction happens in waves vs myelinated ones where they hop around and go faster.

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85
Q

The place where action potential originates.

A

Axon Hillock

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86
Q

What is the function of the Terminal Button?

A

Forms synapses with dendrites, soma or axons of other neurons, also secretes transmitter substances

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87
Q

What is classified dependent on structure? Name their classifications. (3)

A

Neurons Multipolar Bipolar Unipolar

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88
Q

Multipolar, bipolar, and unipolar neurons get their name depending on what?

A

How many stalks are available.

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89
Q

Neuron are classified according to function as well. What are the three functions?

A

Sensory Motor Interneurons

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90
Q

What is a sensory Neuron?

A

A neuron that transmits sensory information (sight, sound, feeling, etc.). They are activated by sensory input, and send projections to other elements of the nervous system, ultimately conveying sensory information to the brain or spinal cord.

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91
Q

What is a motor neuron?

A

It leaves the brain and elicits some sort of physical response

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92
Q

What is an interneuron?

A

It enables communication between the sensory neurons or motor neurons to the central nervous system. (responsible for perceptions, planning execution, simple functional scheme)

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93
Q

Name all 8 internal components of a neuron.

A
  1. membrane 2. nucleus 3. nucleolus 4. ribosome 5. mitochondria 6. Endoplasmic reticulum (some are rough others smooth) 7. Golgi Apparatus 8. Microtubules/filaments
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94
Q

What is the membrane’s function in the neuron?

A

It’s a double layer of lipid molecules (fat) It is embedded with a variety of protein molecules that perform various functions such as detecting and passing information about substances outside other cells. Controls what comes in and out of the cell. Actively transports material in and out of cell.

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95
Q

What contains chromosomes and nucleolus?

A

The Nucleus

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96
Q

What internal component produces ribosomes?

A

The nucleolus

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97
Q

This internal component in the cytoplasm decodes mRNA for formation of proteins used in the neuron. What is it?

A

Ribosome

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98
Q

This internal component of the neuron is known as the power house and it is responsible for converting glucose to ATP and stores CA. It also contains DNA from only the mother, unlike other cells.

A

Mitochondria

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99
Q

Name the system of tubes for storage and transport of material within the cells and is important for protein synthesis.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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100
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum there are two types of tubes. What are they and how are they different from each other?

A

Rough and smooth tubes. Rough tubes contain ribosomes that produces proteins are transported out of the cell or used in the membrane. Smooth tubes are responsible for transporting and storing molecules.

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101
Q

Golgi Apparatus, how does it organize and clean the neuron?

A

-packages proteins including neurontransmitters into vesicles (organize) -produces lysosomes which break down substances no longer needed by the neuron. (clean)

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102
Q

What are the microtubules/filaments function?

A

Transports substances between cell body and distal cell/terminal button.

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103
Q

Name the 5 System support cells.

A
  1. Glia 2. Astrocytes 3. Oligodendrocytes 4. Microglia 5. Schwann Cells
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104
Q

Because Neurons have such high metabolism and cannot store energy they need the Glia for what purpose?

A

To supply the neuron with constant sources of nutrients (glucose and oxygen) and will die within minutes if it is interrupted. (life support)

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105
Q

One Astrocyte cell will have how many connections with other neurons?

A

Many

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106
Q

What do Astrocytes provide for neuron?

A

Provide physical support, remove debris and transport nutrients to neurons

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107
Q

What provides physical support and forms the myelin sheath around axons in the brain?

A

Oligondendroglia

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108
Q

Which support cell is involved in phagocytosis and brain immune function?

A

Microglia

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109
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Digesting of dead neurons

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110
Q

Schwann Cells are myelin that wraps around one axon in what system? (PNS, CNS, ANS)

A

Peripheral nervous system

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111
Q

What is the function of blood-brain barriers?

A

Alls for free movement of most substances between plasma and extracellular fluid

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112
Q

How does the BBB (blood brain barrier) act in the Central Nervous System?

A

Walls are not permeable for the most part, substances are actively transports of proteins between capillary and neuron.

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113
Q

Where is the BBB not as strong and for what reason?

A

Throughout the brain in the area that controls vomiting so that it can get rid of poisons and other toxins that may interfere with proper brain functioning.

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114
Q

Generally, the resting potential inside of an axon is

A

-70mV

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115
Q

In order to depolarize the membrane of an axon (leading to either sub-threshold and threshold stimulation) the following must occur where?

A

The inside of the axon must be stimulated by positively charged ions.

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116
Q

True or False: action potential is an all or nothing principle?

A

True

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117
Q

True or False: action potential decreases in mV as it is propagated down the membrane of an axon.

A

False, it stays the same in mV as is propagated down the membrane of an axon.

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118
Q

What happens when electrolytes are dissolved in water?

A

They split apart into two particles, each with an opposing electrical charge

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119
Q

Electrolytes are a product of what kind of force?

A

Electrostatic force

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120
Q

What is the force that pulls sodium ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?

A

Diffusion

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121
Q

What three things are true of Sodium?

A

It is a positively charged ion concentrated outside of the neuron It is attracted to the inside of the ion due to diffusion AND the electrostatic force. It can only enter the neuron by sodium-potassium transporters.

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122
Q

Which is a negatively charged ion that is highly concentrated outside of the neuron and is pushed into the neuron via diffusion, but out of the neuron via the electrostatic force?

A

Chloride

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123
Q

What are some characteristics of potassium in the brain?

A

It’s highly concentrated inside the neuron It’s pulled into the neuron by electrostatic force

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124
Q

What happens when action potential is reached?

A

Sodium and Potassium channels may open on the neuron of the neuron. The membrane potential depolarizes

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125
Q

What are some characteristics of potassium channels?

A

They require more depolarization of the membrane to open. They carry Potassium out of the cell due to diffusion AND the electrostatic force They close when membrane potential begins to return to normal

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126
Q

True or false: After the cell reaches action potential, Potassium becomes concentrated outside of the cell, which causes the membrane to “overshoot” and become hyperpolarized (i.e. charge goes below -70mV).

A

True

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127
Q

What happens after a neuron has reached action potential to restore ion concentrations inside and outside of the cell?

A

Sodium-Potassium transporters remove Na+ from the inside of the cell and retrieve K+ ions.

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128
Q

True or false: Sodium-Potassium transporters are crucial for restoring Na+ and K+ levels to normal after reaching action potential.

A

False: The amount of these ions that cross the membrane are miniscule relative to the overall concentrations. Transporters are important for the neurons functioning over the long-term because too much Na+ in the neuron would prevent neuron functioning over time.

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129
Q

True or false: Sub-threshold electrical impulses causes no change in the cell because action potential was not reached.

A

False: sub-threshold electrical impulses produce a disturbance in the neuron membrane, which changes the electrical charge of the membrane, that becomes smaller as it moves away from the point of stimulation.

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130
Q

True or false: Passive conduction is slower than active conduction.

A

False: passive conduction (i.e. does not change membrane permeability) is faster than active conduction because passive conduction conserves energy.

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131
Q

In myelinated axons, action potential occurs where?

A

At the Nodes of Ranvier

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132
Q

What happens when an axon splits into two?

A

Action potential of the same magnitude is conducted down both axons

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133
Q

What are the three parts of the synapse?

A

Presynaptic membrane (terminal button) Postsynaptic membrane (on a dendrite) Synaptic cleft

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134
Q

A _____________ is any transmitter substance that attaches to a binding site.

A

Ligand

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135
Q

True or false: Transmitter substances will attach to any binding site, regardless of its type.

A

False; transmitter substances will attach only to binding sites specific for it. The binding site will accept and be activated only by a transmitter substance that it is specific for and is specific for it

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136
Q

About how big is the gap between pre- and postsynaptic membranes?

A

25 nanometers

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137
Q

Synaptic vesicles contain _____________.

A

neurotransmitters

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138
Q

Which substance directly causes the vesicles to merge with the presynaptic membrane?

A

calcium ions (CA++)

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139
Q

True or false: Synaptic vesicles are generated inside the soma and transported to the terminal button via microtubules.

A

True

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140
Q

True or false: Before the action potential reaches the terminal button, CA++ is more highly concentrated within than without the neuron.

A

False; CA++ is more highly concentrated outside the neuron before the action reaches the terminal button

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141
Q

Where are the synaptic vesicles located?

A

In the terminal buttons

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142
Q

Both diffusion and electrostatic forces cause CA++ to move once the calcium channels are open.

A

True

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143
Q

After vesicles have deposited their contents at the presynaptic membrane, they do which of the following?

A

They merge with the wall and recycle themselves They close up, but stay connected with the wall They close up, and move back into the terminal button to be refilled

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144
Q

The opening of which of the following ion-specific channels result(s) in an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?

A

Chloride (Cl-) Potassium (K+)

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145
Q

Which substance activates enzymes involved in structural changes of neurons?

A

Calcium (CA++)

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146
Q

What is another word for the resting membrane potential?

A

Polarized (-70mV)

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147
Q

What happens when action potential arises?

A

It depolarizes the membrane

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148
Q

When the action potential bounces back and goes more negatively charged, it is called what?

A

Hyperpolarization (decreases the chances of action potential being achieved)

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149
Q

Substances that bind directly to postsynaptic receptors, thereby causing channels to open, are called _____.

A

Neurotransmitters

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150
Q

Which type of postsynaptic receptor indirectly alters ion channels?

A

Metabotropic

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151
Q

Metabotropic receptors may lead to the utilization of which of the following substances in opening ion channels?

A

The alpha subunit of G proteins Enzymes Second messengers

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152
Q

What substance travels to the nucleus of neurons and can affect gene expression?

A

Second messengers

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153
Q

The most common way neurotransmitters are deactivated is ___________.

A

Reuptake

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154
Q

True or false: Enzymatic deactivation allows neurotransmitters to be reused.

A

False

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155
Q

The term that refers to the summation of postsynaptic potentials (PSPs) is called __________.

A

neural integration

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156
Q

_________ functions to deactivate neurotransmitters.

A

acetycholinesterase

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157
Q

_________ refers to the remnants of synaptic vesicles along the presynaptic membrane after they have released their contents.

A

omega figures

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158
Q

When autoreceptors are not activated, the production and release of neurotransmitters __________.

A

increases

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159
Q

What type of structure is formed when the terminal button of one neuron comes into contact with the terminal button of another neuron?

A

axoaxonic synapse

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160
Q

What two things influence the amount of neurotransmitter released?

A

autoreceptor inhibitory postsynaptic potential

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161
Q

True or false: One function of inhibitory synaptic connections is to increase behavior.

A

True

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162
Q

What transmitter substances can affect areas not in direct contact with a neuron’s terminal button?

A

neuromodulators hormones

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163
Q

__________ cells have receptors for hormones, which can affect their functioning.

A

target

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164
Q

What are two characteristics of peptides?

A

Stimulate metabotropic receptors in the postsynaptic membrane Are insulin and pituitary hormones

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165
Q

What are four characteristics of steroids?

A

They are sex and adrenal hormones They direct chromosomes to initiate protein synthesis They pass through membranes to bind with receptors in the nucleus They are a lipid

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166
Q

Where are hormone receptors located?

A

On a membrane or nucleus

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167
Q

What are neurotransmitter substances and what do they do?

A

They are chemicals produced by the body that communicate between neurons i.e. across synapses

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168
Q

What is a neuraxis?

A

An imaginary line drawn through the spinal cord up to the front of the brain.

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169
Q

Anatomical directions are understood relative to the Neuraxis (T or F)

A

True

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170
Q

Rostral means the same as what other term?

A

Anterior

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171
Q

What does anterior (rostral) mean in regards to anatomical direction?

A

toward the head

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172
Q

What does Posterior (caudal) mean in regards to anatomical direction?

A

toward the tail

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173
Q

What is the anatomical direction that is toward the belly?

A

Ventral (inferior)

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174
Q

What is the anatomical direction that is toward the back (top of head)?

A

dorsal (superior)

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175
Q

what is the term indicating that it pertains more to the middle line of the body?

A

Medial

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176
Q

Term signifying to the side.

A

lateral

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177
Q

Which term means towards the center?

A

afferent

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178
Q

What does efferent mean?

A

away from the center

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179
Q

What does the term Ipsilateral mean?

A

the same side of the brain

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180
Q

What is the term that signifies the opposite side of the brain?

A

contralateral

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181
Q

What are the three planes in which the brain can be sectioned into?

A

Sagittal Coronal/frontal/transverse horizontal

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182
Q

Describe a sagittal plane dissection.

A

vertical cut, dividing brain into left and right regions

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183
Q

Describe a Coronal/frontal/transverse plane dissection.

A

vertical cut, dividing brain into front and back regions

184
Q

Describe a Horizontal plane dissection

A

horizontal cut, dividing brain into top and bottom regions

185
Q

Which nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord?

A

central nervous system

186
Q

The peripheral nervous system is comprised of what two elements?

A

cranial/spinal nerves peripheral ganglia

187
Q

Afferent PNS nerves carry sensory information where?

A

the brain

188
Q

Name the PNS nerves that project to target organs and to muscles.

A

Efferent PNS nerves

189
Q

What percentage of blood volume is continuously being supplied to the brain?

A

20 percent.

190
Q

Does the percentage of blood volume change depending on blood flow needed by other body parts and the activities of other systems?

A

no

191
Q

Because the brain cannot store fuel (glucose) what does it require to extract glucose?

A

O^2

192
Q

What will happen to the brain if it goes 5 minutes without blood (O2 and glucose)?

A

suffer permanent damage

193
Q

What is the name of the tough protective membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord?

A

Meninges

194
Q

What is the name of the outer thicker layer of meninges that is the toughest

A

Dura Mater

195
Q

Arachnoid is what layer in the meninges?

A

the middle layer

196
Q

What is the name of the layer of the meninges that is soft and contains smaller surface blood vessels?

A

Pia matter

197
Q

Name the space between the arachnoid and pia. What does it contain?

A

subarachnoid space which contains cerebral fluid

198
Q

Approximately how much does the brain weigh?

A

3 pounds or 1400 g

199
Q

Describe the brains texture.

A

soft, jelly like and delicate

200
Q

What is the purpose of the Cerebrospinal Fluid?

A

it reduces the brains weight to 80g or approximately 3 oz helps protect the brain from shock

201
Q

In how many ventricles can Cerebrospinal fluid be found?

A

4

202
Q

What is the purpose of the choroid plexus?

A

to produce cerebrospinal fluid in each ventricle

203
Q

How does choroid plexus produce cerebrospinal fluid?

A

it extracts CSF from blood.

204
Q

What is Cerebrospinal fluid’s half life?

A

3 hours

205
Q

Where does cerebrospinal fluid drain into and where does it go?

A

drains into superior sagittal sinus and then goes into the veinous system.

206
Q

What makes up the Central Nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

207
Q

What is one reason why brain areas control different types of functioning?

A

The types of input that particular parts of the brain receive from the neurons connected to them are unique

208
Q

What happens if part of an animal’s brain is removed before neurons connect with the cortex?

A

All usual functional areas are still represented, but “squeezed” into the remaining cortex, e.g., reconnecting visual pathways to the temporal lobe.

209
Q

True or False: Experience affects how brain functioning develops?

A

True

210
Q

What is some proof that experience affects how brain functioning develops?

A

amputation: cortex eventually processes input from adjacent body areas musicians: larger cortical area processes sensory input for left hand blind people who read Braille: larger area of brain activated when touching something with fingers language development in children

211
Q

What is the gyrus?

A

The ridge between two clefts on the cerebral surface in the brain (i.e., a bulge, wrinkle, high ground)

212
Q

What is a sulcus?

A

A groove/crack on the surface of the brain - more of a superficial crack

213
Q

What is a fissure?

A

A groove/crack on the surface of the brain - deeper than a sulcus

214
Q

How much of the cortex is in the sulci & fissures?

A

Two-thirds

215
Q

What is the advantage of having sulci & fissures in the brain?

A

It allows for 3 times the amount of surface area

216
Q

What is white matter?

A

Pathways/tracks of axons (white b/c of myelin)

217
Q

What is grey matter?

A

High congregation of neuron cell bodies (creates the darker pigment)

218
Q

Where is the central sulcus/fissure?

A

It is down the center of the brain (along the frontal/coronal/transverse plane), dividing the Frontal Lobe (anterior) and the Parietal Lobe (posterior)

219
Q

Where is the superior longitudinal fissure?

A

Goes the long way of the brain (along the sagittal plane) separating the right and left hemispheres

220
Q

Where is the lateral/Sylvian fissure?

A

Boundary between the Frontal and Temporal Lobes and Temporal and Parietal Lobes (mostly along the horizontal plane)

221
Q

Where is the frontal lobe, and what are some of its main functions?

A

Front of the brain, go figure; planning/executing and movement

222
Q

Where is the temporal lobe and what is one of its main functions?

A

Beneath the lateral/Sylvian fissure on both cerebral hemispheres; hearing

223
Q

Where is the parietal lobe and what is one of its main functions?

A

Near the center of the brain, behind the frontal lobe and the central sulcus/fissure; integrating sensory information into perception

224
Q

Where is the occipital lobe and what is one of its main functions?

A

The bottom back part of the cortex; vision

225
Q

What does the posterior part of the brain do and which cortices are responsible for this function?

A

It mediates sensory processing (w/ contralateral representation); primary visual cortex, primary auditory cortex, and primary somatosensory cortex

226
Q

What does the anterior part of the brain do and which cortices are responsible for these functions?

A

It controls movement (contra-laterally) and is responsible for executing “something” (not just executive functioning); premotor cortex, primary motor cortex, and prefrontal cortex

227
Q

What are the three levels of processing information?

A

Primary Secondary (association areas) Tertiary (multimodal areas)

228
Q

What is the primary visual cortex?

A

The part of the neocortex that receives visual input from the retina

229
Q

What is the primary auditory cortex?

A

The area of the brain that dispenses sound and is responsible for the ability to hear.

230
Q

What is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

It is the main sensory receptive area for touch. It is located in the lateral fissure

231
Q

What is the primary motor cortex?

A

One of the principle areas involved in motor function; generates neural impulses that control the execution of movement

232
Q

What is contralateral representation?

A

One side of the brain will control the opposite side of the body

233
Q

What is bilateral representation?

A

Both sides of the brain control something.

234
Q

What is the dividing demarcation between the frontal and parietal lobes (motor and sensory functions)?

A

The central sulcus/fissure

235
Q

What is the function of the posterior association areas?

A

perceiving and learning; where visual, auditory, and somatosensory association areas meet; receives info from primary sensory areas to form perception and store memories

236
Q

What are 2 anterior association areas and what are their functions?

A

premotor area (controls patterns of movement and transmits input to primary motor area) prefrontal area (planning, regulation, strategy formation, execution of action)

237
Q

What are multimodal association areas (MMAAs), what are the 3 general categories of MMAAs, and what do they do?

A

They are an integration of multiple sensory modalities in one area of the brain. We have anterior, posterior, and limbic association areas. When Michael refers to MMAAs, most of the time he’s referring to the posterior association area (PAA) exclusively (b/c this is where visual, auditory, and touch info gets integrated and sent off to the prefrontal area for decisions to be made). MMAAs involve the highest levels of integration, assimilation, complex understanding, & cognitive processing.

238
Q

Where are the MMAAs?

A

The area they cover is the same as that covered by the combination of anterior, posterior, and limbic association areas (i.e., much of the prefrontal and temporal cortices and some of the parietal cortex).

239
Q

Where is the MMAA that Michael refers to most often (i.e., posterior association area)?

A

On top of the lateral sulcus - where the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobe meet

240
Q

What does the premotor area do?

A

It controls patterns of movement and transmits input to primary motor area. It houses the memorized actions for movement; it starts the process to do purposeful action.

241
Q

Where is the premotor cortex?

A

Behind (Caudal/Posterior) the Prefrontal Cortex and in front of (Rostral/Anterior) the Primary Motor Cortex

242
Q

Where is the somatosensory association cortex?

A

Behind (Caudal/Posterior) the Primary Motor Cortex and Primary Somatosensory Cortex and in front of (Rostral/Anterior) / underneath (Ventral/Inferior) the Parietal Lobe

243
Q

Where is the visual association cortex?

A

Behind (Caudal/Posterior) / underneath (Ventral/Inferior) the Parietal Lobe and on top of (Dorsal/Superior) / in front of (Rostral/Anterior) the Primary Visual Cortex

244
Q

Where does information flow to first?

A

The primary sensory areas used for sensory detection (registers & processes most elemental info, e.g., lines & light)

245
Q

Where does information go after the primary sensory area?

A

The info that was processed in the primary sensory areas are then sent to sensory association areas for further processing of information

246
Q

What is the job of the sensory association areas?

A

To integrate those individual dimensions of sensory detection into a perception. This is where you perceive visual images object, recognize sound and tactile input. Where you figure out the difference between just a line and a table.

247
Q

What is “lateralization of function?”

A

Left and right sides do not process info in the same way and do not process the same aspects of information

248
Q

What does the left hemisphere process?

A

Analysis of information, serial processing of and controlling events in sequence. Good for language, math.

249
Q

What does the right hemisphere process?

A

Synthesis of information, integrating multiple elements into a whole, visual-perceptual processing. Good for visual/spatial operations because of how it synthesizes info.

250
Q

True or false: because of lateralized functions, we perceive experience as fragmented.

A

False; we perceive experience as seamless. We are unaware of unique processing of each hemisphere

251
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

A commissure; A broad band of nerve fibers that join the two hemispheres of the brain.

252
Q

What is the neocortex?

A

The outer covering of the brain.

253
Q

What are the 4 major structures in limbic system?

A

cingulate cortex, hippocampus, amygdala, mammillary bodies

254
Q

What is the cingulate cortex?

A

a strip of limbic cortex lying along the lateral walls of the groove separating the cerebral hemispheres, just above the corpus callosum

255
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

critical for forming new memories and learning

256
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

negative emotional processing; i.e., expression of emotions, emotional memories, and recognition of signs of emotions in other people; specifically, assigning negative valence to perception and memories of negative events for the purpose of learning

257
Q

What are mammillary bodies?

A

protrusions of the bottom of the brain at the posterior end of the hypothalamus, containing some hypothalamic nuclei; part of the limbic system important in memory

258
Q

What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS)?

A

WKS primarily shows up in alcoholics, resulting from thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency

259
Q

Which brain structure(s) is/are primarily affected by WKS?

A

associated with atrophy of the mammillary bodies

260
Q

What are some symptoms of WKS?

A

vision change, ataxia (unstable gait), and impaired memory

261
Q

What is the fornix and what is its purpose?

A

fiber bundle (of axons) that connects the hippocampus with mammillary bodies; part of the limbic system

262
Q

What are the 3 major structures that comprise the basal ganglia?

A

globus pallidus, caudate nucleus, putamen

263
Q

What are the basal ganglia and what is their function?

A

a collection of subcortical nuclei that regulate motor functions and movements; are involved in the process of becoming more skilled at performing a practiced movement

264
Q

Which diseases involve dysfunction of the basal ganglia?

A

Parkinson’s and Huntington’s

265
Q

What are some symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

weakness, tremors, rigidity of the limbs, poor balance, difficulty initiating movements

266
Q

Which brain structures/systems belong within the telencephalon category?

A

cerebral cortex, limbic system, basal ganglia

267
Q

Describe the structure of the thalamus.

A

2 symmetrical lobes (right and left)

268
Q

What comprise the thalamus and what is their basic function?

A

nuclei receive sensory information and transmit it to the cortex

269
Q

Which brain structures/systems belong within the diencephalon category?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

270
Q

What are the major functions of the hypothalamus?

A

regulation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS), control of major parts of the endocrine system, and integration of species-specific behaviors

271
Q

What are the 2 structures of the endocrine system most affected by the hypothalamus?

A

anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands

272
Q

How does the hypothalamus interact with the anterior pituitary gland?

A

hormones from the hypothalamus get secreted into blood vessels that connect to the anterior pituitary gland (APG), which causes the APG itself to secrete hormones, which in turn (in many cases) cause other endocrine glands to secrete hormones; e.g., gonadotropin from APG causes release of gonadotropic hormones involved in reproduction

273
Q

How does the hypothalamus interact with the posterior pituitary gland?

A

axons from the hypothalamus terminate in the posterior pituitary gland (PPG) and release hormones into the bloodstream; e.g., PPG releases vasopressin, which regulates kidney output

274
Q

What are the 2 major structures that make up the tectum?

A

superior colliculus and inferior colliculus

275
Q

Which activities are mediated by the superior colliculus?

A

visual orienting and head turning

276
Q

What activity is mediated by the inferior colliculus?

A

auditory processing

277
Q

Which brain structures/systems belong within the mesencephalon category?

A

tectum and tegmentum

278
Q

What are the 4 major parts that comprise the tegmentum?

A

reticular formation, periaqueductal gray, substantia nigra, and red nucleus

279
Q

Where does the reticular formation project sensory input?

A

cortex, thalamus, and spinal cord

280
Q

What roles does the reticular formation play in the human body?

A

arousal, sleep, muscle tone, and movement (primarily first one)

281
Q

Where is the periaqueductal gray located?

A

surrounding the cerebral aqueduct

282
Q

What are the functions of the nuclei in the periaqueductal gray?

A

control of movement, inhibition of pain perception, and species-typical behaviors (e.g., fighting and mating)

283
Q

What is the red nucleus and what does it do?

A

a large nucleus of the midbrain that receives inputs from the cerebellum and motor cortex and sends axons to motor neurons in the spinal cord

284
Q

Where does the substantia nigra project sensory input?

A

caudate and putamen

285
Q

What is the substantia nigra and what role does it have in the human body?

A

a darkly stained region of the tegmentum that contains neurons that communicate with the caudate nucleus and putamen in the basal ganglia (i.e., motor control)

286
Q

Which disease involves deterioration of the substantia nigra?

A

Parkinson’s

287
Q

The Metencephalon consists of

A

The Pons and the Cerebellum

288
Q

What 5 types of input does the cerebellum receive?

A

Visual, Auditory, Vestibular, Somatosensory, and Muscle Movement

289
Q

After the cerebellum integrates the input it receives, what effect does it have on the human body’s movement?

A

It has a smoothing and coordinating effect on movement

290
Q

In terms of movement, what is the cerebellum especially important for?

A

rapid, sequenced movements

291
Q

The cerebellum has more neurons than

A

the cortex

292
Q

The Pons contains the core of which brain structure?

A

reticular formation

293
Q

The pons is involved in which two states of being in the human body?

A

Sleep and Arousal

294
Q

Which brain structure contains some connections that have to do with dreaming?

A

The Pons

295
Q

Which brain structure in the brainstem relays information from the cortex to the cerebellum?

A

The Pons

296
Q

The Medulla contains part of which brain structure?

A

the reticular formation

297
Q

What are three examples of vital functions that the nuclei of the medulla control?

A

Regulation of the cardiovascular system, breathing, and skeletal muscle tone (much damage here can be deadly! Eek!!)

298
Q

Name the groups of Vertebrae in the Spinal Cord from top to bottom

A

Cervical (8 levels), Thoracic (12 levels), Lumbar (5 levels), Sacral (5 levels), and Coccygeal (1 level)

299
Q

Name the three primary functions of the spinal cord.

A

transmission of information from the brain to control motor movements and body functions, Transmission of sensory information from sense receptors to the brain, and controlling reflexes.

300
Q

At which levels of the spinal cord do spinal nerves exist?

A

at all levels of the spine

301
Q

How many spinal nerves exist at each level of the spine?

A

2

302
Q

Which two roots join together to become spinal nerves?

A

a Dorsal (posterior) roots and a Ventral (anterior) root

303
Q

Name 3 steps that are involved in the formation of spinal nerves

A

Small bundles of fibers emerge from dorsal and ventral surface of the spinal cord, groups of nerves fuse together and become dorsal and ventral roots, the dorsal and ventral roots join to become spinal nerves.

304
Q

What is the role of the somatic part of the peripheral nervous system?

A

It is involved in transmitting sensory and motor information to and from brain. (It mediates motor and sensory processes that you have conscious awareness of)

305
Q

True or False: The somatic nervous system is effective through spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

A

True.

306
Q

True or False: Spinal nerves exit the spinal chord only at one specific site?

A

False. Spinal nerves exit all along the spinal chord (both sides, R & L).

307
Q

Where do cranial nerves exit, and what is their function?

A

Cranial nerves exit through the brain stem, before the spinal chord. They have the same function as spinal nerves (control sensory and motor functions), but do so in the brain (head and neck area), except for #10 (the Vegas nerve), which innervates the visceral organs. There are 12 different pairs of cranial nerves (R & L, 1 for each side of spinal column; don’t need to know each specifically though)

308
Q

Describe what cell bodies of efferent neurons are and what they do.

A

Axons that transmit info from the brain to muscles and glands. They’re located in the gray matter of spinal cord and exit spinal cord through ventral root.

309
Q

Describe what cell bodies from afferent neurons are and what they do.

A

Axons that transmit sensory info from somatosensory receptors to spinal cord. They’re located outside CNS in dorsal root ganglion (except visual) and enter spinal cord through dorsal root.

310
Q

Describe a nerve & where it’s located.

A

A collection of axons; outside CNS.

311
Q

Describe a tract & where it’s located.

A

A pathway; collection of axons; inside CNS.

312
Q

Describe a nucleus & where it’s located.

A

A collection of cell bodies; inside CNS.

313
Q

Describe a ganglion & where it’s located.

A

A collection of cell bodies; outside CNS.

314
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do?

A

It is concerned with regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. Regulation of “vegetative processes” in the body (largely involuntary)

315
Q

What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system?

A

The sympathetic and the parasympathetic

316
Q

What does the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system do?

A

Controls functions that accompany arousal and expenditure of energy.

317
Q

When an organism is aroused (excited or afraid), what does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

Increases blood flow to skeletal muscles, stimulates the secretion of epinephrine (which causes increased heart rate and increased blood sugar level), stimulates sweat glands, and causes piloerection (goose bumps).

318
Q

Where are the cell bodies of sympathetic motor neurons located?

A

In the gray matter of the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.

319
Q

What is the sympathetic ganglia?

A

Nodules that contain synapses between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system; most outside spinal cord; deliver info about stress & impending danger

320
Q

What do most preganglionic neurons secrete?

A

Acetylcholine

321
Q

What do most postganglionic neurons secrete?

A

Norepinephrine

322
Q

What does the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system do?

A

Controls functions that occur during a relaxed state. Involved with increases in the body’s supply of stored energy.

323
Q

What are some of the bodily functions that the parasympathetic division is involved in?

A

Salivation, gastric and intestinal motility (movements), secretion of digestive juices, and increased blood flow to the gastrointestinal system.

324
Q

What do the neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system secrete?

A

acetylcholine

325
Q

Where do the neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system exit the spinal cord?

A

Cervical and Sacral levels

326
Q

What is an agonist?

A

A drug that causes an increase in the amount of production and/or release of neurotransmitters

327
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

A drug that causes a reduction in the amount of production and/or release of neurotransmitters

328
Q

What is the difference between a direct and indirect agonist or antagonist?

A

Direct - bind to receptor at neurotransmitter binding site (opening or preventing from opening ion channel); called competitive bindingIndirect - bind to receptor at a different site than neurotransmitter binding site (e.g., neuromodulator or hormone binding site), thereby opening or preventing from opening ion channel; called noncompetitive binding

329
Q

How do direct agonists and direct antagonists function differently, aside from increasing or reducing N.T. release (i.e., how do they do that)?

A

Direct agonists bind to N.T. site and open channel, whereas direct antagonists bind to N.T. site and don’t open channel, but also prevent other N.T. from binding there and opening channel

330
Q

What are the functions of transporter molecules/proteins and where do they live?

A

Storage & reuptake of N.T. (i.e., pumping N.T. into vesicles); live in membrane of synaptic vesicles

331
Q

What is a precursor and what does it do?

A

A reduced/incomplete form of neurotransmitter or some other substance (e.g., L-DOPA for dopamine); an increase in a precursor can serve as an agonist

332
Q

What are 6 ways that drugs can serve as agonists?

A

Be the precursors themselvesStimulate release of N.T. directly at presynaptic membrane (by binding w/ transporter molecule proteins)Stimulate postsynaptic receptorsBlock autoreceptorsBlock reuptakeInactivate AChE

333
Q

What are 5 ways drugs can serve as antagonists?

A

Prevent storage of N.T. in vesicles (by blocking transporter protein)Inhibit release of N.T. at presynaptic membrane (by deactivating protein that causes docked vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane)Block postsynaptic receptorsInactivate synthetic enzyme meant to transform precursor to N.T.Stimulate autoreceptors

334
Q

Which drug/agonist corresponds with each of the following functions? (each function listed corresponds with a different drug/agonist)Be the precursors themselvesStimulate release of N.T. directly at presynaptic membrane Stimulate postsynaptic receptorsBlock autoreceptorsBlock reuptakeInactivate AChE

A

L-DOPABlack widow spider venomNicotine/muscarineClonodineCocainePhysostigmine

335
Q

Which drug/antagonist corresponds with each of the following functions? (each function listed corresponds with a different drug/antagonist)Prevent storage of N.T. in vesiclesInhibit release of N.T. at presynaptic membraneBlock postsynaptic receptorsInactivate synthetic enzyme meant to transform precursor to N.T.Stimulate autoreceptors

A

ReserpineBotulinum toxinCurare/AtropinePCPAApomorphine

336
Q

Which neurotransmitter does each agonist affect?L-DOPABlack widow spider venomNicotine/muscarineClonodineCocainePhysostigmine

A

DopamineAChAChNorepinephrineDopamineACh

337
Q

Which neurotransmitter does each antagonist affect?ReserpineBotulinum toxinCurare/AtropinePCPAApomorphine

A

MonoaminesAChAChSerotoninDopamine

338
Q

What is the function of presynaptic autoreceptors and where do they live?

A

Involved in negative feedback loop that inhibits production and/or release of N.T.; live in membrane of terminal button

339
Q

What are the 2 ways that N.T.s leave the synaptic cleft?

A

ReuptakeEnzyme deactivation

340
Q

How does reuptake work?

A

N.T. is inactivated by protein that binds to it and returns it to terminal button

341
Q

How does enzyme deactivation work?

A

Enzyme (e.g., AChE) breaks down N.T. (e.g., ACh), thereby “destroying it”

342
Q

What are the two neurotransmitters that accomplish synaptic communication?

A

GABA and Glutamate

343
Q

True or False: GABA and glutamate are amino acids that function as neurotransmitters

A

True

344
Q

Is GABA excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Inhibitory

345
Q

Is Glutamate excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Excitatory

346
Q

How do GABA and Glutamate work in tandem?

A

Glutamate is constantly firing off excitatory signals and GABA goes in and inhibits that junk so we don’t get over stimulated

347
Q

What are GABA and Glutamate responsible for in the brain?

A

Most local circuits in the brain involve balance between the excitatory and inhibitory influences of GABA and glutamateThey are responsible for most of the information transmitted from place to place in the brain

348
Q

What is the role of neuromodulators?

A

They are there to regulate/modulate the information transmission of the glutamate/GABA circuitsThey activate or inhibit circuits of neurons that are involved in particular brain functions

349
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter secreted by efferent neurons in the central nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine (Ach)

350
Q

What is acetylcholine’s primary action in the brain?

A

Facilitation

351
Q

Where are Ach’s terminal buttons distributed?

A

Widely throughout the brain

352
Q

What are the three Ach systems that we are concerned with?

A

Dorsolateral ponsBasal ForebrainMedial Septum

353
Q

What does the dorsolateral pons pathways do (Ach)?

A

Cortical activation; to keep the cortex aroused enough to process information. Elicits most of the characteristics of REM sleep. It begins in the pons and projects to different areas of the brains

354
Q

What does the basal forebrain pathway do (Ach)?

A

General activation of the cortex and facilitation of learning, especially perceptual learningIt begins at the forebrain and projects to a wide area of the cortex

355
Q

What does the medial septum pathway do (Ach)?

A

Regulates the electrical rhythms of the hippocampus and is important in formation of certain kinds of memories. This pathway is one of the first to deteriorate in Alzheimer’sProjects from the septum to the hippocampus.

356
Q

What deactivates Ach?

A

It is deactivated in the post-synaptic receptor by the enzyme AChE acetylcholine-esterase (AChE). When AChE comes into contact with Ach, it separates into an acetate and choline. The choline molecule goes back up in the pre-synaptic button, the acetate just keeps on moving and viola, Ach is gone.

357
Q

What are the different types of Ach receptors?

A

NictotinicMuscarinic

358
Q

Where are nictotinic receptors (ionotropic) found?

A

In the neuromuscular junctions and some in the CNS

359
Q

What does ionotropic mean?

A

It has rapid firing

360
Q

Where are the muscarinic receptors (metabotropic) found?

A

In the heart and smooth muscle; predominately in the CNS

361
Q

What does metabotropic mean?

A

It has slower firing

362
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

The connection between a motor neuron and muscle (it functions just like a synapse, except on one side it’s a muscle rather than another neuron)

363
Q

What is myasthenia gravis and what does it effect?

A

It is an autoimmune disease that affects the nicotinic Ach receptors, that synapse on the muscle. The immune system degrades the neuromuscular junctions. A person with this has a lot of fatigue.

364
Q

What are some drugs/substances that have effects on Ach synapses?

A

Botulinum toxin - Ach release is blocked (antagonist - prevents firing)Black widow venom - Ach release is promoted (agonist - increases firing), you convulseAchE inhibitors - inhibits AchE, which means the Ach is not broken down and stays in the synapse longer, and helps slow down the progression of Alzheimer’s

365
Q

What are the 4 Monoamines (single construction)?

A

-Catecholamines:1. Dopamine2. Norepinephrine3. Epinephrine (not widely used for brain)-Indolamine:1. Serotonin

366
Q

Where are the neurons located that produce the monoamine NT’s?

A

In the small nuclei in the brain stem and axons that branch widely throughout the brain.

367
Q

Depending on the Post-Syn Receptor, does Dopamine have excitatory or inhibitory influences?

A

Both excitatory and inhibitory (again, depending on the Post-Syn Receptor)

368
Q

What areas of functioning does dopamine mainly influence in the brain?

A

Learning, attention, movement, and reinforcing effects of drugs.

369
Q

What is the multi-step metabolic process of NT production that comes from catecholamine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine –> L-dopa –> Dopamine (NT) –> Norepinephrine (NT)Each get converted into the other through the metabolic process

370
Q

What are the 3 most important systems of Dopamine (very important NT in brain) used in the brain?

A
  1. Nigrostriatal = cell bodies that project from the subtantia nigra to the caudate nucleus and putamen in basal ganglia (helps control motor function; Parkinsons).2. Mesolimbic = cell bodies in the tegmental area that project to the limbic system: nucleus accumbens (helps reinforce effects of substance use; and in the amygdala and hippocampus, it helps learning and memory).3. Mesocortical = cell bodies in the ventral tegmental area that project to prefrontal area (helps with judgment, planning, strategy formation, problem-solving, and working memory).
371
Q

What is one of the main causes for Parkinson’s Dz, and what is it treated with?

A

Parkinson’s is due to inadequate amounts of Dopamine due to substantia nigra degeneration, does not cross the BBB.Treated with L-dopa (increases amount of Dopamine temporarily).

372
Q

Is there only one or many types of Dopamine receptors?

A

Various types of Dopamine receptors (all are metabotropic) that are designated by subtypes (D1 = exclusively Post-Syn; D2 = Pre and Post-Syn).

373
Q

Are stimulants (cocaine, caffeine, amphetamines, etc.) considered agonists or antagonists?

A

Stimulants site of action is at dopamine receptors. Stimulant drugs, including: cocaine, amphetamines, Ritalin, caffeine, etc. are agonists, because they block reuptake of dopamine and the drugs spew dopamine and norepinephrine back into the synapse and brain (by diffusion).

374
Q

What is an example of an antagonistic drug?

A

Chlorpromazine (generic for Thorazine – first drug used to treat schizophrenia). It blocks D2 receptors.

375
Q

Explain the use of MAOI’s

A

-Dopamine is a member of the Monoamine (MAO) group.-In the Pre-Syn Terminal, excess Dopamine is destroyed by MAO.-One of the first drugs used for Depression.-Inhibiting MAO results in increase in Dopamine and Norepinephrine, which increased moods.-However, additional negative side effects.

376
Q

Norepinephrine is the same as what?

A

Noradrenergic/noradrenalin

377
Q

Adrenaline is said to be the same as what?

A

Epinephrine which is brain but “not very important”

378
Q

Where is the hormone adrenalin produced?

A

Adrenal cortex

379
Q

Cell bodies of neurons that secrete Norepinephrine are located in several nuclei in what three parts of the brain?

A

Pons, medulla, and one in the thalamus

380
Q

Which cell body is considered the most important? What does it do?

A

Locus coeruleus in the pons, involved in vigilance and attentiveness to the environment

381
Q

The locus coeruleus gives rise to what fiber system?

A

Norepinephrine fiber system which helps disperse NE to the rest of the brain

382
Q

Name three places in the brain that NE is spread to and originates from the Locus Coeruleus.

A

Cerebral cortex, cerebellum, thalamus, olfactory bulb, amygdaloid body, caudal raphe nuclei

383
Q

What parts of the brain receive input from norepinephrine (NE)?

A

Almost every region receives input

384
Q

What type of synaptic effects does Norepinephrine cause?

A

Excitatory and inhibitory

385
Q

What are the behavioral effects of NE (norepinephrine)?

A

Excitatory, increasing vigilance and attentiveness to the environment

386
Q

There are receptors in the organs of the body that are responsible for the effect of catecholamines when they act as what?

A

Hormones

387
Q

What is serotonin also known as?

A

5HT

388
Q

Where are 98% of serotonin cells located? How many are in the brain?

A

98% are located in the gut and 2% of serotonin cells in the brain.

389
Q

Where are the 2% of serotonin cells located in the brain and where do they project to?

A

Located in the brainstem raphe nuclei and project to cortex

390
Q

Name some of serotonin’s behavioral effects

A

Regulation of mood, control of: eating, sleeping, dreaming and arousal, as well as regulation of pain

391
Q

What is the precursor for serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

392
Q

Where are the cell bodies of neurons that secrete serotonin?

A

In raphe nuclei in mid brain, pons and medulla

393
Q

Where does the dorsal raphe project serotonin?

A

To the cortex and basal ganglia

394
Q

Serotonin is projected to the cortex, dentate gyrus of hippocampal formation by what?

A

Median raphe

395
Q

How many different types of 5- HT receptors are there?

A

At least 9

396
Q

Drugs that alter serotonin in its normal process

A

Prozac, Paxil, Zoloft, Fenfluramine, LSD, MDMA (ecstasy) these are SSRI

397
Q

Glutamate is the same things as glutamic acid. T or F?

A

True

398
Q

How many types of receptor sites does glutamate interact with?

A

4

399
Q

One of the receptors sites that glutamate interacts with is NMDA, how many binding sites work together in the NMDA?

A

6 different binding sites working in concert

400
Q

What does glutamate help control in the NMDA receptor site?

A

The Calcium channel CA++

401
Q

Why is it important that the 6 different binding sites in NMDA in which glutamate interacts with, work in concert?

A

To produce changes in the synapse important for learning and memory formation

402
Q

What drug binds at glutamate sites?

A

PCP

403
Q

True or false: GABA is the most important inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?

A

True

404
Q

True or False: GABA has a very limited distribution throughout the brain and spinal cord?

A

False, GABA appears to have a widespread distribution

405
Q

What would happen if the brain did not the inhibitory synapses?

A

The brain would become unstable. Neurons would excite neighbors who would excite their neighbors eventually exciting the original neuron. Eventually most neurons of the brain would be firing uncontrollably. AKA a seizure-epilepsy.

406
Q

What are the 5 binding sites at the GABA synapses?

A

GABABenzodiazepine (alcohol also likes to bind here)BarbituratesSteroidPicrotoxin

407
Q

Are alcohol, benzodiazepine, and barbiturates agonists or antagonists? Also what is there common function?

A

Agonists (for GABA), they produce relaxation and sedation.

408
Q

Do we know if the brain produces a ligand that is agonist and naturally produces the same effect as alcohol, benzodiazepine, and barbiturates?

A

No, we do not know.

409
Q

True or false: The brain produces an antagonist ligand which causes an increased level of fear, anxiety, and tension?

A

True, this possibly serves as a protective function in times of danger.

410
Q

What are Peptides made of?

A

Two or more amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.

411
Q

Where are Peptides released from and where do their molecules go when they are released?

A

All parts of the terminal button, not just from the active zone. Only a portion of the molecules are released into the synaptic cleft, the rest affect other receptors in the area.

412
Q

True or False: Most peptides appear to serve as neuromodulators, but some act as neurotransmitters.

A

True

413
Q

What are endogenous opioids?

A

A class of peptides secreted by the brain that act as opiates.

414
Q

What are opiates, such as heroin, morphine, demerol, codeine, and percodan?

A

Synthetic opioids (neurotransmitter associated with pain reduction)

415
Q

What is the ligand that is antagonist and blocks the effects of opiates? It is used to treat an overdose of heroin.

A

Naloxone

416
Q

What do the various substances derived from lipids do?

A

Serve to transmit messages within or between cells. (act as neurotransmitters)

417
Q

What are endocannabinoids?

A

A lipid; an endogenous ligand for cannabinoid receptors, which also bind with THC, the active ingredient of marijuana.

418
Q

Why is it considered safe to use THC to treat the nausea associated with chemotherapy in children?

A

They don’t experience the psychoactive effects of the drug.

419
Q

What are the six areas of the brain where Cannabinoid (CB) receptors are concentrated in?

A

Frontal cortex, anterior cingulate, basal ganglia, cerebellum, hypothalamus, hippocampus

420
Q

What is the level of toxicity for THC and why?

A

Low level of toxicity because very low level of CB receptors in the brainstem (low chance of overdose and death)

421
Q

Where are the six terminal buttons CB receptors found?

A

GlutamateGABAAChNorepinephrineSerotoninDopamine

422
Q

What is Nitric Oxide (NO)?

A

A gas produced by cells in the nervous system; used as a means of communication between cells.

423
Q

True or False: 50 times more animals are killed by the Humane Society than are killed in animal research.

A

True

424
Q

Why do Physiological psychologists study animals?

A

to learn of the relation between physiology and behavior

425
Q

Animal studies are justified on the basis of..? Name 3 things

A

1) Minimized pain and discomfort2)The value of the information gained from the research(e.g. Progress in developing vaccines &Progress in preventing cell death immediately after a stroke).3) The importance of science for understanding ourselves and animals

426
Q

What is Ablation?

A

involves the destruction of brain tissue followed by an assessment of subsequent changes in behavior

427
Q

When using ablation in animal research, how do the experimenters control for the stress the animal endures throughout the procedure?

A

They use sham surgeries as controls (put animal through the entire procedure except for the actual ablation)

428
Q

Name 5 Ablation techniques.

A

*Electrolytic lesions/Radio Frequency lesions*Excitotoxic lesions (kainic acid)*Neurochemical lesions (6-OHDA)*Aspiration*Knife cuts

429
Q

Why are brain lesion studies complicated?

A

all regions of the brain are interconnected

430
Q

In terms of Ablation/lesions in animals, what tool is used in stereotaxic surgery and how does it function?

A

A stereotaxic instrument holds the head in a fixed position.The instrument has an arm that can move in 3 dimensionsThe surgeon can thus position an electrode or other device within a particular sub-cortical structure(think creepy pics from slides)

431
Q

What is a stereotaxic atlas in terms of stereotaxic surgery?

A

provides a series of drawings of brain structures Each page is a section of brain relative to a landmark on the skull (such as bregma)

432
Q

In terms of ablation and lesions in animal research, what are Histological techniques used for?

A

used to verify the placement of a lesion within brain

433
Q

What are steps common in histological techniques when creating lesions in animals’ brains?(4 steps)

A

1) Perfuse (to remove blood from brain)2) Fix brain in formalin to solidify tissue3) Slice brain into thin sections (10-80 microns thick)4) use stains to highlight selective neural elements

434
Q

Name 3 examples of stains used to highlight selective neural elements.

A

1) Weil stain (myelin)2) cresyl violet (cell body)3) golgi stain (membrane)

435
Q

What two types of microscopes used for animal brain research?

A

electron microscope & confocal laser (can also image living tissue)

436
Q

In terms of defining neural connections, what are anterograde labels?

A

They are used to trace efferent connections in the brain.They are taken up by the cell bodies and trasported to axons.

437
Q

What are retrograde labels?

A

They are used to trace afferent connections in the brain. They act “backwards” by being taken up in the axons and then transported to the cell bodies.

438
Q

Name an example of a anterograde label and a retrograde label used in neuro research.

A

anterograde: lectin PHA-Lretrograde: fluorogold

439
Q

What can we use to identify lesions in (living) human brains? (name 3)

A

CT scansMRIMRI DTI

440
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

Computerized tomography uses an x-ray beam to scan the brain from all angles, these scans are then summarized in an image of the skull and brain (in a horizontal plane)

441
Q

Who are CT scans best for?

A

people with metal plates, skull fractures, and acute brain bleeding.

442
Q

What is a MRI?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses a magnetic field and radio waves to excite hydrogen molecules, the resulting information is combined to form an image of tissue

443
Q

What is a MRI DTI?

A

Diffusion Tensor Imaging–measures the migration of water molecules along / across axons. Think of a handful of spaghetti. With this, you can trace where the tracks start and where they end up

444
Q

What can we use to record neural activity in the brain? (3)

A

microelectrodes (can record the activity of a single or a few neuron(s)), Macroelectrodes (large regions of the brain–EEG), and Megnetoencephalopathy (uses magnetic fields to detect electrical impulses)

445
Q

What 3 ways can we record metabolic or synaptic activity in the brain?

A

*measure FOS protein*PET scan (measure glucose consumption in your brain)*fMRI (detect level of oxygen consumption in the brain blood vessels)

446
Q

What is an FOS protein and how is it measured in neuro research?

A

Fos protein is produced in nucleus when a neuron is activatedFos protein can be measured just after a behavior of interest has occurred (Neurons with increased Fos levels were active during that behavior)

447
Q

What is a PET scan a variation of?

A

The animal 2-DG technique

448
Q

What is the procedure of a PET scan?

A

Human subject is injected with radioactive 2-DG, which is taken up by brain cells.As the radioactive molecules decay they emit positrons that can be detected by a scanner

449
Q

A PET scan indicates the relative activity of …?

A

different brain regions during mental states

450
Q

Which scanners have higher temporal and spatial resolution, fMRI or PET?

A

fMRI

451
Q

Artificial stimulation of the brain involves what two types of stimulation?

A

electrical and chemical.

452
Q

Electrical stimulation of the brain involves…?

A

passing an electrical current through a wire inserted in the brainCan be used for brain mapping.

453
Q

Chemical stimulation of the brain can involve…?

A

infusion of an excitatory amino acid (such as glutamate) into a region

454
Q

Which type of brain stimulation is more specific, chemical or electrical?

A

Chemical (e.g. glutamate activates cell bodies, not axons)

455
Q

How do we use magnets to stimulate the brain for research?

A

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)

456
Q

How do we use genetics for neuro research? Name 3 methods

A

Concordance raes of disorders in mono and dizygotic twins.Adoption StudiesTargeted mutations or knockout genes (defective gene produced in lab and inserted in mice)

Spring 2016 Exams (6 decks)

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