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Bioscience 3 > Bio 3 exam 1 prep > Flashcards

Bio 3 exam 1 prep Flashcards

1
Q

What is menarche?

A

First menstrual period.

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2
Q

What is menopause?

A

Cessation of menstruation.

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3
Q

Oestrogen and progesterone stimulate the endometrium to ………….. and …………. for embryo implantation.

A

Thicken and prepare

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4
Q

What hormone maintains pregnancy if fertilisation occurs?

A

Progesterone

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5
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Painful ministration due to excessive prostaglandin F production.

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6
Q

Amenorrhoea is what.

A

The absence of menstruation.

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7
Q

Abnormally heavy or prologue mentioned flow is?

A

Menorrhagia.

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8
Q

The pill contains which synthetic hormones?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone.

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9
Q

Which of the following must be present in polycystic ovarian syndrome to confirm diagnosis?

A

Anovulation
Increased androgens
Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts

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10
Q

Clinical features of polycystic ovarian syndrome include

A

Irregular menses
Hirsutism
Acne
Obesity

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11
Q

Treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome include

A 
Diet and exercise program
Possible antidiabetic drugs
Oral contraceptives
Fertility assistance
Ovarian surgery
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12
Q

Cervical cancer is commonly ………………. cell carcinoma.

A

Squamous

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13
Q

Most cases of cervical cancer due to?

A

Human papilloma virus

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14
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer include

A

HPV infections
Multiple sexual partners
Young age are first intercourse
Male partner with multiple sex partners

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15
Q

What test is used in the diagnosis of cervical cancer?

A

Pap smear

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16
Q

Which vaccine is used to prevent cervical cancers cause by HPV

A

Gardasil

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17
Q

True or false is nice breast cancer is our Oestrogen receptor positive

A

True

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18
Q

BRAC1 and BRAC2 genes are risk factors for which cancer?

A

Breast cancer

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19
Q

Tamoxifen blocks which receptors for treatment of breast cancer?

A

Oestrogen.

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20
Q

The major male androgen is?

A

Testosterone

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21
Q

What is the more potent androgen of testosterone?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

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22
Q

Local increases in dihydrotestosterone growth factors and inflammatory cytokines are the pathophysiology of which disease?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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23
Q

PSA stands for?

A

Prostate specific antigen

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24
Q

If PSA is > 4ng/ml this may indicate prostate cancer. True or false

A

True. But can only be used as a guide

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25
Q

5 a-reductase and alpha-adrenic blockers are used to treat the systems of what?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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26
Q

Regulation of blood volume, pressure and regulation of acid base and electrolyte balance are functions of what?

A

Kidneys

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27
Q

The kidneys release which hormone in response to hyperoxaemia?

A

Erythropoietin

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28
Q

Kidneys produce calcitriol what is this

A

Active form of vitamin D

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29
Q

What procedures are use for assessing renal function?

A

Urinalysis
Urine output
GFR

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30
Q

Polyuria is what.

A

Increase urine output

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31
Q

Oliguria is what?

A

Decreased urine output

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32
Q

GFR in a normal adult is what?

A

125 ml/min

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33
Q

Why are the elderly susceptible to toxic drug reactions?

A

Decreased GFR and number of nephrons are decreased

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34
Q

What is character rise by damage to glomeruli due to inflammation?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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35
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis is often associated with which infection?

A

Post streptococcal infection

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36
Q

Immune complex deposits In glomeruli filtration membrane cause?

A

Damage to glomerular capillaries
Increased permeability of capillaries
Thickening of the filtration membrane
May be damage to tubules

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37
Q

Clinical features of acute glomeronephritis include?

A

Haematuria
Proteinuria
Oedema
Hypertension

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38
Q

Acute kidney injury is characterised by

A

Sudden decrease in GFR
Increasing blood creatinine
Oligouria

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39
Q

Acute kidney injury is classed as

A

Pre-renal
Intrarenal
Poster all

40
Q

Chronic kidney disease develops as complication of.

A

Systematic diseases - diabetes mellitus

Renal diseases - glomerulonephritis

41
Q

Hey progressive and Permalock the nephron is a characteristic of which disease

A

Chronic kidney disease

42
Q

CKD is clinically divided into five stages what are they

A
  1. GFR > 90 kidney damage normal function
  2. GFR 60-89 damage with mildly decreasing function
  3. GFR 30-59 moderately decreased function
  4. GFR 15 - 29 severely decreased function
  5. GFR
43
Q

Define renal compensation

A

The kidneys are able to adapt to loss of nephrons remaining nephrons compensate for the client function main symptoms only present when 80% of nephron function is lost

44
Q

Causes and risk of chronic kidney disease include

A 
Over 50 years
Type two diabetes
Hypertension
Obesity
Smoking
Chronic glomerulonephritis and choric obstructions
45
Q

Damage to the Glomerular filtration membrane causes what in CKD?

A

Proteinuria
Increase angiotensin 2 production
Permanent damage to nephrons with no possibility of recovery
Reduce GFR

46
Q

True or false patients in stage 123 in chronic kidney disease are asymptomatic

A

True

47
Q

Patience in stage 4 to 5 with chronic kidney disease develop what clinical features?

A

Uraemia, retention of waste, including urea and creatinine, hormones, electrolytes which affects all body systems

48
Q

Why can people with chronic kidney disease develop anaemia?

A

Renal damage causes inability to detect hypoxia therefor the is a decrease in synthesis of erythropoietin

49
Q

Management of chronic kidney disease include

A 
Reduce risk factors in early 
Anti-Proteinuric and hypertensive drugs
Lipid-lowering drugs
Erythropoietin  
Dialysis or transplant
50
Q

What is a common complication of diabetes mellitus

A

Diabetic nephronpathy

51
Q

Diabetic nephropathy is characterised by

A

Decreased GFR
Hypertension
Proteinuria

52
Q

What is the most common cause of end stage renal disease

A

Diabetes

53
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy

A

Progressive damage to glomerulus and Phil Traceand membrane due to
High glucose levels
Hypertension
Proteinuria

54
Q

Poor glycaemic control hypertension Albuminuria are clinical features of what

A

Diabetic nephropathy

55
Q

Treatment for diabetic nephropathy include

A

Control blood glucose levels
Hypertensive and antiproteinuric drugs
Lifestyle changes
Restrict protein and salt

56
Q

Normal flora is present in the “…………..” urethra in males

A

Interior

57
Q

How does the body protect against urinary tract infections

A

Flashing action of urine flow
Low pH and bacterial secretions
Presence of normal Flora
Large urethra and prostatic secretions in men

58
Q

Virulence factors that the enhance UTI’s include

A

Attachment
Immune avoidance
Antibiotic resistance

59
Q

What is pyelonephritis

A

Kidney inflammation

60
Q

Vancomycin (VRE) , Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) and Methicillin- resistant Staphylacoccus aureus MRSA are what?

A

Antibiotic - resistant bacteria

61
Q

How can you diagnose UTIs

A

Biochemical tests

Microscopy

62
Q

What is the abnormal range for Neutrophils in urine

A

> 10 to the 8 cells per litre

63
Q

What is the abnormal range for RBC in urine

A

10 to the 7 cells per litre

64
Q

What would indicate a contaminated Sample of urine?

A

High number of epithelial cells
More than one type of bacteria cultured
Presence of bacteria in absence of white blood cells

65
Q

What value of microbial cells indicate UTI

A

> 10 to the 8 /L

> 10 to the 6 may indicate possible

66
Q

What does CFU stand for

A

Colony forming units

67
Q

Treatment and prevention of UTI’s include

A 
Antibiotic therapy 
Correction of flow obstruction
Good personal hygiene
Hi fluid intake
Urinary alkalinisers
68
Q

UTI’s represent 30 to 40% of all hospital-acquired infections why?

A

Catheterisation

Poor ANTT

69
Q

Risk factors for sexually transmitted disease including

A

Greater than two sexual partners asymptomatic infection of some pathogen
Use of non-barrier contraceptives
Lack of knowledge
Falya to seek medical advice and/or notify partners

70
Q

Transmission of STI’s include

A

Exchange bodily fluids

71
Q

Routes of transmission of STI’s

A

Sexual transmission

Vertical transmission

72
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis
Neissria gonorrehoeae
Treponema pallium
Are what

A

Major bacterial agents of STI’s
Clamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphliss

73
Q

What are the major viral agents of STI’s

A

HIV
HPV
HSV
Hepatitis B.C.D

74
Q

What are the notifiable STI’s

A

Clamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphillis
Hepatitis B.C.D

75
Q

What is the most common and leading notifiable STI

A

Clamydia

76
Q

D-K serotypes of chlamydia cause what symptoms?

A 
Genial and associated infections
PID symptoms (pain, abdominal bleeding, fever, dysparunia)
77
Q

A-C Chlamydia causes

A

Trachoma- may cause blindness

78
Q

L1-L3 cause

A

lymphogranuloma venereum

79
Q

Gram negative intracellular diploccoci describes which STI

A

Gonorrhoea

80
Q

True or false gonorrhoea is high in semen?

A

True

81
Q

Purulent discharge in men and viginal discharge in women is a symptom of which STI

A

Gonorrhoea

82
Q

What is PID?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

83
Q

Thin highly mobile spirochaete bacterium is what STI

A

Syphills

84
Q

Ulcer at site of infection is a characteristic of?

A

Syphilis

85
Q

What STI can cause degeneration to the CNS in later stages?

A

Syphilis

86
Q

Chronic inflammation of immune cells describes which STI

A

HIV CD4 lymphocytes antigen presenting cell

87
Q

Stage 1 of CD4 numbers are
> 500 per ul blood
200 - 500 ul blood

A

> 500 ul blood

200- 500 advancing disease

88
Q

When is GORD Diagnosed?

A

When reflux occurs 2 or more days a week

89
Q

What are the complications of GORD

A

Erosive reflux oesophageal and Barretts oesophageal

90
Q

What is Barretts oesophagus

A

Pre malignant change to mucosa

91
Q

What are the causes of GORD?

A

Hiatal hernia
Obesity
Pregnancy
Tobacco and alcohol can exacerbate symptoms

92
Q

Why is pain felt in GORD?

A

Oesophagus dose not have sufficient mucus protection from pepsin and gastric juices

93
Q

What type of drugs reduce gastric acid?

A

Histamine blockers, ranitine

94
Q

What is the main cause of a peptic ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori and long term NSAIDs

95
Q

How do NSAIDs cause peptic ulcers

A

NSAIDS inhibit COX enzyme which is responsible for mucus and bicarbonate production therefor more gastric acid and lower pH

96
Q

Female reproductive cycle is regulated by hormones from where?

A

The anterior pituitary in ovaries.

Bioscience 3 (4 decks)

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