Bio 3 exam 1 prep Flashcards
1
Q
What is menarche?
A
First menstrual period.
2
Q
What is menopause?
A
Cessation of menstruation.
3
Q
Oestrogen and progesterone stimulate the endometrium to ………….. and …………. for embryo implantation.
A
Thicken and prepare
4
Q
What hormone maintains pregnancy if fertilisation occurs?
A
Progesterone
5
Q
What is primary dysmenorrhoea?
A
Painful ministration due to excessive prostaglandin F production.
6
Q
Amenorrhoea is what.
A
The absence of menstruation.
7
Q
Abnormally heavy or prologue mentioned flow is?
A
Menorrhagia.
8
Q
The pill contains which synthetic hormones?
A
Oestrogen and progesterone.
9
Q
Which of the following must be present in polycystic ovarian syndrome to confirm diagnosis?
A
Anovulation
Increased androgens
Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts
10
Q
Clinical features of polycystic ovarian syndrome include
A
Irregular menses
Hirsutism
Acne
Obesity
11
Q
Treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome include
A
Diet and exercise program Possible antidiabetic drugs Oral contraceptives Fertility assistance Ovarian surgery
12
Q
Cervical cancer is commonly ………………. cell carcinoma.
A
Squamous
13
Q
Most cases of cervical cancer due to?
A
Human papilloma virus
14
Q
Risk factors for cervical cancer include
A
HPV infections
Multiple sexual partners
Young age are first intercourse
Male partner with multiple sex partners
15
Q
What test is used in the diagnosis of cervical cancer?
A
Pap smear
16
Q
Which vaccine is used to prevent cervical cancers cause by HPV
A
Gardasil
17
Q
True or false is nice breast cancer is our Oestrogen receptor positive
A
True
18
Q
BRAC1 and BRAC2 genes are risk factors for which cancer?
A
Breast cancer
19
Q
Tamoxifen blocks which receptors for treatment of breast cancer?
A
Oestrogen.
20
Q
The major male androgen is?
A
Testosterone
21
Q
What is the more potent androgen of testosterone?
A
Dihydrotestosterone
22
Q
Local increases in dihydrotestosterone growth factors and inflammatory cytokines are the pathophysiology of which disease?
A
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
23
Q
PSA stands for?
A
Prostate specific antigen
24
Q
If PSA is > 4ng/ml this may indicate prostate cancer. True or false
A
True. But can only be used as a guide
25
5 a-reductase and alpha-adrenic blockers are used to treat the systems of what?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
26
Regulation of blood volume, pressure and regulation of acid base and electrolyte balance are functions of what?
Kidneys
27
The kidneys release which hormone in response to hyperoxaemia?
Erythropoietin
28
Kidneys produce calcitriol what is this
Active form of vitamin D
29
What procedures are use for assessing renal function?
Urinalysis
Urine output
GFR
30
Polyuria is what.
Increase urine output
31
Oliguria is what?
Decreased urine output
32
GFR in a normal adult is what?
125 ml/min
33
Why are the elderly susceptible to toxic drug reactions?
Decreased GFR and number of nephrons are decreased
34
What is character rise by damage to glomeruli due to inflammation?
Acute glomerulonephritis
35
Acute glomerulonephritis is often associated with which infection?
Post streptococcal infection
36
Immune complex deposits In glomeruli filtration membrane cause?
Damage to glomerular capillaries
Increased permeability of capillaries
Thickening of the filtration membrane
May be damage to tubules
37
Clinical features of acute glomeronephritis include?
Haematuria
Proteinuria
Oedema
Hypertension
38
Acute kidney injury is characterised by
Sudden decrease in GFR
Increasing blood creatinine
Oligouria
39
Acute kidney injury is classed as
Pre-renal
Intrarenal
Poster all
40
Chronic kidney disease develops as complication of.
Systematic diseases - diabetes mellitus
| Renal diseases - glomerulonephritis
41
Hey progressive and Permalock the nephron is a characteristic of which disease
Chronic kidney disease
42
CKD is clinically divided into five stages what are they
1. GFR > 90 kidney damage normal function
2. GFR 60-89 damage with mildly decreasing function
3. GFR 30-59 moderately decreased function
4. GFR 15 - 29 severely decreased function
5. GFR
43
Define renal compensation
The kidneys are able to adapt to loss of nephrons remaining nephrons compensate for the client function main symptoms only present when 80% of nephron function is lost
44
Causes and risk of chronic kidney disease include
```
Over 50 years
Type two diabetes
Hypertension
Obesity
Smoking
Chronic glomerulonephritis and choric obstructions
```
45
Damage to the Glomerular filtration membrane causes what in CKD?
Proteinuria
Increase angiotensin 2 production
Permanent damage to nephrons with no possibility of recovery
Reduce GFR
46
True or false patients in stage 123 in chronic kidney disease are asymptomatic
True
47
Patience in stage 4 to 5 with chronic kidney disease develop what clinical features?
Uraemia, retention of waste, including urea and creatinine, hormones, electrolytes which affects all body systems
48
Why can people with chronic kidney disease develop anaemia?
Renal damage causes inability to detect hypoxia therefor the is a decrease in synthesis of erythropoietin
49
Management of chronic kidney disease include
```
Reduce risk factors in early
Anti-Proteinuric and hypertensive drugs
Lipid-lowering drugs
Erythropoietin
Dialysis or transplant
```
50
What is a common complication of diabetes mellitus
Diabetic nephronpathy
51
Diabetic nephropathy is characterised by
Decreased GFR
Hypertension
Proteinuria
52
What is the most common cause of end stage renal disease
Diabetes
53
What is the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy
Progressive damage to glomerulus and Phil Traceand membrane due to
High glucose levels
Hypertension
Proteinuria
54
Poor glycaemic control hypertension Albuminuria are clinical features of what
Diabetic nephropathy
55
Treatment for diabetic nephropathy include
Control blood glucose levels
Hypertensive and antiproteinuric drugs
Lifestyle changes
Restrict protein and salt
56
Normal flora is present in the ".............." urethra in males
Interior
57
How does the body protect against urinary tract infections
Flashing action of urine flow
Low pH and bacterial secretions
Presence of normal Flora
Large urethra and prostatic secretions in men
58
Virulence factors that the enhance UTI's include
Attachment
Immune avoidance
Antibiotic resistance
59
What is pyelonephritis
Kidney inflammation
60
Vancomycin (VRE) , Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) and Methicillin- resistant Staphylacoccus aureus MRSA are what?
Antibiotic - resistant bacteria
61
How can you diagnose UTIs
Biochemical tests
| Microscopy
62
What is the abnormal range for Neutrophils in urine
> 10 to the 8 cells per litre
63
What is the abnormal range for RBC in urine
10 to the 7 cells per litre
64
What would indicate a contaminated Sample of urine?
High number of epithelial cells
More than one type of bacteria cultured
Presence of bacteria in absence of white blood cells
65
What value of microbial cells indicate UTI
> 10 to the 8 /L
| > 10 to the 6 may indicate possible
66
What does CFU stand for
Colony forming units
67
Treatment and prevention of UTI's include
```
Antibiotic therapy
Correction of flow obstruction
Good personal hygiene
Hi fluid intake
Urinary alkalinisers
```
68
UTI's represent 30 to 40% of all hospital-acquired infections why?
Catheterisation
| Poor ANTT
69
Risk factors for sexually transmitted disease including
Greater than two sexual partners asymptomatic infection of some pathogen
Use of non-barrier contraceptives
Lack of knowledge
Falya to seek medical advice and/or notify partners
70
Transmission of STI's include
Exchange bodily fluids
71
Routes of transmission of STI's
Sexual transmission
| Vertical transmission
72
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neissria gonorrehoeae
Treponema pallium
Are what
Major bacterial agents of STI's
Clamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphliss
73
What are the major viral agents of STI's
HIV
HPV
HSV
Hepatitis B.C.D
74
What are the notifiable STI's
Clamydia
Gonorrhoea
Syphillis
Hepatitis B.C.D
75
What is the most common and leading notifiable STI
Clamydia
76
D-K serotypes of chlamydia cause what symptoms?
```
Genial and associated infections
PID symptoms (pain, abdominal bleeding, fever, dysparunia)
```
77
A-C Chlamydia causes
Trachoma- may cause blindness
78
L1-L3 cause
lymphogranuloma venereum
79
Gram negative intracellular diploccoci describes which STI
Gonorrhoea
80
True or false gonorrhoea is high in semen?
True
81
Purulent discharge in men and viginal discharge in women is a symptom of which STI
Gonorrhoea
82
What is PID?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
83
Thin highly mobile spirochaete bacterium is what STI
Syphills
84
Ulcer at site of infection is a characteristic of?
Syphilis
85
What STI can cause degeneration to the CNS in later stages?
Syphilis
86
Chronic inflammation of immune cells describes which STI
HIV CD4 lymphocytes antigen presenting cell
87
Stage 1 of CD4 numbers are
> 500 per ul blood
200 - 500 ul blood
> 500 ul blood
| 200- 500 advancing disease
88
When is GORD Diagnosed?
When reflux occurs 2 or more days a week
89
What are the complications of GORD
Erosive reflux oesophageal and Barretts oesophageal
90
What is Barretts oesophagus
Pre malignant change to mucosa
91
What are the causes of GORD?
Hiatal hernia
Obesity
Pregnancy
Tobacco and alcohol can exacerbate symptoms
92
Why is pain felt in GORD?
Oesophagus dose not have sufficient mucus protection from pepsin and gastric juices
93
What type of drugs reduce gastric acid?
Histamine blockers, ranitine
94
What is the main cause of a peptic ulcer?
Helicobacter pylori and long term NSAIDs
95
How do NSAIDs cause peptic ulcers
NSAIDS inhibit COX enzyme which is responsible for mucus and bicarbonate production therefor more gastric acid and lower pH
96
Female reproductive cycle is regulated by hormones from where?
The anterior pituitary in ovaries.
