BIO Flashcards
Saturated Fatty Acids prefer use when?
-Storage
-When Temp Rises
Packs closer together
Unsaturated Fatty Acids prefer use when?
-NRG Production
-When Temp Decreases
Packs further apart
6 Types of Lipids
1)Triacylglycerols
2)Fatty Acids
3)Phospholipids
4)Glycolipids
5)Steroids
6)Terpenes
Sphinogolipid
When glycerol backbone in phospholipids has N at C2 position (SN2)
Glycolipids versus Phospholipids
Polar head group in phospholipids is a sugar in glycolipids
R/S Configuration of AA
S except Cysteine is R
T or F R groups involved in secondary structure
False, just H bonding
A disulfied bond is considered how many cysteines
1, even though 2
Heat as a denature agent?
Disrupts all forces
Salt and pH as denaturing agents?
Disrupt ion interactions (Na+ + Cl-, H+)
Organic solvents (C+H) as denaturing agents?
Disrupt hydrophobic interactions
Urea as denaturing agents?
Distrupts H-Bond, denature DNA=RNA
B-mercaptoethanol as a denaturing agent?
Distrupts di-sulfide bonds (reducing gels from proteins in lab)
2 Types of protein classes?
Structural and Gobular
Glycoprotiens
Proteins with some carbphydrateses in membrane
Proteoglycans
Greater than 50% carbs on protein in ECM
Cytochromes
Proteins with prosthetic heme groups –> Covalently attached in ETC
D for Carbs
OH on last chiral carbon is on the R (C6 (CH2OH) on top)
alpha carb ring
opposite side OH
L for Carbs
OH on last chiral carbon is on the L (C6 (CH2OH) on bottom)
beta carb ring
same side OH
Glycogen Branched 1-4
Connect horizontal
Glycogen Branched 1-6
Connect Verticle
Glycogen linkages
Alpha linkages with branching
Starch linkages
Alpha linkages with minimal branching
Amylopectin =branching
Amylose = no branching
Cellulose linkages
Beta Linkages with no branching
Two forms of starch
Amylose and Amylopectin
Amylose = No branching
Amylopectin = Branching
Does positive delta G favour products or reactants?
Reactants
Does neg. delta G favour products or reactants?
Products
Fat soluble vitamins
ADEK
What is transition state?
Highest nrg state intermediate not substrate or product
Water soluble vitamins
B-Vit, C- Vit, Folate
2 Types of CoFactors
1)Organic (Vit)
2)Inorganic (Min)
Prosthetic Group
Coenzyme covalently bound to the enzyme
Holoenzyme
Active enzyme with bound co-enzyme
Apoenzyme
protein part of enzyme
High Km means high or low affinity
Low affinity creates substrate
Competitive Inhibitor
Enzyme Active Site
Inhibits substrate binding
Increase Km
No Change Vmax
Uncompetitive Inhibitor
E-S complex
DOESN”T Inhibits substrate binding
Decrease Km
Decrease Vmax
Mixed Inhibitor
E-S complex or Enzyme
DOESN”T Inhibits substrate binding
Decrease/Increase Km
Decrease Vmax
Noncompetitive Inhibitor
E-S complex or Enzyme
DOESN”T Inhibits substrate binding
No Change Km
Decrease Vmax
Proteolytic Cleavage
Inactive enzymes are irreversibly activated by proteolytic cleave
Reversible Covalent Modification
Enzyme activation often via a modifier
Control Protiens
Control protiens or portein subunits associate with ezmes to active or inactivate activity
Enzyme Regulation x4
-Proteolytic Cleavage
-Reversible Covalent Modification
-Control Proteins
-Allosteric Interactions
Oxidoreductases
Catalyzes transfer of electrons
Hydrolases
Hyrdolyzes Bond
Lysase
Breaks and forms new bonds
Transferases
Transfers functional groups
Isomerases
Switches configuration of molecule to isomer
Ligases/Synthetases
Join molecules together using ATP
Kinases
Phosphorylation of target
Phosphatase
Dephosphorylation of target
3 Irreversible Steps of Glycolysis
1: Glucose to G6P (Hexokinase)
3: F6P to F 1,6, Bisphosphate (PFK)
ATP Used ^^
9: Phosphoenolypyruvate to Pyruvate (Pyruvate Kinase) (ATP Create)
Net Equation Glycolysis
1 Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2ADP + 2Pi
=
2pyruvate + 2NADH + 2H + 2ATP +2H2O
Rxn to create NADH in Glycolysis
Glyceraldehyde 3 -Phosphate (2 Molecules) –> 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
Via Glyceraldehyde 3 -Phosphate dehydrogenase
2 Energy Generating Steps of Glycolysis
5: 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate –> 3-Phosphoglycerate
(Via Phosphoglycerate Kinase)
9: Phosphoenolyruvate –> Pyruvate
(Via Pyruvate Kinase)
2 Energy using Steps of Glycolysis
1: Glucose to G6P (Hexokinase)
3: F6P to F 1,6, Bisphosphate (PFK)
Where does glycolysis occur
cytoplasm
Where does krebs cycle occur
Mitochondria Matrix
Wher does ETC occur
Mitochondria inner membrane
What does the _____ rxn from pyruvate to acetyl-coA produce
Oxidation Reaction (oxidizing carbon is the release of O2)
CO2
NADH
Net result of TCA Cycle
per 2 Pyruvate (1 Glucose)
2ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH2 +4 CO2 as Biproduct
Substrates of TCA Cycle
Oxaloacetate
Citrate
Isocitrate
A-Ketogluterate
Succinyl-CoA
Succinate
Fumarate
Malate
Where complex does NADH come in ETC
1
Where complex does FADH come in ETC
2
How many NADH pump and ATP create
Pumps 10 H+ into intermembrane space
Makes 3 ATP
How many FADH pump and ATP create
Pumps 6 H+ into intermembrane space
Makes 2 ATP
True or False Q Enzyme is a Protien Enzyme
False Lipid
NADH or FADH is a better reducer?
NADH, FADH holds onto its E more
How many does H+ take to produce ATP via ATP Synthase?
3 H+ = 1ATP
1 NADH = ___ ATP
3
Except in glycolysis only 2 from transport of NADH from cytosol to mito
1 FADH = ___ ATP
2
ATP produced Glycolysis total
6 ATP
2 NADH x 2= 4 ATP
2 ATP on own
ATP produced pyruvate oxidation
6 ATP
2 NADH x 3= 6 ATP
ATP produce Krebs Cycle
24 ATP
2 GTP = 2 ATP
6 NADH x 3 =18 ATP
2 FADH x2 = 4 ATP
Why is fermentation used?
Hypoxic condition regenerates NAD+ from reducing pyruvate to lactic acid.
In hypoxic conditions, ATP can still be produced in glycolysis, but NAD+ is quickly depleted
Total ATP produced from 1 Glucose molecule (2 turns krebs cycle)
36 ATP
How does pyruvate produce NAD+
Pyruvate is reduced to Lactic Acid
Pyruvate Carbon is reduced
NADH is oxidized
What is created via the PPP
2 NADPH = Fat Synthesis
5 Carbon Sugars Ribose
Products that can be used in glycolysis
What does the first branch of PPP
Oxidative Branch
NADPH + CO2
Main regulator via feedback inhibition
Ends with Ribulose-5-Phosphate
What does the second branch of PPP
Non-Oxidative Branch
5 Carbon Sugars –> Ribose for creating nucelotides
What are the two options of the PPP
1: Create Ribose 5 Phosphate for NUCLEOTIDES
Oxidative and Non-Oxidatve
2: Glycolysis intermediates:
Oxidative –> Non Oxidative to create G-3-P and F-6-P from ribose 5 phopshate
What is the NADPH used for in PPP?
Fats Synthesis
Acetyl CoA can be used for?
ATP and Fat Synthesis
Where does PPP occur
Cytosol
Where does Gluconeogensis occur
Cytosol
What is required to be a substrate for gluconeogensis?
3-Carbon Structure
Glycolysis/KREBS Intermediate’s
Lactate, Glycerol, Certain AA
NOT Fatty Acid (Cuz made into acetyle Co-A)
What cannot be used as a substrate for gluconeogensis?
NOT Fatty Acid (Cuz made into acetyl Co-A, via B-Oxidation)
What is the exception to fatty acids being used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis?
Odd chain Fatty acids can be used, last 3 carbons can be used for gluconeogensis
(Rest is used for B-Ox for acteyl CoA)
What is Beta Oxidation
Fatty Acid Breakdown to acetyl CoA
Occurs in Mitochondria
Beta Oxidation Equation
Step 1:
Fatty Acid + CoA + ATP
=
Acyl CoA +ADP + Pi
Step 2:
ACYL (Carbon) Chain- CoA + FAD + NAD+ +CoA
=
ACYL (Carbon) Chain- CoA (-2 Carbons/OG CoA) + Acetyl CoA (Krebs or Ketones) + NADH +FADH2 (ETC)
Acyl (Carbon) Chain goes until chain is depleted
Fatty acid synthesis occurs in
Cytosol
Fatty Acid Synthesis Equation
2 Acetyl CoA (glycolysis) + ATP + NADPH (PPP)
(Oxidizing Acetyl CoA)
=
4-C Acyl CoA + CoA +2 NADP + ADP + PI
4-Carbon Acyl continues back by adding 2 more actyl CoA from glycolysis
What is the default Fatty Acid Synthesis Created
16 Fatty Acid
Palmitate
Beta- Oxidation occurs how many carbons at a time
2
When does Ketogenesis occur?
When in a starved state, fatty acids into acetyl CoA.
Absence of insulin (low blood sugar levels), Acetyl CoA converted into Ketones. in Mitochodnira
Ketones can travel on own in blood stream to specific tissues which then absorb it and convert it back to acetyl CoA, then ATP via CAC
T or F Ketone Bodies can be used for gluconeogensis
False
Where does ketogensis occur
Mitochondria
When does Protein Anabolism Occur x3
Fed States
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipid Storage
When does Protein Catabolism Occur x4
Fasting State/UNFED
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolyisis
Beta-Oxidation
Ketogenesis
Rate Limiting Enzyme of Glycolysis
Phosphofructosekinase-1
Rate Limiting Enzyme Fermentation
Lactate Dehydrogenase
Rate Limiting Enzyme Glycogenisis
Glycogen Synthase
Rate Limiting Enzyme Glycogenolysis
Glycogen Phosphorylase
Rate Limiting Enzyme Gluconeogenesis
Fructose 1-6 Bisphosphate
Rate Limiting Enzyme PPP
G-6-P Dehydrogenase
Which steps of CAA produce energy carrying products?
Isocitrate ==> A-Keto (NADH)
A-Keto –> Succinyl CoA (NADH)
Succinyl CoA –> Succinate (GTP)
Succinate –> Fumerate (FADH2)
Malate –> Oxaloacetate (NADH2)
What is the greatest e-acceptor in ETC?
Oxygen, last and therefore takes the most
Gluconeogenesis and Glyogenesis share what enzyme
G-6-Phosphotase
What are the 3 substrates for gluconeogenesis?
Lactate
Glycerol
Certain AA (Glycolysis and Krebs Cycle Intermediates)
Fatty Acids with last 3 Carbons, No Ketones
What 3 things is the plasma membrane made of?
- 50% protein
- 48% Lipids
- 2% Cells
Smooth ER x4
Synthesis of Lipids and Sterioids
Carb Metabolism
Detox of Drugs
Ca2+ Regulation
Lysosomes are best in what evnviroment?
Acidic
Peroxisome x2
Lipid and Protein Storage
DETOX ROS (Reactive Oxidative Species)
T or F all cells have same chemical composition
T
T or F Energy flow occurs within cells
T
4 Eukaryotic Organsims
- Protista
2.Fungi
3.Plantae
4.Animalia
What are the 3 things that eukaryotic cells have that prokaryotic don’t
1.Membrane Bond Organelles
2.Histones
3.RNA Processing
What is the difference in ribosomes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Smaller, 30s,50s,70s (ODD)
E: Larger, 40s,60s,80s, (EVEN)
What is the difference in cell wall between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Made of Peptidoglycan
E: IF CW:
- Insects and FUNGI: CHITIM
-Plants: Cellulose
What is the difference in flagella between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Made of Flagellin and Spin
E: Made of Microtubules and Swish
What is the difference in divison between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Binary Fission
E: Mitosis
What is the difference in Genome between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Circular Chromo
E: Liner Chromo
T or F DNA can leave nucleus
False, transcription occurs in nucleus and leaves as RNA
What time of enzyme rxn occurs in lysomes
Hydrolytic Enzymes
The RER first targets proteins for what organelle
Golgi, transmembrane proteins
ALL proteins are tagged to be brought from RER to Golgi via ER lumen
Golgi then sends them to final destinanctin
Proteins that are made for the cytosal are made/translated where?
In cytosol, free ribosome
All other are RER (exported from cell or are sequestered in a vesicle)
Golgi Processes what 2 things?
Proteins and Lipids
Do all cells have the same amounts of organelles
NO, cells that require more energy will have more mito, cells that require more secretion have more RER and golgi
depends on their use
What are the 3 structures of the cytoskeleton (support and movement)?
- Microfilments
2.Intermediate Filaments
3.Microtubules
Role of the Microfilaments/ACTIN?
Cell Shape/Support
-Muscle Contraction and Cytokinisis
Role of Intermediate Filaments?
Maintain Cell Shape ( STRONGER than Actin)
-Vimentins, Keratin, Lamin
Role of Mictrotublues
Intracellular Transport (highways of cells(
-Mitotic Spindles and Cilia,Flagella
Where do microtublues start
MTOC and extend from positive end
What are alpha and beta tubule dimers bound to
GTP
-B can hydrolyzes the GTP to signal the breakdown of the microtubule
How many microtubules are in a single arrangement?
13 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) (A)
How many microtubules are in a double arrangement?
23 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP)
13 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP) (A)
11 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP)( B)
9+2 Arrangement of a microtubules (9 bound doublettes and 2 singlettes) in a structure
How many microtubules are in a triple arrangement?
33 protofilimaners (a+b tubule bound to GTP)
13(a), 11(b), 11(c)
9+1 Arrangement of a microtubules (9 bound trippletes and 1 singlette) in a structure
When the Mircotubule depolarmizes what happens with concern to GTP?
GTP quickly hydrolyzies but a GTP tubulin cap at + end of growing tubule prevents spont. depolyermization (DURING BUILDING OF MT)
When depolrymized the hydroylisis of GTP catches up to the + end and the enture structure collapses
CATASTROPHE
Cilia and Fagella are composed of
AXONEME, MT Doublettes (9+2 formation of MT (doublettes and singles)
Doublettes held together by dynein, which causes movement
what does it mean for the lipid bilayer to be assymetric?
Phospholipids and protein compositions on the outside and inside of bilayer are structurally and functionally different
Sphingolipids are different from phospholipids how?
SN2 of glycerol has N attached
Have a sphingosine group and a fatty acid group instead of 2 fatty acids
Important in mylein
What does cholesterol do in the plasma membrane?
Modulates the fluidity of the membrane
-Good @ Hot /High Temp: fills gaps, slows down movement of other membrane components, therefore decreasing membrane fluidity
-COUNTERACTS: good bc MF increases with temp.
-Good @ Cold/Low Temp: spaces our lipids so they cannot constrict as tightly
-COUNTERACTS: Decreases intermolecular force to increase fluidity, cuz with cold fluidity decreases
How are miscelles and membrane different even tho both made of phosplipids
Membranes must be actively assembled as they are less thermo stable, compared to miscless which are most stable and form spont.
Hydrophobic or Hydrophilic Molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer?
Hydrophobic because interior
The overall diffusion of a molecule across a membrane is determined by
Electrochemical gradient
-Chemical Gradient: Concentration (high to low)
-Electrical Gradient: Movement in the direction of the + charged ion would go
Proteins that transverse the membrane are called?
Integral Protein (amphipathic)
Proteins associated with integral membrane proteins on the membrane surface are known as?
Peripheral or Extrinsic Proteins
Types of Peripheral or Extrinsic Proteins x6
-Selective Transport Channel
-Enzyme
-Cell Surface Receptor
-Cell Surface Identify Marker
-Cell Adhesion
-Attachment to the cytoskeleton
Phagocytosis vs. Pinocytosis
Phagocytosis = Large Random Transport
Pinocytosis = Small Random Transport
Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis
Selective endocytosis
-LDL in cytosol
-LDL receptors on plasma
-Straight to lysomes
(Bring into cell -> Endosome -> Lysosome)
What are the 3 types of junctions that connect animal cells?
- Tight JXN
2.Desmosomes
3.Gap Jxn
What does exocytosis use?
It uses secretory vesicles produced by Golgi and release the extracellular fluid of to membrane if transmembrane domain
Transcellular Path v. Para Cellular Path?
trans= cross membranes (through 1 cells)
Para = btwn cells
Tight Jxn
Form a water tight seal btwn cells that prevents passage of molecules in btw cells
Desmosomes
-Join two cells at a single pt and attach directly to the cytoskeleton of each cell
-Hold cells together but do not prevent fluid from circulating the sides
-Tension resistance to a layer of cells.
Gap Jxn
CRUCIAL FOR CELL-TO-CELL COMMUNICATION
-Small tunnels connecting cells that allow molecules and ions to move btwn them
-Gap jxn in cardiac muscle allows for the spread of action potential
When will osmosis stop
when it reaches dynamic equilibrium, when osmotic pressure is equal to hydrostatic pressure
Osmosis causes water to move from
Low solute to high solute
High water to low water
Cross a semipermeable membrane
Tonicity
Solute Concentration
Isotonic
Same concentration to enviro
Hypertonic
More highly concentrated compared to enviro
Hypotonic
Less highly concentrated compared to enviro
Simple Diffusion vs. Faciltated Diffusuin
Simple: Just passes thru membrane
-Increases linear as it does not depend on anything
Facilitated: Exponential and then level out
-Fast @ Start (low concentration)
-Saturated = Max speed
(relies on amount of transporters)
FOR BOTH NO NRG IS USED
Active Transport
Requires energy to pass (the process is going against electrochemical gradient (unnatural))
Gradients created
Primary Active Transport
Hydrolysis of ATP takes places directly in order to transport the solute in question
Sodium Potassium Pump is and proccess and net equation
Form of Primary Active Transport
3 Na out
3K in
1ATP
- Binding of cytoplasm (inside the cell) Na+ to pump triggers phosphorylation by ATP
- Phosphorylation causes conformation change in protein
- The conformation change expels Na+ to outside and extacellular K+ binds
4.K+ binding triggers the release of phosphate (that came from ATP)
5.Lossof phosphate restores OG conformation
- K+ is released and Na sites active again
What is secondary active transport
No direct coupling of ATP (established first step)
Step 1: Establish gradient with active transport (H+ gradient)
Step 2: Use H_ gradient to move 2nd substance (desired) into cell
What is the Extra Cellular Matrix (ECM)
Extracellular part of animal tissue that provides structural support to cells (LOCATED BTWN CELLS)
Contains: STICK CELLS TOGETER
-proteoglycans
-structural proteins
-adhesive proteins
4 basic types of tissues?
- Neuro
2.Connective
3.Muscle - Epitheilal
Working together of cells heirachy x5
1.CELLS
2.TISSUE
3.ORGANS
4.SYSTEMS
5.ORGANSISM
Endosymbiosis theory
Bacteria (aerobic) are eaten by Archea (anaerobic) and have a symbiotic relationship over formed eukaryotic cells.
Bacteria live inside hosts (
What are the 3 parts of a virus
- Genetic Material (DNA/RNA, SS/DS)
- Capsid (Protein Coat)
- Envelop (Optional, old host membrane to blend in)
What are the subviral particles x2
Viroids (naked RNA/plants) and Prions (naked proteins)
What are bacteriophages
virus that infects bacteria
How to most virus capsids enter cell
Receptor-mediated enocytosis
What do retrovirus contain
RNA and Reverse Transcriptase
How do retrovirus work
- Enter cell via fusion
- Reverse Transcription to convert Viral RNA to DNA
- Viral DNA enters the hosts gene and is integrated (cannot tell btwn cell OG and Viral DNA now)
- Transcription, Translation using cells to make more retrovirus
5.Ritrovirus released by budding
HIV is what type of virus
Retrovirus
What do antiviral do?
Target steps of retrovirus before integration
Lytic Cycle: What and what types of virus
Replication cycle
Symptomatic
Active cycle replication
Virulant Virus
STRESS go somewhere else
Lysogenic Cycle/ Provirus: What and what types of virus
Replication cycle
No Symptoms
Integrated into genome
Temperate virus
How are organisms classified interms of how they aquire carbon and energy
Prefix:
-Photo: NRG from Light
-Chemo: NRG form inorganic matter
Suffix:
-Autotroph: Make own carbon source
-Heterotroph: Eat.Consume carbon from other organism
2 Domains of Prokaryotes
1.Bacteria
2.Archea
3 distinct of archaea?
1.No cell Nucleus
2.No Organelles
3.Extreme Habitat
Bacteria are only anaerobic
False, they are both aerobic and anaerobic
What are plasmids
In bacteria, small extra-chromo DNA molecules hat may contain genes for antibiotic resistance or virulence factors
-Replicate independant
-Gain or Lost over tie
-Passed to next gene
what does DNA look like in bacteria
SINGLE, CIRCULAR, CHROMOSOME of DOUBLE STRANDED DNA
True or False Bacteria have membrane bound organelles
False,
Nuc, Mito, Golgi, ER
two “membranes” of bacteria
- Membrane and everything inside = Protoplast
- Cell wall and Capsule = Envelope
Cell wall is required or else protoplast would burst
The cytosol of the bacteria is _____ to the enviro and results in?
HYPERTONIC
-Water flows until hydrostatic pressure = osmotic pressure
-Pressure against container = draw into container cuz of solute
Therefore cell wall is needed or else protoplast would burts
Neg. Gram Stain
Pink
Thin Cell Wall
Small Petidoglycan between 2 cell membranes
Pos. Gram Stain
Purple
Thick Cell Wall
Lots peptidoglycan outside cell
Bacteria Growth is what type
Exponential, so doubles each phase
10–>20 –> 40 –> 80–> 160
Each organism produces two daughters
3 types of Bacteria recombination?
- Conjugation: Me and Zebra
- Transformations: Me and dead road kill
- Transduction: I get COVID, I infect grace, grace gets covid + paige DNA
Conjugation
Bacteria “Sex”
Bacteria join via bridge and transfer
F Plasmid is required (Sex Pili)
F+ = Donor
F-= Acceptor
Single-stranded DNA transfered and the F Plasmid is Nicked
The both bacteria cells synthesisze complemenrary strand to produce doubele stranded circular plasmid and new pili as both are donors
Transformation
Picked up “naked” DNA from enviro
LAB PICK UP
Transduction
Virus “accidentally” takes some host genome in provirus (come out of genome to enter lytic cyle) next infected cells gets some old host cell DNA
4 Phases of Bacteria Growth
1.Lag
2.Exponetial
3.Stationary
4.Death
What is a episome
when a F plasmid from conugation is intergated into the main bacterial chromosome
T or F R-Plasmids can conjugate
True but have different types of antibiotic resistance to their recipient cells (acceptors)
R= Resistance
What are transposons
Transposable Elements
-In P and E
-Genetic elements that can jump around by inserting and deleting themselves from the genome
-TF: Create or Reverse Mutations
Regulated by transponsases
IS Elements
Transposase gene flanked by inverted repeated sequences
Complex Transposons
Contains the transposes gene followed by REGULATORY GENES
Again the transposons flanked by inverted repeats
Composite Transposons
Two Transposase Sequences with a central region btwn them
Inverted repeats flank sequence
The transponses scar is how many BP repeats
two
How is regulation different between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
P: Changes due to environment (nutrient availability)
E: Changes due to Homeostasis (Cell)
What is a operan
A single promotor to multiple genes
-Region of DNA codes for:
-Promotor, Operator, Genes
What does a operator do?
Prevent gene expression of operon (genes) when repressor-bound
-Negative Feedback Regulation (from repressor)
DEFAULT IS NO EXPRESSION
Process of Prokaryotic Regulation
WHEN NO LACTOSE PRESENT:
Repressor (lac1) made and binds to operator PREVENTING the RNA polymerase/operon from transcribing lac proteins
(High Glucose, 0 Lactose)
(Low Glucose, 0 Lactose)
WHEN LACTOSE PRESENT: (No glucose)
Repressor (lac1) made and binds to lactose, ALLOWING the RNA polymerase to transcribe/operan activated and lac proteins made
(High Glucose, High Lactose)
(Low Glucose, High Lactose –> CAMP)
Positive Control of Lac Operator
Occurs due to LACK of GLUCOSE:
-Need more lactose,
-Low glucose = High cAMP binds to CAP
-CAP activates operan promoter
-Proteins Made
(Low Glucose, High Lactose –> CAMP)
If the carbon 2 (bottom right carbon) on ribose (5c) sugar in DNA is H it is DNA or RNA
DNA
If the carbon 2 (bottom right carbon) on ribose (5c) sugar in DNA is OH it is DNA or RNA
RNA
Purines
A and G
Double ring bases
Pyrimidines
T and C
Single Ringed Bases
Differences between purines
A has no oxygen
G has Oxygen
Differences between pyimidines
T has 3 branches (2 O2)
C has 2 Branches (1 O2)
Nuceloside vs Nucleotide
Nucleoside is Nitrogenous base + ribose sugar
Nucleotide is addition of phosphate group
How are nucleotides attached
Phophodiester bond (covalent bond between two nucleotides)
Dehydration reaction between the OH attached to the 3’ C of deoxyribose sugar, and the phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon sugar of the next
(The new nucleotide uses it 5’ PO4 to attached to previous nucleotides 3’ C) HAPPENS 5’ to 3’
How many H Bond bewteen T-A
2
How many H bond between G-C
3
What two forces stabilize double helix
Hydrogen Bonds
Base Stacking (Hydrophobic)
What does it mean that DNA is replicated in a semi-conservative fashion?
Each replicatant/daughter contains a strand from parent
Replication in both prok and euk is unidirectional or bidirectional
Bidirectional meaning that from replication bubble there are two replication forks leaving each orgin
What regulates replication?
Replisome
Attaches to orgin of replication and seperates the two DNA strands and form a replication bubble contain two replication forks
Orgin of Replication EUK versus PROK
Multiple Orgins vs Single Orgin
Step 1 Replication
Open Helix Via DNA Helicase
Step 2 Replication
Hold Helix Open via Single Stranded Binding Protiens
Step 3 Replication
Add Primer via RNA Primase
Step 4 Replication
Extend DNA off Primer via DNA polymerase 3
Step 5 Replication
Remove Primer via DNA Polymerase 1 (Fills DNA)
(in EUK primers removed via RNASE h)
Ozarki Fragements
Step 6 Replication
Seal Strands via DNA Ligase
Which enzyme catalyzes DNA Replication and PROOFREEDS
DNA Polymerase
DNA polymerase can only add NTD if
there is a existing 3’OH
Leading Strand attaches to which antiparallel strand
The 5’ -3’ antiparallel strand from start
Works with up with fork
Lagging Strand with Okazi Fragemnet attaches to which antiparallel strand
The 3’-5’ antiparallel strand from start
Works down the fork
3 Roles of DNA Polymerase
Assembles Leading and Lagging Strands
Removes primer in Prokaryotes
Proofreads
What does RNAse H do?
Remove primers in eukaryotes
How are telomeres lengthened different?
Ntd lengthened by telomerase instead of DNA Polymerase
4 Ways RNA is different than DNA
1)Contains 2 OH on Sugar
2)Single Stranded
3)Contains Uracil and Not Thymine (pairs with A)
4)RNA can leave nucleus
What 2 RNA’s regulate gene expression?
1)Small Interferring RNA (siRNA)
2)Micro RNA (miRNA)
What is the difference between mRNA and primary RNA
Primary RNA is the product of transcription (immature single strand of mRNA)
mRNA primary transcript is processed to encode a chemical blueprint used in translation (carries info used in translation)
How is transcription regulated
1)Transcription Factors
2)upstream/downstream gene regukatory sequences
What is the main regulatory point in gene expression
Transcription
What is the TATA box
The promoter that initiation factors of transcription find and assemble transcription initation complex
What unzips DNA is transcription
RNA polymerase to create TRANSCRIPTION BUBBLE
Transcription is unidirectional or bidirectional
Unidirectional and continuous
What has higher and faster proof reading, transcription or DNA replication
DNA replication
Transription uses one or two templates
1
T or F primers are used in transcription
F
What are the 3 post-transcriptional modifications that occur inside the nuceleus
1)5’ Cap
2)Poly(A) Tail
3)Splicing
What is the use of the 5’Methyl Guanine Cap
Added to the 5’ End of Transcript
Attachment site for protein synthesis and protection from transcript degradation by exonucleases
What is the Poly A Tail
3’ End of transcript
String of Adenine nucleotides protecting the 3’ end of transcript from degradation
What is spicing
Introns are cleaved out, and exons are spliced together: PRIMARY TRANSCRIPTION.
What enzyme is for splicing
snRNPs
What are the 3 traits of the genetic code?
1)Unambiguous
-one 3 nucleotide sequence read 5’-3’ on the mRNA strand codes for a specific AA
2)Degenerative
-One AA may have more the one 3 nucleotide sequence
3)Universal
-Nearly every living organism uses the same genetic code
3 Stop Codons
UAA: You Are Annoying (Stop)
UAG: You Are Gone (Stop)
UGA: You Go Away (Stop)
1 Start Codons
AUG, or MET for AA
Are U Going (START)
What is the Sedimentation Coefficent
Ribosome consisting of both the large and small subunits
Sedimentation Coefficient Prok
30s +50s = 70s
Sedimentation Coefficient Euk
40s + 60s = 80s
What are the 3 sites for translation
A: approach
P: Polymerization
E; Exit
The MET in translation starts at what site in translation
P
Translation is made in what direction
5’->3’
N->C
What is a peptide
A small non fxn protein that is made in during the process of translation before protien is finished (transaltion is finished)
Why is there no proofreading in translation
There is virtually no proofreading once the translation is underway because hydrolyzing (removing) an incorrect AA would release the peptide from the ribosome.
What happens when a stop codon is met in translation (reaches A site)
Release factor bind
(No associated tRNA)
Difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes translation
Prokaryotes: Completes Transcription + Translation same time in cytoplasm
Eukaryotes: Completes transcription and translation at different times, translation in cytoplasm
How does the translation of Membrane-Bound Proteins work?
- Polypeptide Sequence begins with a free-floating ribosome
- The first 20 AA form a signal protein recognized by the SRP
- SRP bounds and translation temp stops
- SRP carries ribo complex to SRP receptor protien in RER
- Translation resume inside RER lumen
- Signal protein is removed by cleaving that area of protein
- Protein goes under post translation modification in RER
- Protien Transported to final target
What are 3 examples of post-translational modifications
- Folding aided by chaperon proteins
- Addition of sugar residues
- Additions of lipids and phosphate groups
What happens if post-translational control takes a while or decides proteins are not done and we need protien?
Post-translational control have inactive proteins on the READY which can be activated by cleavage phosphorylation
Pt mutations only matter if in what region?
Coding
Missense Point Mutation
The change causes the codon to code for a different AA (may or may not impact the overall function)
Nonsense Point Mutation
The change causes the codon to code for a stop codon (resulting in truncated, usually non-fxn protien)
What are Frameshift Mutations
Deletion and Insertion of nucleotides in multiples of 3
Alter the reading frame of the eventual coding region
Insertion mutations only affect the protein sequence if they are not in multiples of ___
Multiples of 3 will not change = non-frameshift mutations.
Forward mutations to a already mutated gene will
Move it even further from original state (wild type)
Backward mutations to already mutated gene
Move it back/revert towards orginal state (wild type)
T or F mutations can be desriable
True
may increase fitness of a organism by promoting desirable traits
Large scale mutations are how big and occur where?
greater than 1000bp
Occur at the chromosome level
What happens if DNA Repair fails?
Cell Apoptosis
When is proofreading capability is at the lowest?
Transcription and Translation
What is Cancer the result of?
Unrestrained and Uncontrolled growth of cells due to accumulation of mutation.
What are the 3 things that can contribute to cancer?
1) Gain of Fxn Mutation (Oncogens via Carcinogens, unstopped cell growth, just keeps going)
2)Loss of Fxn mutatuon (Loss of tumor supressor gene fxn, loss of stop growth capabaility)
3)ROS (reactive oxygen species)
What is the hierarchy of the DNA/Protein complex of chromatin? x5
- Histones
2.Nucleosome
3.Solenoids
4.Supercoils - Chromatin
What does chromatin attach to form chromosomes
Scaffold Proteins
What are the 2 regions of the human chromosomes?
Telomere Region: repeating regions of DNA Sequences which protect the ends of each chromosome
Centromere Region: Pt of mitotic spindle attachment during meiosis and mitosis
How many chromosomes do humans have, and what is their shape?
23 pairs of homologs (similar but not identical chromosomes), 46 chromosomes total
92 Chromatid
Linear
Euchromatin
Contains expressed regions of chromatin and is loosly packadged
Heterochromatin
Contains tightly packaged non expressed regions of chromatin
Epigentics
Changes that are made around the genome that do not alter the actual nucleotide sequence
-Controls chromatin coiling and uncoiling to regulate which DNA sequences are transcribed
3 Common epigenetic changes
1)Histone Modification
-Acetylation, Methylation, Phosphorylation
2)DNA Methylation
2 phases of cell cycle
Mitosis
Interphase: G1, S and G2
Go
Cell arrest cycle
Most differienated cells enter here
G1
Most of time cell is here (or Go)
Normal Cell Acitivity
S
DNA replication
G2
Normal Cell Activity but double DNA
Checks in replication
Pt of Mitosis
Separate sister chromatids (from replication) into 2 genetically identical daughter cells
Prophase x3
1.Condensation of chromatin
2.Formation of spindle apparatus
3. Nuclear Envelope Disintegrates
Metaphase
Lining up of Chromosomes
Anaphase x2
Disjunction and start of cytokinesis
Telophase x4
Nuclear envelop reforms
Cytokinesis Cont
Chromosomes condense
Two diploid cells produced
Diploid = Homologous T or F
T
There are 46 chromosomes before and 46 chromosome after replication
How are autosomal chromosomes organized and labels?
1-22(#)
Largest to Smallest
What triggers epigenetic changes in Chromatin
incRNA: long noncoding DNA
If given coding strand how to transribe to RNA
Keep strand the same switch A to U
If giving template strand how to transcribe to RNA
Transcribe as normal (all and A to U)
How many chromosomes in haploid (gametes)
23
How many chromosomes are in diploid germ cells?
46 (23 pairs)
When does crossing over occur?
Prophase 1
Forms the Synaptonemal Complex
Tetrads (2 Chromosomes) Cross Over
What is a Haplotype
A set of alleles or regions of DNA that are inherited together.
In anaphase 1 what are seperated
Tetrades, the two homologous chromosomes split
SO, Both chromosomes split, but the chromatid stay together.
When does the law of independent assortment occur?
Metaphase 1
3 Ways Eukaryotes increase genetic diversity?
1)Crossing over in prophase 1
2)Random assortment in metaphase 1
3)2 Gametes fertilized to produce a unique diploid zygote.
What is nondisjunction
Failure of chromosome pairs to separate at anaphase one or sister chromatid to separate at anaphase 2
Results in imbalance of chromosomes, aneuploid
Monosomy
Loss of a single chromosome in zygote (45) . Most not viable in nature.
2n-1
Trisomy
Addition of a single chromosome in the zygote (47)
2n+1
Turner Syndrome
Monosomy of the sex chromosomes (genetically female)
Klinefelters Syndrome
Trisomy of the sex chromosomes (XXY: total of 47 chromosomes)
Male
Extra X is a bar body
When is nondisjunction the most impactful
Embryogenesis (mitosis)
Offspring cells are affected which multiple to form a body, all cells will have the issue
What are alleles
Versions of specific genes
Gene for colour in eyes: alleles are the different colours
The best test offsprings have these qualifications x4
1)Small
2)Easy to look after
3)Short Generation time
4)Lots of offspring
Mendalian Ratio is
3:1
What is a Test Cross (back cross)
Testing for if a dominant trait is it homozygous or heterozygous for the trait
How do test crosses work
Breading the individual at question with a homozygous recessive person
If a homozygous recessive trait appears in offspring, it is heterozygous if not its homozygous
Incomplete Dominance
The dominant allele does not fully mask reccessive allele
Heterozygous individual shows a intermediate phenotype that is a blend (pink)
Co-dominance
There is no intermediate phenotype in the Heterozygote that fully expressed the phenotype of both alleles.
Dihybrid Cross
They are used to look at the inheritance pattern of two separate characteristics.
Dihybrid Cross Ratio
9:3:3:1
Dihybrid test cross ratio
1:1:1:1
Gives all hetrozygotes
What is the dihybrid test cross used for?
Confirm the presence of a heterozygous genotype in the F2 progeny of the original dihybrid cross
How does a dihybrid test cross work?
Heterozygous F2 Progeny is crossed with homozygous recessive individual –> Gives all heterozygotes
If genes are located on the same chromosome what is the likelihood they will remain together during crossover in prophase 1
Indirectly proportional to the distance separating them.
The map units they are apart is the % of how often they are together.
Why does the mosaic pattern occur
Barr body formation occurs randomly early in embryonic development and can result in mosaic patterns for females of phenotypic trains on the x chromosome.
tortoise cats or colour vision in females
Parental x activate in some cells and maternal x activated in other cells
Penetrance
Probability of a gene or allele being expressed if it is present
Incomplete Penetrance
A dominant is not always expressed in the heterozygous indvidual
A recessive allele is not always expressed in homozygous recessive individual
Complete Dominance
The penetrance of the dominant allele is 100% and 0% for the recessive allele
Expressivity
Degree to which a phenotype is expressed by individuals with the same genotype
-Polyductyl toes in cats
6,7,8,9: different expressivity
Taxonomical Classification
Darn King Philip Cuts Open Five Green Snakes
-Domain
-Kingdom
-Phylum
-Class
-Order
-Family
-Genus
-Species
Genus and Species are always in
Italics
-genus first
-Species is second
What does hardy-weingberg display
No evolution/change in the gene pool of a sexually reproduce population
Hardy-Weinberg 5 conditions
1.Large Pop.
2. Mutational Equilibrium (fwd=reverse)
3. No Migration
4. Random Mating
5. No natural selection
Species offspring must be fertile (t/f)
True
Speciation
A single ancestral species splits into multiple new species or a single species evolves into a reproductively distinct new species
Genetic Drift and Two Types
When allele frequency change suddenly and by chance
-Bottleneck
-Founder effect
Bottleneck effect
a population contracts to a significantly smaller size due to RANDOM ENVIROMENTAL EFFECT
Founder Effect
A small group of individuals leaves a larger population and establishes a new population
The new pop gene pool will reflect the alleles carried by the founders and may be different from the larger pop.
Gene Flow
Transfer of alleles from one population to another
Why in inbreeding bad
Causes inbreeding depression
-Increased homozygous, decreased heterozygotes
-Decreases genetic diversity
-Increases unfavourable alleles
Outbreeding (out crossing)
Increases heterozygotes
-increasing genetic diversity
Differential Reproduction
Varying degree of representation of a particular trait across generations
T or F evolution is the same as natural selection
False
Evolution is not the same as NS
Natural Selection is a mechanism for evolution
Natural selection is equivalent to survival of the fittest
The molecular clock refers to?
Tracking random mutations to help determine where 2 species diverge
Niche
All of the abiotic and biotic factors required by a organism
Which is bigger fundamental (idealized set) niche or realized niche (actual)
Fundamental is bigger due to competetion btwn organisms for resources
r-selected species
Put energy into reproduction over parental care.
Unstable and unpredictable environments
High repro, small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time and ability to disperse offspring widely.
Adaptations of r-selected species
little advantage because the enviro is likely to change again.
K-selected species
Put energy into ensuring offspring survive
-stable and predictable environments
-predominates because ability to compete successfully for limited resources crucial
-Large body, long life expectancy, ad production of fewer offspring that require extensive parent care , long maturation process
What species (r or K) would u most likely see close to carrying capacity?
K
Mendelian Errors
Do not fit mendelian ratios
-describe an allele in a indvidual which could have not been recieved from either of its biological parents by mend. inhertance
Adaptive Radiation
The evolution of ecological and phenotypic diversity within a lineage
new enviroment to be exploited is an adaptive zone.
Commesnualism
relationship one one orgaism benefits and the other is uneffected.
polymorphism
When two or more clearly different phenotypes exist in the same population of species.
A and T/U have how many H-Bonds?
2
G and C have how many H-Bonds?
3
Denaturing occurs because of what?
Lost H-Bonds
dsDNA to ssDNA
Primers vs Probes
Primers: Bind and Build
-Begin DNA synthesis at a specific site
Probes: Find and Bind
-Bind to DNA sequence and are labelled: radioactive, fluorescent and colourmetric
Primers are made of what?
DNA (only RNA for replication)
Probes are made of what?
RNA and DNA
Size of Primers compared to Probes
Primer are small 18-25 nt
Probes are long 300-700nt
What biotech uses Primers? x2
PCR
DNA Sequencing
What biotech uses probes?x5
Northern/Southern Blots
InSitu (FISH AND RNAISH)
Microarrays
RFLP
What are the 2 parts of a antibody?
Conserved Sequence: Little Variability (where stored)
Variable Sequence: Changes and unique to the specific antigen
What is the difference btwn a primary and secondary antibody?
Primary = Attaches to Antigen
Secondary = Attaches to Primary to make sequence stronger and faster
What are the 8 DNA techniques?
1)Gel Electrophoresis
2)Restriction Enzymes/Endonucleases
3)PCR
4)DNA Sequencing
5)Southern Blot
6)RFLP
7)Cloning
8)FISH
What type of gel is used for DNA?
Agarose
DNA Gel Electrophoresis
RUN A GEL
Separate DNA fragments by size/mass using an electric field.
DNA has a NEG. CHARGE, DNA migrates towards positive anode.
Bigger will move slower
Restriction Enzyme/Endonuclease
Cut at 4 or 6 bp in a PALLINDROMIC DNA sequence
(palindrome is same 5’ to 3’ on both strands)
PCR
Photocopy small sections of DNA from a template, create billions of copies via exponential growth of specific sequence
DNA Sequencing
Sequence by synthesis complementary strand with labelled primer
(determining DNA Sequence)
-Run a modified PCR with one primer
-Run on a Gel
-Determine Sequence Created
Southern Blot
Detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence in the genome/sample:
-isolate DNA,
-RE digest (chop into smaller pieces)
-Run on gel
-Denature DNA with NaOH (dsDNA- ssDNA)
-Transfer to blot (paper/membrane)
-Probe DNA for target detect probe (where and where it doesn’t bind)
RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism)
Genotype Individuals/Detect Mutations
-Isolate DNA
-RE Digest
-PCR Rxn
-Southern Blot , Probe and Bind fragments
-See sizes (difference in alleles)
Cloning
Copy DNA (PCR) and ligate into lasmid cDNA ligase => add into new organism p
FISH: Fluorescent IN SITU Hybridization
Use probe to locate specific DA in cell and check DNA integrity
-IF cell is dying
What are the 5 RNA biotech?
- Gel Elelectrophorisis
- RT-PCR (reverse transcriptase)/ q-PCR
3)Northern Blot
4)RNAISH
5)Microarray
What Gel is used for RNA
Acrylamide Gel (smaller pore size = better size definition)
RNA Gel Electrophoresis
Separate RNA by mass/size
RNA has Negative Charge
RT-PCR / Q-PCR
Make cDNA from mRNA (5’UTR, Exons, 3’UTR)
Compare gene expression between sample
Northern Blot
Quantative
Run a gel,
Transfer to lot
Probe to detect presence
RNAISH
Detect specific RNA gene expression and location in cell
(Embryo dev)
Microarray
Compare gene expression between 2 samples
(treatment of thousands of genes simultaneously, increase and decrease expression, done with computer)
What are the 6 protein biotech?
1)Gel Electrophoresis
2)Western Blot
3)Immunocytochemistry/Immunohistochemistry
4)Chromatography
5)X-ray Crystallography
6)Mass Spectrometry
What gel is used for proteins?
Acrylamide
How is gel electrophrosis different in proteins
AA carry positive, neg and neutral charges; therefore different cuz RNA and DNA are just negatuve
Isoelectric Focus for Gel Electrophoresis
Protiens
-Run small pH gradient gelei; 1st
-Separate by charge (isoelectric pt)
Native Gel for Gel Electrophoresis
Proteins
No protein denaturing, keep shape and subunits together (compare to denatured)
SDS page Gel Electrophoresis
Add a negative charge to each AA (denatured and flat), therefore all are now the same(all have neg charge) =
Can solely be Separate by Mass
Reducing Gel for Gel Electrophoresis
Break disulphide bonds (redox rxn, Beta neothethalyne)
Ensures completely flat (usually paired with SDS)
Western Blots
Isolate proteins
Run Gel
Transfer to Blot
Use antibody to detect protein
Immunocytochemistry/Immunohistochemistry
Detect protein with antibodies in cell sample, in sub cell compartments
Location and Expression of Protien
Staining sample
Chromatography is what
Seperating protiens
3 types of protein chromatography
Ion Exchange
Size Exclusion/Gel Filtration
Affinity (unique character)
X-Ray Crystalliography
Find 3D shape of protien
Mass Spectroscropy
Find Sequence of small peptides, identify protiens
True or False Crystallization is used often?
False inefficient
What are the 3 separation techniques
1)Extraction
2)Distillation
3)Crystalization
What is Extraction?
Seperation based on solubility that invoves 2 not mixable phases (aq layer and less dense organic mixture) l
Key moto for extraction
Weak before Strong
-Weak Acid removes Strong Base
-Strong Acid removes Weak Base
-Weak Base removes strong acid
-Strong Base removes weak acid
What is distillation?
Separates compounds based on their differing bp
(must be 20c difference)
-Compound with lower bp will boil off first and can be captured and condensed in cool tube
Fractional distillation if less than 20
Crystalization
Seperation based on idea that pure substances form crystals more easily than impure substances
How does chromatography work?
Mixture is dissolved into a solution (mobile phase, carrying sample thru) and poured over matrix
Then it forms distinct layers by drawing out specific compounds and creates a stationary phase
Which chromatography separate compounds based on polarity
Column
Paper
Thin Layer
High-Pressure Liquid
Polar stays (more interactions, slower), Non-polar fast
Salting Out is used in what
Ion Exchange Chemotoloy
Percipitate Ions
How does Ion exchange chemotology work?
Mixture of charge protiens in a solution with charge beads (charge depends on which one you want out)
They solution will seperate (attract and repell)
-Repelled ones at bottom
Then salting out (a buffer) comes in and removes attracted one from stationary phase as buffer replaces
-Come to bottom seprate
Mobile Phase
The phase in which there is movement. Not stuck the one that is selected to move.
Non polar (cuz polar sticks)
Other Charge (one charge sticked, mobile is free to move)
Affinity binds to one attached and leaves the other to move
What 3 things does affinity chromtaology due to result in stationary phase
1) Receptor proteins binds to stationary Ligands
2)Enzyme proteins bind to stationary substrate
3)Antibody protein binds to stationary antigen
Stationary Phase
Behind Bind to, stops from moving, and allows the other thing to move through (mobile phase)
T or F SDS Page can also be used to seperate protiens by isoelectric points?
True, That is the pH of a particular molecule has no net electric phase
pH gradient is added to gel before the electric gradient
Gel Electrophoresis uses what?
Non-Spont. Electrolytic Cell
Further right on a Gas Chromo means what
More Polar
Restriction sites must be x2
1)Palindromic
2)4 or 6 Nuceotides Long
PCR key reagents x5
1)DNA template
2)2 DNA Primers
3)Taq polymerase
4)dNTPS
5)mg2+(buffer) to stabilize DNA
3 Steps of PCR
1)Denature
-raise temp 90-95 break H-bonds btwn strands, now ss DNA template so primers can hybridize
2)Annealing
-Lower temp (50-60), allows the short primer to hybridize w/out the template coming back together (primers binding)
3)Elongation
-Raise temp. to DNA polymerase (TAQ) optimum (70-72)
-Replicate and build new DNA strand
-Synthesis by adding 3’OH of primer
4 ways PCR is different than DNA replication
1)
PCR: Vitro (test tube) DNA:Vivo (cell)
2)
PCR: DNA Primer Ordered
DNA: RNA primers (s phase, primase makes them)
3)
PCR: Uses heat to denature to get ssDNA
DNA: Uses DNA helicase to break h-bond and denature to get ssDNA
4)
PCR: Amplify small DNA segment
DNA:Entire DNA helix chromosome
What is Cell Culture?
Process in which cells are are grown under controlled conditions outside the organism
What is the growth curve for cell culture
Lag Phase
Log phase (exponential, lots of resources and space)
Stationary (cell growth = cell death)
Death Phase (#deaths is greater than # divisios), toxins build up not enough resources
The magnification of a microscope is equal to?
Mag = Objective (btm) x Ocular (eye 10x)
What are the two downsides to a electron microscope?
Immobile
In a Vaccum (closed)
Diffraction in a microscope is limited to the resolution of what?
Approx 0.2 micrometers (0.2 micro/200 nano)
Resolution is distance btwn 2 pts to see as 2 objects
Transmission Electron Microscopy is used for
Internal cellular structures
-obtain higher resoltuion using a electron beam with small wavelentgh
Scanning electron Miscrosy is used for?
Surface or 3D structures
Light Microscopy can only be used for what? x2
Image Dark and Refracting Objects
What is Flow Cytometry
Used for counting and examining microscopic particles (cells and chromo)
Suspending them in a stream of fluid and passing them through an electronic detection apparatus (stained with flourescents before)
4 Steps for DNA extraction
1)Cells are broken open to expose the DNA within (cell lysis) by grinding, sonification, or the use of chemicals
2)Membrane lipids are removed by adding a detergent
3)Proteins are digested using a protease
4)Dna is perciptated with a alc
How does DNA cloning work
1)Plasmid DNA and Foregin DNA are both cut with the same restriction enzyme (sticky ends made complementary to each other)
2)Foreign DNA is inserted into the plasmid where it inactivates the lacz Gene
What is needed for DNA cloning x4
1)A DNS Plasmid/Vector
2)Gene for Antibiotic Resistance (without plasmid dies)
3)A reporter gene for lac z (conform DNA was inserted into plasmid)
4)Know locations of restricted endonucleases sites
How does DNA sequencing work?
Sequencing Process for DNA
-DNA to be sequencesd is contained in pure recombinate plasmids and divided into 4 seperate rxn tubes
Template –> Coding
-Each tube contain all nucelotides , DNA polyemerase, and primers complementary to flanking regons of DNA
-Each tube contains one of four ddntps which lack 3’OH terminating sequence
-The fragments undergo gel electrophorisis in 4 seperate lanes (for each ddntp)
-Small fragments appear first (there ddntp) and then large
-Read bottom to top to get sequence (bottom 5’- top3’)
In DNA sequencing how do we identify the last base
Which ddNTP was added, deduce sequence
True or False cDNA has introns?
False made from mRNA so it lack introns
But is the same as the DNA without introns
What is RT-PCR used for?
Used to determine if a gene of interest is actually transcribed in vivo into mRNA.
Tells use whether a given gene is turned on in that tissue or at development pt in time
Q-PCR
Measure the cDNA template actially avaliable
Does RT-PCR but gives amount not just yes or no if it is activated
What is In SITU hybridization?
Uses complementary DNA or RNA probe to localize specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion of tissue (in situ)
Allows research to determine WHERE a given gene is transcribed and integrity
Why do we have ctrl for blotting?
Use ACTIN or TUBLIN
To ensure equal loading control. Ensure that what you are seeing isn’t just bigger or small by chance, compare to ctrl, they should all be the same size down the row)
Immunohistorchemistry
Used to determine protein expression
-Secondary antibody with flourscents or enzymes recognizes primary and covery info about expression
-ANTIBODY BIND TO KNOWN PROTEIN
What are peptide hormones made of?
Amino Acids and Sugars
Peptide hormones are polar or nonpolar?
Polar, travel easily in blood
Polar Hormone characteristics compared to Non-Polar
Polar Hormones have a short term fast response
Non-polar are long term and slow acting
How are peptide hormones made?
RER to Golgi, secretory pathway to plasma membrane
How do polar hormones interact with their target?
Bind at target cell surface receptor
What is GPCR and what is its pathway?
Peptide Hormone
GCPR
GProtien
Effector (adenyl cyclase) (convert ATP to cAMP)
Make 2nd Messenger (CAMP)
Activate Target (PKA)
Results in Many protein changes (PKA phosprykates other protiens)
Cell Signal Amplified
What is Receptor Tyrosine Kinase (RTK) and its path?
Peptide Hormone
RTK
Auto Phosphorylate to activate dimer
Phosphorylated target
Result is increased growth/division
Are Steriod Hormones polar or non-polar
Non-Polar
Where are steroid hormones made?
SER or Mitochondira
Because sterioid cells are nonpolar how does it effect their transport?
Need carrier protiens to travel through blood
At cell can diffuse thru membrane to bind INTERNAL Receptor
Where do peptides bind the cell?
Membrane
Where do sterioids bind the cell?
cytosol or nucleus
What do sterioid hormones do/bind to?
Bind to the transcription factor.
Protein binds DNA and changes gene expression
What are Tyrosine derived Hormones made of?
AA
Where are Tyrosine derived hormones made?
Made in cytosol/RER
What type of hormones are:
Catecholamines
(Dopamine
Epinephrine/Adrenaline
Noepi/Nor Adrelinaline)
Polar Tyrosine Hormones
Where are epi/norepi made?
Adrenal Medulla
What type of hormone are thyroid hormones (T3/T4)
Nonpolar Tyrosine Derived Hormones
What do T3 and T4 do?
CTRL basal metabolic rate
Symptoms of Hypothyroid
To little T3/T4
Slow Metabolism
Weak
Cold
Loosing Hair
Symptoms of Hyperthyroid
Too Much T3/T4
Fast Metabolism (underweight)
Hot
Anxious/Irritable
What are tropic hormones?
Target another endocrine gland
What are Direct Hormones?
Work on that tissue/gland
T or F all hormones need receptors?
True
Polar; Outside
Non-polar= Inside
Polar Hormones bind to what type of receptor
Membrane Receptors
Which then activate a secondary messenger
What are the 3 types of hormone membrane receptors
1)Enzyme Linked Receptors
2)Ion channel linked receptors (ligand gate channel)
3)G-Protien Coupled Receptors
How do G-Protien coupled receptors work?
These proteins have 7 Transmembrane Domains and are coupled with a trimeric G protien.
The G protiens have 3 subunits
The alpha subunits binds to GDP in the cell and acts to phosphorylate it into GTPm which allows it to disassociate from rest of G protien
Once activated G proteins are either exciatory of inhibitory depending on their effects in the cell
GDP is the active or inactive form
Inactive
GTP is the active or inactive form
Active
What are the 3 domains of a G protien
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
When activated what G protien domain leaves and which stay?
Beta and Gamma Stay
Alpha Leaves after binding to GDP phosphorylating to GTP (transition is what allows it to leave)
What is the G protein activator
G alpha S
Effector (activates next protien)
What is the G Protien Inhibitor
G alpha I
Inhiboys next protien
Enzyme linked receptor is a what
KinaseRTK
Ligand Gated Ion channel has what receptor
ACH receptor on muscle
Neuromusclar jxn
Na+ Channel
What is a portal system
A capillary bed that drains into another capillary bed through a vein, without first goingt through heart
What are the 3 portal systems in humans
1)Hypothaamic-Hypophyseal portal system (hypothalamus to pitutary land)
2)Hepatic Portal (digestive to liver)
3)Renal Portal (kidneys)
How do hormones travel from hypothalamus to ant. pituitary?
Bloodstream
-Hypothalamic-Hypophyseal Portal System
How do hormones travel from hypothalmus to post. pitutary?
Nerve Axons via Neurosecratory Cells
LONG AXONS
What two hormones are associated with post. pitutary?
Direct Hormones of Hypothalamus
1) ADH/VASOPRESSIN
-Increases H2O absorbtion on collecting ducts
2)Oxytocin
-Releaseed to increase uterine contraction
ADH/Vassopressin is Inhibitred by what?
Caffine and Alc
What are the 7 Hormones of the Ant. Pitutary
FLAT PEG
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
PRL
Endorphins
GH
What is needed for T3 and T4
Iodine and TRH stimulaing TSH
Every Gland in the body is innevated by the parasympathetic nervous system PNS expect what?
Sweat Glands CNS
What are the 2 patrs of the adrenal glands
Adrenal Cortex
Adrenal Medulla
The adrenal cortex responds to ATCH and secretes what?
Corticorosteriods
Sugar: Glucorticoids
Salts: Mineralocotricoids
Sex: Corticol Sex hormones
What does the adrenal gland secrete?
Cateocholamines
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
Glucocorticoids are released where and are associated with what?
Released in adrenal cortex
Associated with stress
What is the key mineralocoticoid in teh RAAS system?
Aldosterone
What does aldosterone do?
Acts on kidney
Increases Na and Cl retention
Increases K and H secretion
(increases H2O absorption in collecting ducts)
How does the RAAS System Work
1)When blood volume/pressure decrease JGA cells produce renin
2)Renin converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) to angiotensin 1
3)Angiotensin 1 is converted into angiotensin 2
4)Angiotensin 2 stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone
5)Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and pressure.
What are the chateocholamines
Tyrosine Derivative Hormones
Epinephrine/Adrenaline
Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline
The secretory cells of the adrenal medulla are part of what system?
Sympathetic Nervous System
What are the functions of catecholamines?
Sympathetic Nervous System (fight or flight)
-Increase HR, Increase Blood Movement
-Decrease Gut, Decrease Excretion
-Increase conversion from glycogen to glucose
What Calcitonin?
Calictonin is large hormone released by the Thyroid
Decrease Ca2+ levels by inhibiting the release of Ca2+ from bone osteoclasts
T3 and T4 increase what?
Basal Metabolic Rate
Increase blood Ca2+ results in what?
Make Calcitonin
Results with increase bone deposition
Decrease Blood Ca2+ results in what
Make PTH
Results in decreased bone because of reabsorption
What does PTH do?
Increases blood Ca by stimulating Ca release from bone by osteoclasts
Endocrine Glands vs Exocrine Glands
Endocrine: secrete their hormone products directly in the blood
Exocrine: Secrete products into ducts that lead directly into the external environment.
True or False Somatostatin always inhbits insulin and glucagon
True
Pancreatic Somatostatin is produced by what?
Delta Cells
Where are Islet of Langerhands?
Pancreas
Alpha: Glucagon
Beta: Insulin
Delta: Somatostatin
What are the 2 parts of the testes
Seminiferous Tubules: Sertoli Cells
Interstitial Cells: Leydig Cells
What do Lydig Cells makes?
Testosterone
What do sertoli cells make?
Sperm
Pathway of Sperm
Seven Up
Seminiferous Tubules
Epididymis
Vas Deferens
Ejaculatory
Nothing
Urethra
Penis
What happens in the epididymis
Spemiogensis
(mature sperm)
(gain flagella, in spermatogensis just round cells)
Vasectomy
Cut Vas Degerens
No Sperm in Cells
What creates the fluid in sperm?
Postate
Seminal Vesicle
Process of Spermatogenesis x4
1) Spermatogenum (stem cells), 2N–>(Mitosis) –> Primary Spermatocytes (2N)
2)Primary Spermatocytes, 2N –> (Meisosis 1) –> Secondary Spermatocyte N Haploid
3)Seondary Spermatocytes N –> (Meiosis 2 )–> Spermatid N
4)Spermatid N –> (Spemogensis/differentiation and maturation) –> Spermatozoa, Sperm, N
Acrosome
part of sperm; Digest into female cell by enzyme
What are primary oocytes (2n) stopped in during meiosis?
Prophase 1
When does the secondary oocytes (n) stop?
Metaphase 2 (meiosis 2)
How long does spermatogenesis take?
90 days
What is expelled during ovulation x2?
two daughter cells of equal size
-Secondary Oocyte (n)
-Small Polar Body
How many eggs in newborn females
2 million primary oocytes (80%die)
How many eggs after puberty?
400,000 primary oocytes
How many secondary oocytes will be expelled via ovulations
400
When the oocyte is expelled from the follicle what does it become
Corpus Luteum
Caused by LH
What is a zygote
Ovum and Spermatozoa
Mensturation and Proliferation occur during what phase of ovarian cycle?
Proliferatin
(develops and shed)
What hormones promote the development of overian follicles?
FSH and LH
What causes LH surge
Follicles secrete estrogen as they grow
Estrogen increases GnRH production
GnRH causes LH and DSH Surge
What does the corpus luteum secrete?
Estrogen and Progesterone
What causes the endometrium to mature in leutal phase
Progesterone
In the leutal phase what are the inhibitory effects of progesterone and estrogen?
Inhibit GnRH, LH, and FH prevent maturation of additional follicles
What causes the menses to occur?
Drop in progesterone due to atrophy of corpus leuteum
What are the 2 layers of cells surrounding the secondary oocyte?
Inner: ZonaPellucida
Outer: Corona Radiata
What reaction prevents the fusion of other sperm to egg?
Cortical Rxn
What does pluripotent mean?
Ability to develop into any cell type
Trophoblast cells become what?
Placenta
Order of zygote to embryo
Zygote,
Morula,
Blastocyst (fluid ball) contain ICM (embryo stem cells) and Trophoblasts
Gastrula
Neurula
What is the difference between indeterminant cleavage ersus determinant clevagev
Indeterminant: Mitotic Division without differentiation
Determinant Cleavage: Mitotic Division with differentiatiom
Totipolent?
Stem cells become any cell, placenta or embryo
Zygote and Morula
Pluripotent
Stem cells can become any one of the 3 germ layers (in embryo)
Multipotent
Stem cells replace cells of a particular lineage, skin, blood, liver
What protects the endrometrium
Estrogen establishes and Progesteron Protects
True of False during the 1st trimester the corpus leutum degrades
False preserved by HCG
Keeps progesterone and estrogen levels high preventing new menstrual cycle from occurring
When does the corpus leutum degenerate during pregnancy?
Second trimester when placenta is fully developed and can produce and secrete estrogen and progesterone on own.
What stage does the embryo different into 3 layers
Gastrula
What are the 3 layers of the gastrula?
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
Outer
Integument
Lens of Eyes
Nervous System
Endoderm
Inner
Epithelial Linings of digestive and resp. tracts
Parts of Liver, Pancreas, Thyroid, Bladder
Mesoderm
Middle
Musculoskeltelal
Cirulatory
Excretory
Connective
Digestive
What layer of gastrula is adrenal cortex derivided
Mesoderm
What layer of the adrenal medulla derivied?
Ectoderm (contains nervous tissue)
What is neurulation
Notochord in mesoderm induces the ectoderm to thicken and form neural plate
Neural –> Neural Folds –> Neural Tube
What does the neural tube become?
Spinal Cord, and most of nervous system
What does the neural crest become
PNS
When does embryo become fetus?
8 Weeks is on own with placentaand umbiical all stuff o2 and nutrients from mum
True or False Mom and Fetus mix blood
False no blood mixing
Placenta allows for diffusion between them, gas exchange occurs in placenta, fetus lungs do not work until after birth
When is the fetus most suscpetible to factors intefeerrin with development?
Organogensis Week 4 to 8
1st trimester is classified by
Development
2nd trimester is classified by
Development/Growth
3rd trimester is classified by
Growth
What is blood connective?
Connective tissue containing cells and matrix
What is blood responsible for? x6
Transport of:
1)Nutrients
2)Gases
3)Wastes
4)Hormones
5)Heat
6)Immune Cells
3 Components of Blood
1)Plasma
2)Buffy Coat (White Blood Cells/Leukocytes and Platelets)
3)Erythocytes
What is in Blood Plasma
Irons
Urea
Water
Proteins
Organic and Inorganic Compounds
3 Common proteins in blood
1)Albumin (fatty acid transport)
2)Immunoglobulins (antibodies)
3)Clotting Factors
What are Erythrocytes
Red Blood Cells, Bag of Hb
No Organelles, No Nucleus, Function in O2 and Co2 transport
T or F Erthrocytes have DNA maturity
False
No Nucelus or Organelles, not capable of mitosis or reproduction
Where are Erythrocytes formed?
Formed by bone marrow stem cells
Themopoetic Stem Cells in long bones
Leukocytes versus Red Blood Cells
W:Organelles but no Hb
R: Hb but no Organelles
What is the role of leukocytes?
Immune Response
What are Platelets
Involved in injury repair and derived from small portions of membrane bound cytoplasm
The A and B adds what to red blood cell
Sugar
IA and IB are what to i
Dominant/Co-Dominant
i is Recessive
What is the Rh Factor?
Specific antigen present on the surface of the red blood cell
Somebody with Rh- blood can receieve blood from who?
Only rH- people
Can somebody with Rh+ blood receive blood from whom?
Anyone
What are the 2 roles of the Lymphatic system?
1)Immune System
2)Secondary Fluid Circulation System
The lymph system travels how?
One way towards heart
4 Functions of Lymph System
1)Remove interstitial fluid (return to blood via thoracic duct)
2)Transport Proteins, Large Glycerides, Fatty Acids (chylomicrons)
3)Transport Immune Cells
4)Fluid Balance throughout body (prevent edema)
How does the lymph system connect to the circulatory system
Lymphatic and Thoracic Ducts
What are the 2 components of the immune system?
1)Innate Immunity: Non-Specific
-Generalized protection from most invading organsims and toxins
2)Acquired Immunity: Specific
-Protection against specific organisms and toxins
3 Forms of Innate Immunity
1)Physical Barriers
-Skin, Mucous Membrane
2)Cellular
-PMNs, Monocytes, Macrophages, Esinophiles
3)Chemical Barriers
-pH, Lipids, Enzynes
Inflammation is what type of immunity?
Innate
4 Aspects of inflammation
1)Dialation of Blood Vessels
2) Increase permibilty of capillaries
3)Swelling of Tissue
4)Migration of Macrophage/Granuloytes
Why does inflammation occur?
Response is a protective attempt to stop the stimulus from spreading to other tissues and to initate the healing process (blood Clotting)
4 Steps of Blood Response
1)At site of damage, platelets adhere to collagen fibers in connective tissue and release a substance that makes nearby platelets sticky
2)Platelets form a plug that provides emergency protecton against blood loss.
3)Plug is reinforced by a clot of cross-linked fibrin formed through a multistep process
4)Fibrin is eventually degraded by plasmin to conclude the healing process
3 Types of White Blood Cells
1)Agranuclear Monocytes (myeloud stem cells)
2)Granulocytes
(Lymphoid Stem Cells)
3)Agrandular Lymphocytes
(myeloud stem cells)
Cells involved in innate immunity are denoted by what?
*
Where to leukocytes derivived from?
Pluripotent stem cells in bone marrow
-Myeloid Stem Cells (agran monocytes, Granulocytes)
-Lymphoid Stem Cells (agran lympocytes)
Divided into granular and agranular forms
Granulocytes live for a long or short time?
Short
Function nonspecifically against infective agents
Agranulocytes live for a long or short time?
Long
Work against specific agents of infection so they need to hang around in case the same infective agent returns
Process of innate immunity?
- Agranuclear Monocytes
Enter body and are attacked by local macrophages (phagocytes)
-Stimulus activation of acquired immunity
- Granulocytes
Neutrophils move toward the infected or injured areas and phagocytize more bacteria
What happens when neutrophils and macrophages engulf necrotic tissue and bacetria?
Die and form Pus
Eosinophils (Myeloid stem cells)
Work against parasitic fxn
Basophiles (myeloid stem cells)i
Relese histamine for the inflammatory responsea
Natural Killer Cells (Lymphoid stem cells)
Play a major role in the rejection of tumors and cells infected by viruses
-Even if not marked they destory
Mast Cells
-Wound healing,
-Defense against pathogens
-Allergenic response
What are the 2 types of acquired immunity?
1)BCells = Humoral
2)TCells =Cell Mediated
What do B Cells do?
B-Cells produce a singe type of antibody (immunoglobin) which is displayed on the surface of plasma membrane)
How are B-Cells activated x2?
Free Antigens
Helper T-Cells
How does a helper T-Cell activate B cells?
1)APC macrophage engulfs bacteria and transports to cell surface
2)Helper T-Cells Reconzes and is activated
3)T-Cell activates B-Cells the produe antibody needed to target that antigen
4)Bcell differeniates into Plasma Cells and Memory B Cells
Plasma cells (B cells)
Plasma cells synthesis free antibodies and releasing them into the blood
Positive Colonal Selection
Choose B Cells with antibody to increase relpication of that B cell
Negative Colonal Selection
Antibody bound to self
Rxn against its own body, auto immune
Memory B-Cells
Remain in bloodstream to elicit a more immediate response to the antigen upon a secondary exposure
What is active immunity
Production of memory B cells against a particular antigen is conferred by Vaccination
Why do we have booster shots?
To induce a secondary response by memory B Cells, increase longeity of the immunity
Memory B Cells allow for what response? x2
Faster response
Increased concentration
Where does the T-Lymphocyte mature
Thymus
How do T-Lymphocytes work?
Antibody-like protein receptor that recognizes antigens
What happens to T-lymphocytes that reacts to self-antigens?
Destroyed in the thalmus
Helper T-Cells
Recognize APC Macrophage that activates B Cells
Memory T-Cells
Keep antigen Memory
Regulatory T-Cells
Suppressors
Negative Feedback for Immune System
Cytotoxic T-Cells
Bind antigen carrying cell (infected )
Antigen is perforin –> Fills with ions and water –> cell lyselide(bursts)
What are Lymph Nodes
Filter Lymphs and site of most immune responses
What occurs in spleen
Filters blood and lymph, stores blood and is a secondary site for immune responses
What is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Nucleated cells in the human body express MHC.
Membrane-bound proteins that display antigens for recognition by the immune system -
MHC class 1 molecules
ENDROGENOUS PATHWAY
All Nucleated cells display own metabolism
-Protiens display based on internal workings of cell
-Show weird (infection, cancer, foreign tissues)
CD x MHC =
8
CD4+ responds to MHC-2 (4x2=8)
CD8+ responds to MHC-1 (8x1=8)
MHC Class 2 Molecules
EXOGENOUS PATHWAY
-Display extracellular pathogens antigens
-Been phagocytes, been broken down, Displayed
4 Steps of endogenous and exogenous pathway?
- Antigen Uptake (ENDO= IN, EXO=OUT)
- Antigen Process
3.MGC Peptide Association
4.Cell Surface Expression
Path of air in? x12
1.External Nares
2.Nasal Passage (Filtered by Nasal hair and Mucous)
3. Pharynx
4.Larynx
5.Epiglottis
6.Glottis
7.Trachea
8.Bronchi
9.Lungs
10.Bronchioles
11.Alveoli
12.Capillaries
What is surfactant
Covers the alveolus lowering the surface tension of the aveoli and facilitates gas exchange across membrane
T or F control the diaphram is soley unconsious
False it is concious
What presents the lungs from collapsing
Pressure differential between intrapleural space and the lungs
Ventilation is dependant on pressure changes in what?
Thoracic Cavity
What seperates the thoracic cavity
Diaphragm
What is a pneumothrax
Pressure inside the intrapleural space increases
Increased diffusion in lungs occurs due to what x3
Increasing SA
Increasing Pressure Gradient
Decreasing Membrane Thickness
When diaphragm contracts what occurs to pressure and volume?
Volume increases
Pressure Decreases
When does diaphragm contract, inhilation or exhaluation
Inhalation
Diaphragm contracts and flattens
External intercostal muscles contract
Exhalation is passive or active
Passive
Highly elastic/resilient and tend to recoil to their og position
Ventilation is regulate by what?
Central Chemoreceptors (medulla)e
Peripheral Chemorecptors (carotod artieries and aorta)
Monitor CO2 in blood
During inhalation external intercostals go which direction?
Up and Out\
Contract
During exhalaiom external intercostals go which direction?
Relax
Down and In
What happens to internal intercostals during forced exhalation?
Contracted pull ribcage down
What causes the diffusion of O2 into the capillaries and CO2 into the aveoli?
Differential partial pressure of O2 and CO2
PO2 Lungs
110mmHG
PCO2 Lungs
40mmHG
Po2 pulmonary cap
40mmHG
PCO2 Pulm Cap
46mmHG (glucose breakdown increases)
Other than gas exchange what are the 4 other functions of the respiratory system?
1.Preparation of Inhaled Air
2.Thermoregulation
3.Protection against disease and particulate matter
4.Acid-Base Reg/
Right Side of heart delivers blood to what?
Lungs
Left Side of heart delivers blood to what?
Body
When atria fill what occurs in terms of pressure and volume
RELAX
-Ventrical Relax (distole)
Decreased Pressure, Increased Volume
When ventrical contract what occurs in terms of pressure and volume
Ventricle Contraction (Systole)
Increased Pressure, Decreased Volume
Right Side Heart Path
BODY TO LUNGS
1)Superior and Inferior Vena Cava
2)RA
3.Tricuspid Valve (AV)
4.RV
5.Pulmonary (lunar) valve
6. Pulmonary Artery to Lungs
Left Side of Heart Path
Lungs to Body
1)Pulmonary Vein
2)LA
3)Mitral/Bicuspid Valve *AV
4)LV
5)Aortic Valve (Lunar)
6)Aorta
3 branches of aorta?
- Mesenteric Arteries(Digestive and Liver)
- Renal Arteries
3.Iliac Arteries Bottom
Carotid Artery TOP
What causes blood to be proplled through cardio system
Hydrostatic Pressure
Where and what is the role of the pacemaker/SA node?
Right Atrium
Responsible for initating and spread AP for heart contraction
What is the electrical flow of the heart?
SA Node generate AP (RA)
AP to AV node (Above RV)
Bundle of HIs
Purkinje Fibres
True or False the activation of AV node is slow?
True allows for the atrium and ventricles to fill
Rate of contraction of heart is regulated by what?
ANS
What is the relationship btwn hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure when blood flows into capillary bed (aveolar end)
Hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic
Net low of fluid occurs out of capillary into intersitution
What is the relationship btwn hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure when blood flows out of capillary bed (venule end)
Hydrostaic pressure decrease (less than osmotic) net fluid flows back into capillary from intersitium
What % of fluid is lost in capilary exchange and where does it go
10%
Lymphatic System
10 (arterial) - 7 (Venule) = 3 mmHG
What is the intersitiium/intersituial fluid
Between Tissue Cells
Net pressure of blood in arterial end of capillary
Blood Pressure (32mmHG)
- Osomtic pressure (22mgHG)
=10mmHG into fluid
Net pressure of blood in venule end of capillary?
Blood Pressure (15mmHG)
- Osomtic pressure (22mgHG)
=-7mmHG into fluid
Osmotic Pressure in capilaries is
Constant
Why do valves exist in veins
Prevent backflow because lower hyrdostatic pressure eists in veins
(less smooth muscle that arteries)
How much blood is stored in veins and venules
60%
Blood Pressure throughout Circulatory System
Decreases from Arterials to capillaries
Stays constant in veins
Blood velocity throughout circulatory system
Decreases from artieries to capilarries and then increases going to veins *but highest in artieries
Velocity decrease with SA
How many O2 does one Hb carry
4
T state Hb versus R state Hb
Tstate is low bidning affinity
Rstate is high binding affinity (occurs after 1 O2 has bound)
SHAPE CHANGE
Hb binding to Oxygen is what type of curve
S (sigmodial curve)
What causes a right shifted Hb curve?
Increase pCO2, decreasing pH (more H+) and increase in temo
Less bound oxygen at a certain pressure, decreased binding addinity
Right shifted Hb curves occur when?
Exercising
High Altitude
(less O2)
Peripheral tissues is right shifted Hb or Left shifted Hb?
Right
Decreased Bidning Affinity
Lungs is right shifted Hb or Left shifted Hb?
Left
Increased Binding affinity
What occurs in a left shifted Hb curve?
Decrease CO2
Decreased Temp
Increased pH (less H+)
What situation does a left shift Hb occur?
Fetal Hb (take O2 from Mom)
CO Poisioning
What does 2,3 BPG. 2,3 DPG do?
Shift Hb Curve right by binding ti partially deoxygenated Hb to facilitate complete unloading
Myoglobin versus Hb
Myoglobin has unstant binding affinity but only has one space to hold 1 O2
Single Peptide Chain, 1 Heme Group, Non-cooperative
Where does the start digestion of carbs/sugars occur?
Mouth via Salivary Amylase
What is Bolus
Chewing + Salvia (carbs)
Digested by salivary amylase
What continues movement down out digestive tract?
Peristalis (alt. waves of smooth muscle contraction)
Bolus (carbs) combine with stomach juices to form what?
Chyme
How does bolus enter stomach
Cardiac Orfice
How does chyme leave the stomach and enter duodenum
Pylonic Sphincter
The duodenun is part of the?
Small Intestine
What occurs in the small intestine to carbs?
Add pancreatic enymes and brush boarder enzymes
What happens once carbs are monomers?
Absobed into blood stream through enterocytes (intestinal epithelial cell)
Where does protein digestion begin
Stomach
4 Cells of the stomach?
1.Mucous Cells
2. G Cells
3. Parietal Cells
4. Chief Cells
What do mucous cells do?
Make mucus to protect stomach cells
What do G Cells do?
Make Gastrin (peptide hormone)
What do Parietal Cells do?
Make HCl (acid), lots of Mito
Increased activity of parietal cell has what effect on stomach pH
Decreases stomach pH (approx.2)
What do chief cells do?
Make Pepsinogen (zymogen)
Pepsinogen (zymogen) combines with HCl to activate what?
Pepsin
“Ogen” means what
Inactive form
What enzyme begins digestion of protiens in stomach
Pepsin
What are brush boarder enzymes
Amino Pepitdase
What activates trypisogen?
Enterokinase which is made by brush boarder enzymes in duodenum
What are the 5 uses of AA in blood?
1.Protein Anabolism (Protein Translation)
Deamination (loss of NH2)
2.Acetyl CoA –> Krebs –> Ox Phos –. ATP synthase
3.Acetyl-Coa –> Fat Synthesis
4.Unfed —> Gluceoneogensis
5.Unfed –> Ketogensis
Why is emulsification of lipids required?
Because Hydrophobic
How are lipids emulsified
Bile
Where is Bile Made and Storeed
Made: Liver
Stored: Gall Bladder
What enzyme is produced in the mouth related to fat digestion
Lingual Lipase but inactive
What activates lingual lipase
Low pH
Where does fat digestion start
Can a bit in stomach but mostly in intestine
Emsulifcation occurs there
Digested fats and lipids are absorbed into what
Lymph not blood stream
What are fats digested into x2?
1)Fatty Acids FA
2)Monglycerol MGL
Where can lymph be reabsorbed into blood
Thoracic Duct
What 3 enzymes are used for lipid/fat digestion
- Lingual Lipase STOMACH
- Bile (INTESTINES)
- Pancreatic Lipase (Intestines)
How do fats once digested into MGL and Fatty acids get into lymph?
1)Diffuse into enterocytes
2)Go to ER
3)Packaged into chylomicrons
4)Exocytosis released into lymph
What are the uses of MGL
Glycerol –> Gluceoneogensis
What are the uses of FA x5
1) Transport: Move to another cell (HDL/LDL)
2)Build Membranes (phospholipids and sphingolipids)
3)Storage: Lipogensis
4)Beta to acetyl coa OX (Krebs)
5)Beta to acetyl coa (Ketogensis)
Order of digestive tract?
1) Mouth
2) Esphogus
3) Cardiac Sphincter
4)Stomach
5) Pyloric Sphincter
6)Small Intestine (D,I,J)
7)Large Intestine (A, T, D Colons)
8)Sigmoid Colon
9)Rectum
10) anus
3 parts of small intestine
Duodenum
Illeum
Jejunum
3 Parts of Large Intestine
Ascending
Transcending
Descedning
Colons
A-Amylase (salivary amylase) in the mouth breaks down what
Stratch to Polysaccarides
Secretions of the stomach cells is stimulated by?
PSNS by acetylcholine
Rest and Digest
Parietal cells contain many what
Mitochondria because requires a lot of energy to produce HCL
What does Gastrin Stimulate?
Stimulates periatel cells to release HCl
What is HCl used for in stomach?
Acidic enviroment killing most bacteria
What is HCl not effective at killing?
HPylori Bacteria
-Gram Neg.
-Causes chronic, gastritis ulcers, stomach cancer
What does pepsin do
Cleaves peptide bonds of proteins in stomach
Where are stomach cells located?
Gastric Glands
Gastric Pit (Mucous Cells)
What is the cecum?
Connects the ileum to ascending colon of large itestine
What are the 3 cell types in small intestine?
1)Goblet Cells
2)Cyrpts of Leiberkuhn
3)Enterocytes/Epithelial Cells
What do Goblet Cells do?
Secrete Mucous for Lubrication
What do Cyrpts of Leiberkuhn do?
Secrete slightly basic pancreatic and intestinal juice
What are Enterocytes/Epithelial Cells?
Absoprtion of all macromolecules
What stimulates the secretion of bile?
CCK hormone is response to cyme
Gallbladder releases bile into duodenum via common bile duct
What is the role of pancreatic jucie
Contain basic bicarbonate which neutralizes acidic chyme in duodenum
What is the role of secretin in the duodenum?
Release in the response to acidic chyme in duodenum, stimulates the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice
When is secretin secretion stopped?
When duodenum pH increases (negative feedback)
What are peptidases
Released in small intesteine to hydrolize protien
What does enterokinase enzyme do and where is it secreted?
Secreted for intestinal glands in small intestine
-Converts trypsinogen to trypsin
3 Endocrine functions of pancreas?
Production of
B=Insulin
a=Glucagon
delta=Somatostatin
Pancrease exocrine hormones
released into duodenum by pancreatic duct x6
1.Trypsin
2.Pancreatic Amylase (carb hydolysis)
3.Chymotrypsin (protein hydrolysis)
- Lipase (lipid hydroylus)
- Carboxypeptidase (protein hydrolysis)
- Ribonuclease and Deorobonuclease (Nucleic Acid Hyrdolysis)
What is the role of trypsin?
Protein Hydrolysis and activator of other zymogens
What zymogens does trypsin activate? x4
- Pancreatic Amylase
2.Chymotrypsinogen
3.Lipase
4.Carboxypepitdase
What are the 2 major functions of the large intestine?
Water Reabsorbtion
Electrolyte Absorption
What is constipation
Excessive water re-absoption
What is diarrehea
Failure of LI to reabsorb water
Fibre (cellulose) is not digested by human but is digested by?
Our microbiome
Where does absorption of nurtrients occur?
Small Intestine
How does carbohydrate absorption work?
1.Travel from the intestinal lumen (pancreatic amylase (those not done by salivary amylase) and brush border to monomers)
- Through the enterocyte
- To the Basolateral Side (faciliated diffusiin) to portal vein and then the liver
Fructose absoprtion into enterocyte is caused by what
GLUT 5 Transporter, faciltated diffusion
Glucose and Galactose absorption into enterocyte is caused by what?
SGLT1
Also bring Na in
How is a gradient created in the enterocyte?
Sodium K pump
Decrease sodium concentration
How are carb monomers released into portal vein (basolateral side)?
Facilitated diffusion (GLUT 2 Transporter)
What is the by produce of deamination and what occurs to it?
Ammonia
Converted by the liver to urea and excreted as urine in kidney
How does protein absorption work?
1) Protiens hydrolyzed to polypeptides by pepsin in the stomach
2)Intestinal Lumen: Brush Boarder, Trypsin and Chymotrypsin hydrolyze polypeptides to aa, di peptides, tripeptides
3)Enter enterocyte via facilitated and active transport (all converted do AA)
4)Enter basolateral side (via facilitated diffusion) , Portal Vein and Liver
How does Fat absorption work?
1)Intestinal Lumen
-Bile Emuslifies into micelles
-Lipase hydrolyze triglycerides into fatty acids
-Monoglycecdise and FA to Brush Boarder
2)Enterocyte via diffusion
-Converted back to tryglycerides and globules by SER
-Globules go to Mito to become Chylomircors
3)Chylomorics move to Basolateral Side
-Move into lymph
-Lymph Ducts via cirulatory system
-Liver or adipose tissue
Fatty acids are combined with what for blood transport?
Albumin
Triglycerides are transported as?
Lipoproteins
Nutrients enters the liver through?
Hepatic Portal Vein
Oxygenated blood enters the liver through?
Hepatic Arteries
What are the 9 roles of the liver?
Blood:
1)Blood Storage
2)Blood Filtration
3)Erythrocyte Destruction
Fed/Unfed State:
4)Carb Metabolism
5)Protein Metabolism
6)Fat Metabolism
Storage
7)Vitamin Storage
8)Glycogen Storage
9)Detoxification of Chemicals
What is the role of the kidney?x4
1)Regulates salt and water concentration in the blood through the formation of urine
2)Blood Pressure Regulation
3)Osmoregulation
4)Acid-Base Homeostasis
What is a nephron
Filteration units of the kidneys
What are the 3 regions of the kidney
1)Cortex (outer)
2)Medulla (middle)
3) Pelvis (Fluid ext. for urine)
Where does blood first enter the kidney
Bowman’s capsule, no selective only small particles through (NOT BLOOD)
A single nephrons spans what parts of kidney?
Cortex and Medulla
Path of flitration in nephron
1)Bowmans Capsule
2)Glomerulus
3)Proximal Convoluted Tubule
4)Descending Loop of Henle
5)Ascending Loop of Henle
6)Distal Confuloted Tubule
7)Collecting Duct
Path of Filtration in Kidney
1)Blood Enters through renal artery which divides into afferent arterioles that branch into capillarilies called glomerulus
2)Efferent Arterioles which divides into Vasa Recta
3)Vasa Recta surrounds nephron
4)
-Converge into renal vein which heads back into ciruclation
-Urine collects from collecting ducts and exits kidney through urter
Increasing blood into the afferent arteriole (kidney) does what to BP
Increase BP
What is the role of angiotension 2
Vasconsticts the efferent arteriole
Increase Gobular Filtrartion Rate
Angiotension 2 effect on BP
Increase BP
What are the names of the two types of nephrons
Cortical Nephron (small)
Justamedullary Nephrone (Longer)
What neurons is associated with urine concentratrion
ustamedullary Nephrone (Longer)
What are the 3 processes of kidney
1)Filtration : No selective
2)Secretion: Selective
3)Reabsorption: Selective
-essential substances are reabsoptied from filtrate rb
Compare the sizes of the afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole
Afferent is large the efferent creating a hydrostatic pressure
True or False Osmolarity stays the same from the start filtrate to end filtrate
True
only a decrease in volume of filtrate is obeserve
What occurs in the proximal tubule
Secretion and Reabsorption
What occurs in the decending loop
H2O Flows out
(fluid is highly concentrated, so wants out)
What occurs in the ascending loop
NaCl Flows Out
What occurs in distal tubule
Further fine tuning of secretion and reabsoprtion
Osmotic Concentration increases up or down loop
Down
What is the function of the loop of henle
Increases the intersitial (medulla) salyt concentration (salt out of filtrate) w/out significant changing solute concentration of filtrate
Distal Convulated tubule role in RAAS
JGA connects to arterioles of glomerus to distal convulted tubule
-JGA sense changes in solute concentration in DCT and detects streching arteriole wall
-If low Na+ GA cell srelease Renin, causing release of Aldosterome
Aldosterone role in kidney
Increases Na+ Reabsorption in DCT and collecting duct
Increases blood osmolarity, volume and pressure
-Stiulates ADH release and thirst
The collecting duct in impermeable to water expect when?
WHhen Ant-Diuertic Hormone is released, water passes out into medulla
True or False water should be in urine
False, nutrient in ducts and descending
What hold Ca in muscle cell
Sacoplasmic Ret. (SR)
What are the 3 steps of AP
1)Na+ channels open (+ charge enters cell) -DEPOLARIZATION
2)K+ channel opens (+) charge exits cell to extracellular space -REPOLARIZATION
3)Re-Establish normal membrane potential (Na+/K+ ATPase)
What is constantly working in a cell regardless of AP
Na+K+ ATPase
Na in
K out
AP causes what to enter the cell
Ca+
What does Ca+ in cell result in for ATP
Vesicles fill wit Ach
-Ach released into synaptic cleft by exocytosis
What are groves in plasma membrane of muscle cell called
T-Tubules
What is the sacrolma
Muscle Membrane
Ach receptors on muscle membrane are also receptors for what?
Na+
Therefore you can have AP in Sacrolma
What causes the SR to release Ca to allow for muscle contraction?
AP travels down T-Tubules from pre-synaptic celll
3 Types of Muscle
1)Cardiac
2)Smooth
3)Skeletal
3 Functions of Muscles
1)Body Movement and Support
2)Movement of substances throughout body
3)Thermoregulation
Tendons
Muscle to Bone
Ligaments
Bone to Bone
Skeletal Muscle is conscious or unconscious control?
Concious and Voluntary
When a muscle contracts it moves towards what point
Insertion pt to Origin Point
The antagonist muscle vs agonist muscle
Agonist is the one that contracts
(flexors)
Antagonist is the one that relaxes(extensors)
What is a first class lever
-Effort
-Fulcrum
-Resistance
Effort=one side down
Fulcrum= Middle
Resistance= opposite side of effort dip
What is a second class lever
-Effort
-Fulcrum
-Resistance
-Effort: Up on one side
-Fulcrum =Oppposide side effort
-Resistance= middle down
What is a third class lever
-Effort
-Fulcrum
-Resistance
-Effort: Middle Up
-Fulcrum: One side
-Resistance: Opposide to fulcrum down
How can muscle contraction be unconsious (ans)
-Contraction can squeeze blood in ciruclatory system
-Move metabolites away
-Shivering to make warm
What is the sacromere
Myosin (Thick Fil)
Actin (Thin Fil)
What does contraction look like in the sacromere
Myosin filaments force actin to move closer together pulling Z-Band closer together.
(MORE OVERLAP CONTRACTING)
A-Band
All Mysosin
No change regardless of overlap
I- Band
Actin Only
Decreases with Contraction (more overlap)
Increases with Relax (less overlap)
H Zone
Myosin Only
Decreases with Contraction (more overlap)
Increases with Relax (less overlap)
Z Band
Boarders of sacromere units
M Line
In A-Line
-Closest distance that two acton filaments can be realtive to one another la
What part of the muscle has a straiated apperance
Sacromers
-Sacromers positioned end to end form a myofibril (gives the apperance)
True or False the Skelteal Muscle cells have lots of mitochrondiea
True lots of mito and nuclei
What are myobrils?
Several Sacromeres attached together
-Many myofribris in a muscle
6 Steps of Muscle Contraction:
1)Motor neuron (somatic Nervous system) depolarizes, AP
2) At end of motor neuron Ca2+ channels open, ACH is released by excoytosis into synaptic cleft, binds muscle ACH receptors , Open Na+ channels in muscle (AP)
3)New AP travels along sacrolema, down T-Tbules and trigger Ca2+ relase from SR
3)Ca binds tropnin whic shoft tropomyosin
4)Mysosin binds ATP, release any previous actin bidning, hyrdolyzes ATP and extend out binds actin and pull actin back in for muscle contraction
5)Resets for next signal: gather Ca+ back into SR (Ca ATPASE) wait for next AP
What is the role of troponin?
Shifts off tropomyosin
What is the role of tropomysosin?
Blocks actin and myosin from binding
-Covers active site on Actin
Steps of Contraction in terms of myosin and actin?
- Ca+ binds troponin
- Tropnin moves tropomyosin off actin revealing active site
- Mysosin binds ATP (releases actin) (low energy)
- Mysosin Hydrolyzes ATP (ADP =Pi) (high energy)
- Mysosin binds actin (froming cross bridges)
6) Releases PI + ADP for powers stroke
-Mysosin back to low enegry
-Actin pulls towards center
7) New ATP Added, releases Actin (start again)
What happens if no new ATP is avaliable for myson to bind
Stuck contracted to suck to mysosin
Rigormortis
What are the 2 ways skeletal muscle becomes fatigued
1) Nervous (not enough ACH)
2)Metabolic (Not enough ATP)
What is Oxygen Debt
The increased need for oxygen after exercise after exercise in order to metobilize the byproducts of anaerobic glycolysis (lactic acid()
3 types of skeletal muscle fibres
1)Type 1: Slow Twich/Slow Oxidative
2)Type 2A: Fast Twitch/ Fast Oxidative
3)Type 2B: Slow Twitch/ Fast Glyolytic
What skeletal muscle types are red
Type 1
Type 2 A
High amounts of myoglobin
Why are Type 2B muscles white
Low Myogolbin
What muscle fibre type has the most amount of mitochondria
Type 1 (can be used for ling oeriods of time )
Type 1 Muscle
-Contraction Time
-Force Production
-Resistance to Fatigue
-Activity
-Contraction Time : SLOW
-Force Production: LOW
-Resistance to Fatigue: HIGH
-Activity: OXIDATIVE
Type 2A Muscle
-Contraction Time
-Force Production
-Resistance to Fatigue
-Activity
-Contraction Time: FAST
-Force Production: HIGH
-Resistance to Fatigue: Intermediate
-Activity: Longterm Anerobic
Type 2B Muscle
-Contraction Time
-Force Production
-Resistance to Fatigue
-Activity
-Contraction Time : VERY FAST
-Force Production: VERY HIGH
-Resistance to Fatigue: VERY LOW
-Activity: SHORT TERM ANAROBIC
What is a Motor Unit
A group of muscle cells sharing one motor nerve
How is AP different in Cardiac Muscle
PLATEAU Slow Repolarization
Prevnts Teatanus
SKELETAL MUSCLE CELL
-Control
-Striations
-Nucleus
-Shape
-Control: VOLUNTARY
-Striations: YES
-Nucleus: MULTI
-Shape : NON-BRANCHED (MYOFRIBRILS)
CARDIAC MUSCLE CELL
-Control
-Striations
-Nucleus
-Shape
-Control: INVOLUNTARY
-Striations: YES
-Nucleus: 1
-Shape : BRANCHED
SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS
-Control
-Striations
-Nucleus
-Shape
-Control: INVOLUNTARY
-Striations: NO
-Nucleus: 1
-Shape :TAPERED
How many bones in human body
206
4 fxns of bones
1)Structural Intergity and Support
2)Stores Ca
3)Protection for Ograns
4)Large bones shelter bone marrow, containes adipose tissue and stem cells
Bone is important for regulating
Ca and Phosphate
Site of blood cell formation
Long bones house what 2 things
Yellow Marrow (fats)
Red Marrow (site of RBC development)
Flat bones house what
Red Bone Marrow (site of RBC developement)
Osteoprogenitor Cells
Differentate into osteoblasts
Osteoblats –> Osteocytes
Osteoclasts
Derive from white blood cells
-Hemopoetic Stem Cells
-Release Ca+ into Blood (PTH)
Osteoblasts
Form bone
Calictonin
What are osteocytes used for
Exchange wastes and nutrients with the blood
Role of Calictonin
Decreases osteoclast
True or False Bone Cells undergo mitosis
False
Spongy bond has what type of none marrow
Red Bone Marrow
Compact bone has what type of bone marrow
Yellow Bone Marrow
At birth what type is all bone marrow
Red
What 3 Cells arise in red blood marrow
1)Red Blood CElls
2)White Blood CElls
3)Platelets
What is the periosteum of the bone responisble for?
Fibrous sheath that surrounds the long bone and is the site of attachement of muscle tissue
What occurs at the epiphyseal plate?
Growth plate
-Stopped growing = Epiphyseal line
What is the Haversian Suystem
Structucted and Highly Vascularized organization of compact bone
What makes Haversian Canals
Osteoclasts
How are lamellae formed in bones
Osteoblasts following haversian canals and lay done new matrix on tunnel walls
How do osteocytes exchange wastes in haversian system
Canaliculi
What are Volkmnann’s Canals
Cross links haversian canals
What are the 2 things a osteon is made of?
1)Lamallae
2)Haversion Canal
What do lacuna contain
Osteocytes
What is cartilage
Flexiable tissue found in joints between bones, ribcage, ear and nose
Why does cartilage heal slowly
No blood vessels
What are the 3 types of cartilage and which is the most common?
1)Hyaline (most comon reduce friction and shock btwn joints)
2)Fibrocartilage
3)Elastic
What are Fibrous Joints
Holds 2 bones tightly together , allowing for little movements
What are cartilaginous joints
Allow little to no movement btwn 2 bones tightly connected by cartilage
What are Synovial Joints
Do not connect bone by cartilae and are instead seperated by a capsule filled with synovial fluid
-Wide range of motopm
True or False women have less bone density
True Menopause
3 General Functions of Skin
- Heat Homeostasis
- Water Homeostasis
- Osmoregulation
3 Layers of Skin
1)Epidermis
2)Dermis
3)Hypodermis
What is the epidermis consist of
Stratified Squamous Epithelial Cells (Keratinocytes)
3 Specialized Cells of Epidermis?
- Ketinocytes (produce keratin, dominate)
- MelanocytesL produce Melanin
- Dendritic Cells: Pagocytes
Layers of Epidermis (superficial to deep)
Come, Lets Get Sun Burnt
Corneum
Lucidum
Granulosum
Spinosum
Basale
What is the dermis
Connective Tissue and Procides blood, nutrients and neurons to the epidermis
Fibroblasts
Hair Follciles
Blood Vessels and Nerves
Hypodermis
Subcutaneous Tissue
Adipose
Absorbs shock and provides insuation
At resting potential there is more Na+ inside or outside of cell
Oustide
Resting mebrane potential is -70 mV
Excitory do what?
Depolarize (making more positive)
Inhibitory do what?
Polarize (making more negative)
The CNS can be characterized as what?
Brain and Spinal Cord
Dendrites
Receieve a signal to be transmitted
-Where graded potentials start
Cell Body (Soma)
Where graded potentials build to trigger ATP
Axon Hillock
Generates a outgoing AP
Axon
Transmits the outgoing AP
AP jumps between what
Nodes of Ranvier
Between Swann cells
What is satatory conduction
AP jumping between nodes ranvier increasing transmission speed
What do swann cells do
Make Mylein
How does myelin afect AP
Increases the rate at which an acon can transmit AP by insulating it
White Matter v Grey Matter in Axons
Myelinated Axons are WHite
Dell Bodies are Grey
What 2 things produce Myelin
Schwann Cells PNS
Oligodendrocytes CNS
Na+/K+ ATPase moves how many Na+ in and K+ out
3 Na+ IN
2 K+ OUT
How do neurotransmitters diffuse across synaptic cleft (pre to post)
Brownian (random diffusion)
Where do electrical synapses exist
Cardiac cells
WHat happens if a neurone is fired to many times
Fatigue
-Can also be degrated by enzymes
True of False Neurotransmitters always excite post synaptic cell
False can also inhibit
How do local anestethics work
Block voltage gated Na+ Channels on nerves to prevent pain transmission
How many nodes of Ranvier need to be blocked to block a nevre
3 Consecutive
What is threshold potential
-50mV
Spatial Summation
Multiple dendrites recieve input at the SAME time and those inputs are summed up
Temproal Summation
Single densrie reveives informaion in succesion and those inputs are summed up
What are Glial Cells/Neurogila
Cells which support the nervous system
6 Types of Glial Cells
CNS
1)Ependymal Cells: Conatin CSF epitheial cells
2)Oligodendrocytes: Myelin
3)Astrocytes: Shape and physical support
4)Microglia : Macrophage of CNS
PNS
5)Satellite Cells: Support
6)Schwann: Mysosin
Somatic versus Autonmic parts of PNS
SOmatic: Skeletal Voluntary
Autonomic: Everuthing else Involuntary
Sympatetic Neuron pathway
Pre-Synaptic Neuron
Short-Axon (Ach Released)
Post Synaptic Neuron
Long Axon (Norepi released)
Target
Parasympatehtic Pathwayhe
Pre-Synaptic Neuron
Long Axon (Ach)
Post-Snaptci Neuron
Short Axon (ach)
Target
What are the 3 types of neurons in the nervous system
1)Sensory (afferent) Neurons (Back- Dorsal)
2)Interneurons
3)Motor Neurons (Front -Ventral)
What are 90% of neurons in the body
Interneurons
3 Components of the Brainstem
1)Midbrain
2)Pons
3)Medulla
Midbrain
Relay station for auditory/visual info
Pons
Facilitate transfer of motor info from motor cortex –> cerebellum
Medulla
Regulate cardiovasulcar and respiratory system (BP)
Cerebellum has what role
Coordinates and Plans Movemnt
Gyri and Sulci (folded neuronal tissue)
4 Lobes of Cerebral Cortex
1)Frontal Lobe
2) Parietal Lobe
3)Temporal Lobe
4)Occipital Lobe
Frontal Lobe
Higher Exec. Function
Motor Cortex for Voluntary Fxn
Parietal Lobe
Somatosensory Cortex
-Detect touch, pain and temp
Temporal Lobe
Integration of auditory and olfactory info
BAR
Occipital Lobe
Process visual inputs
Reflex are apart of what nervous system
Somatic (voluntary) system of PNS
SEEMS ODD JUST REMEBER
ANS is antagonist or agonist
Antagonist
The Vagus nerve is apart of what system
PNS
Sympathetic Nervous system comes from what part of spinal cord
Middle
Thoracic and Lumbar
Parasynpathetic Nervous system comes from what part of spinal cord
Top/Bottom
Cervical and Thoracic
What is the post synaptic neurostransmitter for Sympathetic
Epinenephrine and NORephinrine
(ADRENALINE from adrenal medulla)
Pathway of somatic motor neuron
Somatic motor neuron: Voluntary of PNS
ACH
Effector
MUSCLES
What is the effect of vitamin D on ca
Increase Ca Reabsorbtion
