Big Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What is the key advantage of non-screen film?

a) Fast processing
b) Fine detail
c) Less exposure to x-rays
d) Gross detail

A

B)fine detail

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2
Q

Where is the RPS based?

a) External to the practice
b) Within a practice in the local area
c) Within the practice
d) At the Royal College of Veterinary Surgeons

A

C)within the practice

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3
Q

Which is the developing agent which reduces silver bromide during processing?

a) Ammonium thiosulphate
b) Phenidone
c) Acetone
d) Propofol

A

B)phenidone

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4
Q

Underdevelopment of a film will produce an x-ray that is:

a) Too pale
b) Too dark
c) Of too high contrast
d) Of little definition

A

A)too pale

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5
Q

Which of the following disciplines is equine scintigraphy most used for?

a) Hepatic
b) Orthopaedic
c) Haematology
d) Paediatric

A

B)orthopaedic

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6
Q

Which ONE of the following substances is commonly used in protective clothing?

a) Tungsten
b) Lead
c) Aluminium
d) Copper

A

B)lead

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7
Q

What percentage of energy is lost in heat production when x-rays are formed?

a) 1%
b) 9%
c) 79%
d) 99%

A

D)99%

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8
Q

Which ultrasound technique is used to determine blood flow?

a) B Mode
b) A Mode
c) Drogbar
d) Doppler

A

D)doppler

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9
Q

The speed of intensifying screens is enhanced by having a:

a) small screen size
b) thin layer of phosphor salts
c) thin fluorescent layer of small crystals
d) thick fluorescent layer of large crystals

A

D)thick fluorescent layer of large crystals

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10
Q

What does the penumbra effect refer to?

a) A fuzzy halo around the area of interest or image
b) Darkening of the film
c) Blurring at the edges of the film
d) Lack of contrast

A

A)fuzzy halo around the area of interest or image

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11
Q

Which is the “fixing agent” used in a fixer?

a) Ammonium chloride
b) Ammonium thiosulphate
c) Potassium hydroxide
d) Sodium acetate

A

B)ammonium thiosulphate

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12
Q

What does MPD stand for?

a) Major Permissible Dose
b) Maximum Patient Dose
c) Maximum Pregnant Dose
d) Maximum Permissible Dose

A

D)maximum permissible dose

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13
Q

Which of the following is considered a stochastic effect of radiation?

a) Cataracts
b) Genetic mutation of cells of the gonads
c) Jaundice
d) Radiation burns

A

B)genetic mutation of cells of the gonands

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14
Q

Scintigraphy primarily gives information relating to:

a) Foetal development
b) Organ and tissue function
c) Genetic make-up
d) Anatomy

A

B)organ and tissue function

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15
Q

When the x-ray machine is “prepared”:

a) Electrons bombard the target
b) A high kilovoltage is passed from cathode to anode
c) The filament heats up and the anode rotates
d) X-rays are emitted from the tube head

A

C)the filament heats up and the anode rotates

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16
Q

If the kV is raised by 10 to 70kV and the mA is 20 what effect will this have on the exposure?

a) 80kV and 10mA
b) 80kV and 60mA
c) 70kV and 10mA
d) 70kV and 40mA

A

C)70kv and 10mA

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17
Q

What is a latent image?

a) An image on the film after processing
b) Calcium tungstate crystals in the film’s emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy before processing
c) Silver halide crystals in the film’s emulsion that have been exposed to radiant energy before processing
d) An image on the film before processing

A

D)An image on the film before processing

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18
Q

An x-ray film that you have processed is too dark. How would you correct this error?

a) Increase development time
b) Increase the kV
c) Reduce the exposure time
d) Reduce the film/focal time

A

C)reduce the exposure time

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19
Q

The anode of the x-ray tube head attracts:

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Atoms
d) Neutrons

A

B)electrons

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20
Q

Slow screen-film combinations:

a) Have large silver halide crystals and large screen phosphor crystals
b) Have small silver halide crystals and small screen phosphor crystals
c) Have small silver nitrate crystals and small screen phosphor crystals
d) Have small silver halide crystals and large screen phosphor crystals

A

C)have small silver nitrate crystals and small screen phosphor crystals

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21
Q

Which ONE of the following terms best describes the term “distally”

a) Towards the head
b) Towards the tail
c) Away from the nose
d) Away from the site of attachment

A

D)away from the site of attachment

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22
Q
Developer is:
A)Strongly acidic
B)	Mildly acidic
C)	Neutral
C)	Alkaline
A

D)alkaline

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23
Q

Which ONE of the following has a higher atomic number than bone?

a) Gas
b) Fat
c) Soft tissue
d) Metal

A

D)metal

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24
Q

Which technique would be used to demonstrate joint space?

a) Fistulography
b) Arthrography
c) Bronchography
d) Venography

A

B)arthrography

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25
Q

X-rays are members of the:

a) Electro-magnetic spectrum
b) Radio wave spectrum
c) Electro-radiation spectrum
d) Radio frequency spectrum

A

A)electro magnetic spectrum

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26
Q

Which ONE of the following would NOT reduce fogging?

a) Collimate beam
b) Use of a grid
c) Correct development technique
d) Prolonged storage

A

D)prolonged storage

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27
Q

The target (anode) is set at which angle?

a) 20°
b) 25°
c) 30°
d) 35°

A

A)20

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28
Q

When positioning a dog for a BVA/Kennel Club hip radiograph, the beam should be centred on:

a) The acetabula
b) The pubic symphysis
c) The sacrum
d) The wings of ilium

A

B)the pubic symphysis

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29
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT an advantage of rare earth screens?

a) Increased exposure time
b) Decreased patient dose
c) Improved image quality
d) Reduced tube current

A

A)increased exposure time

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30
Q

Which ONE of the following chemicals is NOT a constituent of the fixer?

a) Ammonium Thiosulphate
b) Boric Acid
c) Potassium Bromide
d) Sodium Acetate

A

C)postassium bromide

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31
Q

A tight fitting lid is needed on the developer within the automatic processor to prevent:

a) Diffusion
b) Reduction
c) Osmosis
d) Oxidation

A

D)oxidation

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32
Q

Lateral radiographs should be viewed so that:

a) The spine runs parallel to the top of the light box and the head points towards viewer’s left hand side
b) The spine runs vertically to the top of the light box and the head points towards the viewer’s right hand side
c) The spine runs parallel to the top of the light box, with the head pointing uppermost
d) The spine runs vertically to the top of the light box, with the head pointing downwards

A

A)the spine runs parallel to the top of the light and the head points towards viewes left hand side

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33
Q

The “subbing layer” of a piece of x-ray film could also be called the:

a) Adhesive layer
b) Emulsion layer
c) Protective layer
d) Film base

A

A)adhesive layer

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34
Q

Which of the following contrast media should be used for myelograms?

a) Sodium iothalmate
b) Iopamidol
c) Sodium ioxagate
d) Sodium diatrizoate

A

B)iopamidol

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35
Q

Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence when using an automatic processor?

a) Develop, fix, wash, dry
b) Fix, wash, developer, stop, dry
c) Develop, stop, fix, wash, dry
d) Wash, develop, stop, fix, dry

A

A)develop, fix, wash, dry

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36
Q

What does MRI stand for?

a) Medical Resonance Imaging
b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
c) Medial Resonance Imaging
d) Magnetic Resistance Imaging

A

B)magnetic resonance imaging

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37
Q

In a typical practice the controlled area is within a _________radius from the primary beam

a) 6 metres
b) 4 metres
c) 2 metres
d) 0.5 metres

A

C) 2 metres

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38
Q

A radiograph requires an exposure of 20mAs when taken at a film focal distance of 90cm without a grid. What exposure will be required if a grid with a grid factor of 4 is used?a) 5mAs

b) 30mAs
c) 40mAs
d) 80mAs

A

D)80mAs

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39
Q

Which of the following positions is recommended for radiography when working with a dyspnoeic patient?

a) Left lateral recumbency
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Sternal recumbency
d) Dorsal recumbency

A

C)sternal recumbency

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40
Q

Which one of the following is used as a filter to stop low energy x-rays leaving the tube window?
a) Copper

b) Lead
c) Aluminium
d) Tungsten

A

C)aluminium

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41
Q

A veterinary surgeon has performed a contrast study of the urethra by introducing contrast medium via a catheter. Which of the following terms would describe this technique?

a) Intravenous urography
b) Ureterography
c) Positive contrast cystography
d) Retrograde urethrography

A

D)retrograde urethrography

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42
Q

A dog’s metacarpal is radiographed using the following exposure factors: FFD = 70cm, kV = 45kV, mA = 20mA, time = 0.3 seconds. What are the new exposure factors if the time is increased to 0.4seconds?

a) FFD = 70cm, kV = 40kV, mA = 20mA
b) FFD = 70cm, kV = 45kV, mA = 15mA
c) FFD = 75cm, kV = 45kV, mA= 20mA
d) FFD = 70cm, kV = 45kV, mA = 27mA

A

B)FFD = 70CM, Kv = 45 kV, mA = 15mA

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43
Q

Altering which exposure factor will affect the quality of the x-ray beam produced?

a) mA
b) time
c) Film focal distance
d) kV

A

A)mA

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44
Q

All of the following are properties of x-rays except:

a) They travel in straight lines
b) The affect photographic emulsion
c) They can penetrate all materials to some degree
d) They can be reflected by some materials

A

C)they can penetrate all materials to some degree

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45
Q

Which statement is true about different types of grid?

a) Potter Bucky is a stationary grid
b) Parallel grids can result in grid cut off at the edge of the radiograph
c) Focused and pseudo-focused grids are the same type of grid
d) For all types of grid, the exposure factors needed are lower than without the grid

A

B)parallel grids can result in grid cut off at edge of the radiograph

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46
Q

Heat is lost in the rotating anode x-ray tube head by:

a) Conduction through copper
b) Convection through air
c) Radiation through the vacuum
d) Evaporation

A

A)conduction through copper

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47
Q

A vacuum is present in the tubehead to prevent:

a) scatter
b) absorption
c) damage to the tube
d) interactions in an inappropriate place

A

D)interactions in an inappropriate place

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48
Q

As the electrons reach the target, they produce x-rays by:

a) absorption
b) scatter
c) sudden braking
d) heating

A

C)sudden braking

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49
Q

When compared with bone, the attenuation of lung tissue is:

a) higher
b) lower
c) similar
d) identical

A

B)lower

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50
Q

Developer is:

a) Strongly acidic
b) Mildly acidic
c) Neutral
d) Alkaline

A

D)alkaline

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51
Q

Which ONE of the following has a higher atomic number than bone?

a) Gas
b) Fat
c) Soft tissue
d) Metal

A

D)metal

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52
Q

The safelight bulb must have a maximum wattage of:

a) 15
b) 25
c) 30
d) 60

A

A)15

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53
Q

The target (anode) is set at which angle?

a) 20°
b) 25°
c) 30°
d) 35°

A

A)20

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54
Q

When positioning a dog for a BVA/Kennel Club hip radiograph, the beam should be centred on:

a) The acetabula
b) The pubic symphysis
c) The sacrum
d) The wings of ilium

A

B)the pubic symphysis

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55
Q

The carpus is found in which part of the forelimb?

a) proximal
b) distal
c) medial
d) lateral

A

B)distal

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56
Q

Introduction of air into the bladder, followed by water soluble iodine-based contrast medium is known as:

a) Pneumocystogram
b) Vagino-urethrogram
c) Double contrast urethrogram
d) Double contrast cystogram

A

D)double contrast cystogram

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57
Q

Barium sulphate should not be used if a patient:

a) Has a suspected perforation
b) Has been sedated
c) Has a severe swallowing difficulty
d) All of the above

A

D)all of the above

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58
Q

If a grid factor of 3 was used, then:

a) 3 would represent the number of lines per cm
b) The difference between the height and width of the lead strips would be 3cm
c) The mAs should be multiplied by 3
d) The kV should be divided by 3

A

C)the mAs should be multiplied by 3

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59
Q

A relatively white X-ray image would be due to the tissue in question possessing:

a) a high atomic number
b) a low specific gravity
c) little fat
d) a low density

A

A)a high atomic number

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60
Q

The statement relating to digital radiography that is true is:-

a. A special X-ray machine is needed to take digital images
b. The digital image cannot be printed
c. An special imaging plate is needed to capture the image
d. Manipulation of the resultant image is not possible

A

C)a special imaging plate is needed to capture the image

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61
Q

A long-term effect of exposure to radiation is:-

a. Carcinogenesis
b. Nausea
c. Diarrhoea
d. Fever

A

A)carcinogenesis

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62
Q

A positive contrast cystogram describes a radiograph of the:-

a. Bladder using iodine as contrast medium
b. Urethra using iodine as contrast medium
c. Bladder using air as contrast medium
d. Urethra using air as contrast medium

A

A)bladder using iodine as contrast medium

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63
Q

A radiograph taken of the limb extremities in abduction means that the limb is:-

a. Fixed in its normal position
b. Moved towards the midline of the body
c. Drawn away from the midline of the body
d. Rotated internally

A

C)drawn away from the midline of the body

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64
Q

Gonadal exposure to radiation should be minimised to prevent:-

a. Erythema
b. Somatic effects
c. Genetic effects
d. Cataracts

A

C)genetic effects

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65
Q

Lithium fluoride crystals are found in:-

a. Intensifying screens
b. Fixer solution
c. Radiographic emulsion
d. Thermoluminescent dosimeters

A

D)thermoluminescent dosimeters

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66
Q

Radiographic definition is directly influenced by the:-

a. Wavelength of X-rays
b. mAs
c. Object-film distance
d. Tissue opacity

A

C)object film distance

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67
Q

The body tissues which are most radiosensitive are:-

a. Central nervous system organs
b. Blood-forming organs
c. Muscular organs
d. Solid visceral organs

A

B)blood forming organs

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68
Q

The cathode of the X-ray machine is:-

a. Negatively charged
b. Neutral
c. Positively charged
d. Angled at 20 degrees

A

A)negatively charged

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69
Q

Developer solution:-

a. Removes exposed silver halide from the film
b. Converts exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver
c. Converts unexposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver
d. Removes unexposed silver halide from the film

A

B)converts exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver

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70
Q

The exposure factor that controls the penetrating power of the X-ray beam is the:-

a. Time
b. Kilovoltage
c. Milliamperage
d. Line voltage

A

B)kilovoltage

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71
Q

The invisible image produced in the film emulsion by exposure to radiation or light is called the:-

a. Radiologic image
b. Latent image
c. Manifest image
d. Photographic image

A

B)latent image

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72
Q

The mA primarily affects the:-

a. Radiographic contrast
b. Penetrating power of the X-rays
c. Wavelength of the X-rays
d. Blackness of the radiograph

A

D)blackness of the radiograph

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73
Q

The metal used for the target of the X-ray machine is:-

a. Aluminium
b. Copper
c. Tungsten
d. Lead

A

C)tungsten

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74
Q

The Radiation Protection Supervisor is a person:-

a. Who tests the X-ray monitoring badges
b. Designated to take X-rays
c. With experience and a degree in radiology but who does not work at the practice
d. Within the practice responsible for safe radiographic procedures

A

D)within the practice responsible for safe radiographic procedures

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75
Q

Exposure to radiation is measured in a dosemeter in:-

a. Millisieverts
b. Millirads
c. Millirems
d. Milligrays

A

A)millisieverts

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76
Q

When performing CT imaging, the ‘scout’ is the name given to the:-

a. Initial scan that plans positioning
b. Scan of the tissues adjacent to the area of interest
c. Individual slice within each scan
d. Series of scans produced

A

A)initial scan that plans positioning

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77
Q

When the filament of the cathode is heated:-

a. Neutrons are emitted
b. Atoms are emitted
c. X-rays are emitted
d. Electrons are emitted

A

D)electrons are emitted

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78
Q

When the size of the focal spot is decreased:-

a. The inverse square law should be applied
b. Penumbra will decrease
c. Penetrating power increases
d. Density will double

A

B)penumbra will decrease

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79
Q

When the X-ray machine is ‘prepared’ prior to exposure:-

a. The filament heats up and the anode rotates
b. X-rays are emitted from the tube head
c. A high kilovoltage is passed from cathode to anode
d. Electrons bombard the target

A

A)the filament heats up and the anode rotates

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80
Q

A radiograph demonstrating a complete lack of penumbra is described as being:-

a. Distorted
b. Magnified
c. Sharp in detail
d. Low in density

A

C)sharp in detail

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4
5
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81
Q

A radiograph of the thorax should be taken:-

a. Using the longest exposure time possible
b. Using the slowest speed film and screen combination
c. On full inspiration
d. On full expiration

A

C)on full inspiration

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82
Q

A radiograph taken of the shoulder joint, using contrast medium, is an example of:-

a. Arthrography
b. Urethrography
c. Myelography
d. Angiography

A

A)arthrography

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83
Q

A radiograph taken using an mAs of 8 with the mA set at 50 will use an exposure time of:-

a. 0.58 second
b. 0.16 second
c. 0.32 second
d. 0.62 second

A

B)0.16 second

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84
Q

On ultrasound examination, fluid within the urinary bladder is described as being:-

a. Hypoechoic
b. Hyperechoic
c. Isoechoic
d. Anechoic

A

D)anechoic

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85
Q

A radiographic view of the scapula would include the:-

a. Acromion process
b. Transverse process
c. Coronoid process
d. Anconeal process

A

A)acromion process

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86
Q

Computer aided tomography is carried out using:-

a. Magnetic waves
b. X-rays
c. Radio waves
d. Gamma rays

A

B)x-rays

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87
Q

An intravenous contrast agent commonly used in MRI studies is:-

a. High molecular weight iodine
b. Meglumine
c. Gadolinium
d. Low molecular weight iodine

A

C)gadolinium

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88
Q

During an ultrasound examination, gel is placed on the animal’s skin to:-

a. Clean the skin
b. Stop the transducer head from overheating
c. Act as a coupling medium
d. Enable the transducer to move smoothly

A

C)act as a coupling medium

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89
Q

If the kilovoltage is increased by 10 the mAs should be:-

a. Doubled
b. Halved
c. Reduced by 20
d. Reduced by 10

A

B)halved

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90
Q

If the mA is set at 50 and the exposure time is 0.5 second, the mAs will be:-

a. 25
b. 100
c. 250
d. 55

A

A)25

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91
Q

More scattered radiation will be produced when using a:-

a. Low kV
b. Low mAs
c. High mAs
d. High kV

A

D)high kV

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92
Q

Scintigraphy primarily gives information relating to:-

a. Anatomy
b. Fetal development
c. Genetic make-up
d. Organ and tissue function

A

D)organ and tissue function

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93
Q

The anatomical structure that will exhibit the highest subject contrast is the:-

a. Bladder
b. Heart
c. Femur
d. Lung

A

D)lung

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94
Q

The mechanism designed to blur out grid lines on a radiograph is the:-

a. Line focus
b. Rare earth intensifying screens
c. Potter-Bucky device
d. Rotating anode

A

C)potter bucky device

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95
Q

The part of a patient’s body you should position on the cassette to view the olecranon process is the:-

a. Hock
b. Elbow
c. Hip
d. Stifle

A

B)elbow

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96
Q

The radiographic quality of the X-ray beam is determined by the:-

a. Heat of the filament
b. Milliamperage
c. Kilovoltage
d. Thickness of tissue

A

C)kilovoltage

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97
Q

The tissue that cannot be imaged by ultrasound is:-

a. Fat
b. Muscle
c. Bone
d. Blood

A

C)bone

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98
Q

The two factors that control the quantity of X-rays produced in the primary beam are:-

a. kV and mA
b. kV and time
c. mA and time
d. mA and line focus

A

C)mA and time

99
Q

The ultrasound transducer that provides the largest field of view is a:-

a. Window transducer
b. Longitudinal transducer
c. Sector transducer
d. Linear transducer

A

C)sector transducer

100
Q

To reduce radiographic contrast the exposure factors should be changed by:-

a. Decreasing the mAs
b. Decreasing the kV
c. Increasing the kV
d. Increasing the mAs

A

C)increasing the kV

101
Q

When taking a radiograph the FFD is set at 75 cm and the mAs is 10. If the FFD is increased to 150 cm the new mAs should be set at:-

a. 5
b. 20
c. 40
d. 80

102
Q

100 mA is equal to:-

a. 0.1 ampere
b. 0.001 ampere
c. 1.0 ampere
d. 0.01 ampere

A

A)0.1 ampere

103
Q

A completely black radiograph will have been:-

a. Exposed to radiation but not processed
b. Not exposed to radiation and processed
c. Exposed to radiation and processed
d. Not exposed to radiation and not processed

A

C)exposed to radiation and processed

104
Q

A grid that has progressively diverging lead slats is called a:-

a. Psuedo-focused grid
b. Potter-Bucky diaphragm
c. Linear grid
d. Focused grid

A

D)focused grid

105
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging uses:-

a. Radio and gamma rays
b. High energy X-rays
c. Microwaves
d. Electromagnetic and radio waves

A

D)electromagnetic and radio waves

106
Q

A radiograph was taken using an mAs of 8. If a grid with a grid factor of 2.5 is used, the mAs should be changed to:-

a. 10.5
b. 3
c. 20
d. 16

107
Q

A view of the greater trochanter would be shown on a radiograph of the:-

a. Radius
b. Femur
c. Scapula
d. Humerus

108
Q

Barium sulphate may be used as a contrast agent in the:-

a. Bladder
b. Spine
c. Joint space
d. Small intestine

A

D)small intestine

109
Q

Calcium tungstate intensifying screens emit:-

a. Blue light and are called monochromatic
b. Green light and are called monochromatic
c. Green light and are called orthochromatic
d. Blue light and are called orthochromatic

A

A)blue light and are called monochromatic

110
Q

Collimation of the primary beam will reduce the effects of:-

a. Movement blur
b. Definition
c. Scattered radiation
d. Overexposure

A

C)scattered radiation

111
Q

In relation to diagnostic imaging, the terms T1 and T2 weighted refer specifically to:-

a. MRI
b. Scintigraphy
c. CT
d. Fluoroscop

112
Q

If an X-ray machine is set with a time of 0.2 second and an mAs of 12, the mA setting will be:-

a. 6
b. 240
c. 24
d. 60

113
Q

If an mAs of 1.5 has an mA setting of 30, the exposure time is:-

a. 0.03 second
b. 0.005 second
c. 0.05 second
d. 0.3 second

A

C)0.05 second

114
Q

Increasing the film-focal distance will:-

a. Reduce radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs
b. Improve radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs
c. Reduce radiographic sharpness and require a lower mAs
d. Improve radiographic sharpness and require a lower mAs

A

B)improve radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs

115
Q

Increasing the mAs will produce:-

a. More X-ray photons with less penetrating power
b. More X-ray photons with the same penetrating power
c. Fewer X-ray photons with more penetrating power
d. More X-ray photons with more penetrating power

A

B)more x-ray photons with the same penetrating power

116
Q

Positive contrast agents have a:-

a. High atomic number and are radio-opaque
b. Low atomic number and are radio-opaque
c. High atomic number and are radiolucent
d. Low atomic number and are radiolucent

A

A)high atomic number and are radio opaque

117
Q

The calcaneus would be seen on a radiograph of the:-

a. Stifle
b. Shoulder
c. Pelvis
d. Hock

118
Q

The percentage of energy converted to X-rays when electrons strike the anode is:-

a. 1%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 99%

119
Q

The positioning aid that should NOT be used when positioning a conscious patient is a:-

a. Trough
b. Foam wedge
c. Rope tie
d. Sandbag

A

C)rope tie

120
Q

The primary purpose of the aluminium filter in the X-ray tube head is to:-

a. Eliminate long wavelength photons
b. Reduce scattered radiation
c. Increase definition
d. Reduce exposure time

A

A)eliminate long wavelength photons

121
Q

The type of grid that moves beneath the X-ray table top is a:-

a. Focused grid
b. Potter-Bucky grid
c. Parallel grid
d. Pseudo-focused grid

A

B)potter bucky grid

122
Q

The diagnostic imaging technique that requires an image plate to capture the image is:-

a. Analogue radiography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Computed radiography
d. Computed tomography

A

C)computed radiography

123
Q

A cat that is to undergo bilateral rhinoscopy should be positioned in:-

a. Right lateral recumbency
b. Dorsal recumbency
c. Left lateral recumbency
d. Sternal recumbency

A

D)sternal recumbency

124
Q

When the kV is increased, the primary beam is of:-

a. Lower frequency and shorter wavelength
b. Lower frequency and longer wavelength
c. Higher frequency and longer wavelength
d. Higher frequency and shorter wavelength

A

D)higher frequency and shorter wavelength

125
Q

A dog that is to undergo colonoscopy should be positioned in:-

a. Dorsal recumbency
b. Left lateral recumbency
c. Right lateral recumbency
d. Sternal recumbency

A

B)left lateral recumbency

126
Q

A dog positioned for a dorsoplantar view of his paw would have his:-

a. Front paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film
b. Hind paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film
c. Hind paw on the cassette with the top of his foot in closest contact with the film
d. Front paw on the cassette with the top of his foot in closest contact with the film

A

B)hind paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film

127
Q

A dorsoventral view of the abdomen requires the patient to be positioned on its:-

a. Right lateral side
b. Left lateral side
c. Back
d. Sternum

128
Q

A grid is recommended for use with body parts that have a minimum thickness of:-

a. 5 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 25 cm

129
Q

A radiograph with an image that is blurred has poor:-

a. Contrast
b. Density
c. Resolution
d. Definition

A

D)definition

130
Q

To confirm volvulus in a dog suspected of having a GDV, the abdomen should be radiographed with the dog in:-

a. Right lateral recumbency
b. Dorsal recumbency
c. Left lateral recumbency
d. Ventral recumbency

A

A)right lateral recumbency

131
Q

An abnormality of the glenoid cavity would be demonstrated on a radiograph of the:-

a. Carpus
b. Scapula
c. Pelvis
d. Skull

132
Q

Back-scatter can be prevented by:-

a. Using a focused grid
b. Collimation of the primary beam
c. Placing a lead sheet beneath the cassette
d. The use of a compression band

A

C)placing a lead sheet beneath the cassette

133
Q

The imaging technique that will give the most accurate definition of the brain is:-

a. Computed radiography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Computed tomography
d. Fluoroscopy

A

B)magnetic resonance imaging

134
Q

Erythema as a result of exposure to radiation is an example of a:-

a. Genetic effect
b. Somatic effect
c. Carcinogenic effect
d. Teratogenic effect

A

B)somatic effect

135
Q

The technique that is preferred for imaging thoracic masses, as it is less susceptible to movement artefacts, is:-

a. Computed radiography
b. Computed tomography
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Digital radiography

A

B)computed tomography

136
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease would be demonstrated on a radiograph of the:-

a. Hip joint
b. Stifle joint
c. Elbow joint
d. Cervical vertebrae

A

A)hip joint

137
Q

Portal venography is used to visualise the:-

a. Bladder
b. Heart
c. Small intestine
d. Liver

138
Q

The imaging modality that uses piezoelectric energy is:-

a. Fluoroscopy
b. Doppler ultrasound
c. Computed tomography
d. Magnetic resonance imaging

A

B)doppler ultrasound

139
Q

The most suitable contrast agent for use in the intact small intestine is:-

a. Barium sulphate
b. Iodine
c. Air
d. Carbon dioxide

A

A)barium sulphate

140
Q

The statement concerning radiation safety that is true is:-

a. Lead protective clothing should be radiographed regularly to check for cracks
b. Radiation monitoring badges should be worn inside the lead apron
c. A radiographer’s hands may be in the primary beam as long as they are protected by lead gloves
d. Lead aprons should be neatly folded when not in use

A

A)lead protective clothing should be radiographed regularly to check for cracks

141
Q

When manual processing X-ray film, the wattage of a safelight bulb should not exceed:-

a. 40 Watts
b. 15 Watts
c. 20 Watts
d. 10 Watts

A

B)15 watts

142
Q

When using a grid the mAs should be multiplied by the grid:-

a. Size
b. Focus
c. Ratio
d. Factor

143
Q

If a small proportion of sound waves are reflected back to the ultrasound transducer, they are said to be:-

a. Hypoechoic
b. Isoechoic
c. Hyperechoic
d. Anechoic

A

A)hypoechoic

144
Q

The most suitable imaging technique to perform when 3-D information about the anconeal process is required is:

a. Computed tomography
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Ultrasonography
d. Analogue radiography

A

A)computed tomography

145
Q

The statement relating to digital radiography that is true is:-

a) A special X-ray machine is needed to take digital images
b) The digital image cannot be printed
c) An special imaging plate is needed to capture the image
d) Manipulation of the resultant image is not possible

A

A)a special x-ray machine is needed to take digital images

146
Q

A long-term effect of exposure to radiation is:-

a. Nausea
b. Fever
c. Diarrhoea
d. Carcinogenesis

A

D)carcinogenesis

147
Q

A positive contrast cystogram describes a radiograph of the:-

a. Bladder using air as contrast medium
b. Urethra using air as contrast medium
c. Bladder using iodine as contrast medium
d. Urethra using iodine as contrast medium

A

C)bladder using iodine as contrast medium

148
Q

A radiograph taken of the limb extremities in abduction means that the limb is:-

a. Rotated internally
b. Moved towards the midline of the body
c. Drawn away from the midline of the body
d. Fixed in its normal position

A

C)drawn away from the midline of the body

149
Q

Gonadal exposure to radiation should be minimised to prevent:-

a. Somatic effects
b. Genetic effects
c. Cataracts
d. Erythema

A

B)genetic effects

150
Q

Lithium fluoride crystals are found in:-

a. Intensifying screens
b. Radiographic emulsion
c. Fixer solution
d. Thermoluminescent dosimeters

A

D)thermoluminescent dosimeters

151
Q

Radiographic definition is directly influenced by the:-

a. Wavelength of X-rays
b. Object-film distance
c. Tissue opacity
d. mAs

A

B)object film distance

152
Q

The body tissues which are most radiosensitive are:-

a. Muscular organs
b. Solid visceral organs
c. Central nervous system organs
d. Blood-forming organs

A

D)blood forming organs

153
Q

The cathode of the X-ray machine is:-

a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Angled at 20 degrees
d. Neutral

A

B)negatively charged

154
Q

Developer solution:-

a. Converts unexposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver
b. Removes unexposed silver halide from the film
c. Converts exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver
d. Removes exposed silver halide from the film

A

C)converts exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver

155
Q

The exposure factor that controls the penetrating power of the X-ray beam is the:-

a. Time
b. Milliamperage
c. Line voltage
d. Kilovoltage

A

D)kilovoltage

156
Q

The invisible image produced in the film emulsion by exposure to radiation or light is called the:-

a. Manifest image
b. Photographic image
c. Radiologic image
d. Latent image

A

D)latent image

157
Q

The mA primarily affects the:-

a. Wavelength of the X-rays
b. Penetrating power of the X-rays
c. Blackness of the radiograph
d. Radiographic contrast

A

C)blackness of the radiograph

158
Q

The metal used for the target of the X-ray machine is:-

a. Lead
b. Tungsten
c. Copper
d. Aluminium

A

B)tungsten

159
Q

The Radiation Protection Supervisor is a person:-

a. With experience and a degree in radiology but who does not work at the practice
b. Who tests the X-ray monitoring badges
c. Designated to take X-rays
d. Within the practice responsible for safe radiographic procedures

A

D)within the practice responsible for safe radiographic procedures

160
Q

Exposure to radiation is measured in a dosemeter in:-

a. Millirems
b. Millisieverts
c. Milligrays
d. Millirads

A

B)millisieverts

161
Q

When performing CT imaging, the ‘scout’ is the name given to the:-

a. Individual slice within each scan
b. Series of scans produced
c. Initial scan that plans positioning
d. Scan of the tissues adjacent to the area of interest

A

C)initial scan that plans positioning

162
Q

When the filament of the cathode is heated:-

a. Atoms are emitted
b. Neutrons are emitted
c. X-rays are emitted
d. Electrons are emitted

A

D)electrons are emitted

163
Q

When the size of the focal spot is decreased:-

a. Penumbra will decrease
b. Penetrating power increases
c. The inverse square law should be applied
d. Density will double

A

A)penumbra will decrease

164
Q

When the X-ray machine is ‘prepared’ prior to exposure:-

a. The filament heats up and the anode rotates
b. Electrons bombard the target
c. X-rays are emitted from the tube head
d. A high kilovoltage is passed from cathode to anode

A

A)the filament heats up and the anode rotates

165
Q

A radiograph demonstrating a complete lack of penumbra is described as being:-

a. Magnified
b. Low in density
c. Sharp in detail
d. Distorted

A

C)sharp in detail

166
Q

A radiograph of the thorax should be taken:-

a. On full expiration
b. On full inspiration
c. Using the longest exposure time possible
d. Using the slowest speed film and screen combination

A

B)on full inspiration

167
Q

A radiograph taken of the shoulder joint, using contrast medium, is an example of:-

a. Angiography
b. Urethrography
c. Arthrography
d. Myelography

A

C)arthrography

168
Q

A radiograph taken using an mAs of 8 with the mA set at 50 will use an exposure time of:-

a. 0.16 second
b. 0.32 second
c. 0.58 second
d. 0.62 second

A

A)0.16 second

169
Q

On ultrasound examination, fluid within the urinary bladder is described as being:-

a. Isoechoic
b. Hyperechoic
c. Anechoic
d. Hypoechoic

A

C)anechoic

170
Q

A radiographic view of the scapula would include the:-

a. Transverse process
b. Anconeal process
c. Acromion process
d. Coronoid process

A

C)acromion process

171
Q

Computer aided tomography is carried out using:-

a. Magnetic waves
b. Radio waves
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays

172
Q

An intravenous contrast agent commonly used in MRI studies is:-

a. Low molecular weight iodine
b. High molecular weight iodine
c. Meglumine
d. Gadolinium

A

D)gadolinium

173
Q

During an ultrasound examination, gel is placed on the animal’s skin to:-

a. Clean the skin
b. Enable the transducer to move smoothly
c. Stop the transducer head from overheating
d. Act as a coupling medium

A

D)act as a coupling medium

174
Q

If the kilovoltage is increased by 10 the mAs should be:-

a. Halved
b. Reduced by 20
c. Reduced by 10
d. Doubled

175
Q

If the mA is set at 50 and the exposure time is 0.5 second, the mAs will be:-

a. 55
b. 100
c. 25
d. 250

176
Q

More scattered radiation will be produced when using a:-

a. High kV
b. High mAs
c. Low mAs
d. Low kV

177
Q

Scintigraphy primarily gives information relating to:-

a. Genetic make-up
b. Organ and tissue function
c. Foetal development
d. Anatomy

A

B)organ and tissue function

178
Q

The anatomical structure that will exhibit the highest subject contrast is the:-

a. Femur
b. Heart
c. Bladder
d. Lung

179
Q

The mechanism designed to blur out grid lines on a radiograph is the:-

a. Rotating anode
b. Potter-Bucky device
c. Line focus
d. Rare earth intensifying screens

A

B)potter bucky device

180
Q

The part of a patient’s body you should position on the cassette to view the olecranon process is the:-

a. Stifle
b. Hock
c. Elbow
d. Hip

181
Q

The radiographic quality of the X-ray beam is determined by the:-

a. Heat of the filament
b. Kilovoltage
c. Milliamperage
d. Thickness of tissue

A

C)millamperage

182
Q

The tissue that cannot be imaged by ultrasound is:-

a. Muscle
b. Bone
c. Fat
d. Blood

183
Q

The two factors that control the quantity of X-rays produced in the primary beam are:-

a. kV and time
b. mA and time
c. kV and mA
d. mA and line fo

A

B)mA and time

184
Q

The ultrasound transducer that provides the largest field of view is a:-

a. Sector transducer
b. Linear transducer
c. Window transducer
d. Longitudinal transducer

A

A)sector transducer

185
Q

To reduce radiographic contrast the exposure factors should be changed by:-

a. Decreasing the kV
b. Increasing the mAs
c. Increasing the kV
d. Decreasing the mAs

A

C)increasing the kV

186
Q

When taking a radiograph the FFD is set at 75 cm and the mAs is 10. If the FFD is increased to 150 cm the new mAs should be set at:-

a. 80
b. 20
c. 40
d. 5

187
Q

100 mA is equal to:-

a. 1.0 ampere
b. 0.01 ampere
c. 0.001 ampere
d. 0.1 ampere

A

D)0.2ampere

188
Q

A completely black radiograph will have been:-

a. Exposed to radiation and processed
b. Not exposed to radiation and not processed
c. Exposed to radiation but not processed
d. Not exposed to radiation and processed

A

A)exposed to radiation and processed

189
Q

A grid that has progressively diverging lead slats is called a:-

a. Psuedo-focused grid
b. Potter-Bucky diaphragm
c. Linear grid
d. Focused grid

A

D)focused grid

190
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging uses:-

a. Radio and gamma rays
b. Electromagnetic and radio waves
c. High energy X-rays
d. Microwaves

A

B)electromagnetic and radio waves

191
Q

A radiograph was taken using an mAs of 8. If a grid with a grid factor of 2.5 is used, the mAs should be changed to:-

a. 10.5
b. 20
c. 3
d. 16

192
Q

A view of the greater trochanter would be shown on a radiograph of the:-

a. Scapula
b. Femur
c. Radius
d. Humerus

193
Q

Barium sulphate may be used as a contrast agent in the:-

a. Joint space
b. Bladder
c. Spine
d. Small intestine

A

D)small intestine

194
Q

Calcium tungstate intensifying screens emit:-

a. Blue light and are called monochromatic
b. Green light and are called monochromatic
c. Blue light and are called orthochromatic
d. Green light and are called orthochromatic

A

A)blue light and are called monochromatic

195
Q

Collimation of the primary beam will reduce the effects of:-

a. Overexposure
b. Movement blur
c. Scattered radiation
d. Definition

A

C)scattered radiation

196
Q

In relation to diagnostic imaging, the terms T1 and T2 weighted refer specifically to:-

a. CT
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Scintigraphy
d. MRI

197
Q

If an X-ray machine is set with a time of 0.2 second and an mAs of 12, the mA setting will be:-

a. 6
b. 24
c. 240
d. 60

198
Q

If an mAs of 1.5 has an mA setting of 30, the exposure time is:-

a. 0.05 second
b. 0.3 second
c. 0.03 second
d. 0.005 second

A

A)0.05 second

199
Q

Increasing the film-focal distance will:-

a. Reduce radiographic sharpness and require a lower mAs
b. Improve radiographic sharpness and require a lower mAs
c. Reduce radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs
d. Improve radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs

A

C)reduce radiographic sharpness but require a higher mAs

200
Q

Increasing the mAs will produce:-

a. More X-ray photons with more penetrating power
b. More X-ray photons with less penetrating power
c. More X-ray photons with the same penetrating power
d. Fewer X-ray photons with more penetrating power

A

C)more x-ray photons with the same penetrating power

201
Q

Positive contrast agents have a:-

a. High atomic number and are radiolucent
b. High atomic number and are radio-opaque
c. Low atomic number and are radio-opaque
d. Low atomic number and are radiolucent

A

B)high atomic number and are radio opaque

202
Q

The calcaneus would be seen on a radiograph of the:-

a. Hock
b. Shoulder
c. Stifle
d. Pelvis

203
Q

The percentage of energy converted to X-rays when electrons strike the anode is:-

a. 50%
b. 99%
c. 1%
d. 20%

204
Q

The positioning aid that should NOT be used when positioning a conscious patient is a:-

a. Foam wedge
b. Sandbag
c. Trough
d. Rope tie

A

D)rope tie

205
Q

The primary purpose of the aluminium filter in the X-ray tube head is to:-

a. Increase definition
b. Eliminate long wavelength photons
c. Reduce exposure time
d. Reduce scattered radiation

A

B)eliminate long wavelength photons

206
Q

The type of grid that moves beneath the X-ray table top is a:-

a. Pseudo-focused grid
b. Potter-Bucky grid
c. Parallel grid
d. Focused grid

A

B)potter bucky grid

207
Q

The diagnostic imaging technique that requires an image plate to capture the image is:-

a. Computed tomography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Analogue radiography
d. Computed radiography

A

A)computed tomography

208
Q

A cat that is to undergo bilateral rhinoscopy should be positioned in:-

a. Sternal recumbency
b. Right lateral recumbency
c. Left lateral recumbency
d. Dorsal recumbency

A

A)sternal recumbency

209
Q

When the kV is increased, the primary beam is of:-

a. Higher frequency and shorter wavelength
b. Higher frequency and longer wavelength
c. Lower frequency and shorter wavelength
d. Lower frequency and longer wavelength

A

A)higher frequency and shorter wavelength

210
Q

A dog that is to undergo colonoscopy should be positioned in:-

a. Sternal recumbency
b. Right lateral recumbency
c. Left lateral recumbency
d. Dorsal recumbency

A

C)left lateral recumbency

211
Q

A dog positioned for a dorsoplantar view of his paw would have his:-

a. Hind paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film
b. Front paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film
c. Front paw on the cassette with the top of his foot in closest contact with the film
d. Hind paw on the cassette with the top of his foot in closest contact with the film

A

B)front paw on the cassette with his pads in closest contact with the film

212
Q

A dorsoventral view of the abdomen requires the patient to be positioned on its:-

a. Left lateral side
b. Right lateral side
c. Back
d. Sternum

213
Q

A grid is recommended for use with body parts that have a minimum thickness of:-

a. 10 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 25 cm

214
Q

A radiograph with an image that is blurred has poor:-

a. Definition
b. Resolution
c. Contrast
d. Density

A

A)definition

215
Q

To confirm volvulus in a dog suspected of having a GDV, the abdomen should be radiographed with the dog in:-

a. Dorsal recumbency
b. Left lateral recumbency
c. Ventral recumbency
d. Right lateral recumbency

A

D)right lateral recumbency

216
Q

An abnormality of the glenoid cavity would be demonstrated on a radiograph of the:-

a. Pelvis
b. Carpus
c. Skull
d. Scapula

217
Q

Back-scatter can be prevented by:-

a. Placing a lead sheet beneath the cassette
b. The use of a compression band
c. Collimation of the primary beam
d. Using a focused grid

A

A)placing a lead sheet beneath the cassette

218
Q

The imaging technique that will give the most accurate definition of the brain is:-

a. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. Computed radiography
c. Computed tomography
d. Fluoroscopy

A

A)magnetic resonance imaging

219
Q

Erythema as a result of exposure to radiation is an example of a:-

a. Teratogenic effect
b. Somatic effect
c. Carcinogenic effect
d. Genetic effect

A

B)somatic effect

220
Q

The technique that is preferred for imaging thoracic masses, as it is less susceptible to movement artefacts, is:-

a. Computed tomography
b. Computed radiography
c. Digital radiography
d. Magnetic resonance imagin

A

A)computed tomography

221
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease would be demonstrated on a radiograph of the:-

a. Cervical vertebrae
b. Elbow joint
c. Stifle joint
d. Hip joint

A

D)hip joint

222
Q

Portal venography is used to visualise the:-

a. Small intestine
b. Heart
c. Bladder
d. Liver

223
Q

The imaging modality that uses piezoelectric energy is:-

a. Computed tomography
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Doppler ultrasound

A

D)doppler ultrasound

224
Q

The most suitable contrast agent for use in the intact small intestine is:-

a. Air
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Iodine
d. Barium sulphate

A

D)barium sulphate

225
Q

The statement concerning radiation safety that is true is:-

a. A radiographer’s hands may be in the primary beam as long as they are protected by lead gloves
b. Lead aprons should be neatly folded when not in use
c. Radiation monitoring badges should be worn inside the lead apron
d. Lead protective clothing should be radiographed regularly to check for cracks

A

C)radiation monitoring badges should be worn inside the lead apron

226
Q

When manual processing X-ray film, the wattage of a safelight bulb should not exceed:-

a. 40 Watts
b. 10 Watts
c. 20 Watts
d. 15 Watts

227
Q

When using a grid the mAs should be multiplied by the grid:-

a. Factor
b. Size
c. Focus
d. Ratio

228
Q

If a small proportion of sound waves are reflected back to the ultrasound transducer, they are said to be:-

a. Hypoechoic
b. Hyperechoic
c. Anechoic
d. Isoechoic

A

A)hypoechoic

229
Q

The most suitable imaging technique to perform when 3-D information about the anconeal process is required is:

a. Computed tomography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Analogue radiography
d. Fluoroscopy

A

A)computed tomography

230
Q

A radiograph requires an exposure of 20mAs when taken at a film focal distance of 90cm without a grid. What exposure will be required if a grid with a grid factor of 4 is used?

a) 20mAs
b) 40mAs
c) 80mAs
d) 5mAs

231
Q

Name the two major components of an x-ray film emulsion:

a) Gelatin and silver halides
b) Gelatin and silver ions
c) Silver ions and silver halides
d) Gelatin and silver oxide

A

A)gelatin and silver halides

232
Q

Which of the following contrast techniques would you use to determine the possibility of a disc protrusion?

a) sialography
b) myelography
c) cystography
d) arthrography

A

B)myelography

233
Q

What position should a dog be placed in following a myelogram?

a) Normal recovery position
b) Elevating head about 30 degrees
c) Lowering the head below the level of the body
d) Any of the above

A

B)elevating head about 30 degrees

234
Q

The person within the practice who is responsible for implementing the local rules for radiography is known as the:

a) Radiation Protection Officer
b) Radiation Protection Adviser
c) Radiation Protection Supervisor
d) Radiation Protection Administrator

A

C)radiation protection supervisor

235
Q

By which of the following techniques could you reduce radiation hazards by the greatest amount?

a) increasing the kV
b) reducing film/focal distance
c) use of a grid
d) use of rare earth screens

A

D)use of rare earth screens

236
Q

Which of the following items of equipment will reduce the risk of exposure to the primary beam?

a) protective clothing
b) aluminium filter over the tube window
c) light beam diaphragm
d) rare earth screens

A

C)light beam diaphragm

237
Q

Which of the following will decrease the amount of scattered radiation reaching the film?

a) increasing the kV
b) reducing exposure time increasing mA
c) Increasing the film/focal distance
d) reducing the size of the primary beam

A

D)reducing the size of the primary beam

238
Q

Which of the following affect radiographic contrast?

a) kV
b) mAs
c) use of a grid
d) all of the above

A

D)all of the above

239
Q

Which of the following procedures will help to improve the definition of an x-ray image by the greatest amount?

a) use of non-screen film
b) decreasing film/focal distance
c) increasing flm/focal distance
d) increasing the kV

A

A)use of non screen film

240
Q

An x-ray film that you have processed is too dark. How would you correct this error?

a) Increasing development time
b) Increasing the kV
c) Reducing exposure time
d) Reducing film/focal distance

A

C)reducing exposure time

241
Q

A processed film is very grey with poor contrast between the image and the background. What could be the cause?

a) kV too high
b) film fogged by radiation
c) exhausted developer
d) developer temperature too high

A

C)exhausted developer

242
Q

A radiograph of an anaesthetised animal is blurred. What might be the cause?

a) Exhausted developer
b) inadequate fixing
c) poor screen/film contact
d) under exposure

A

C)poor screen/film contact

243
Q

Which one of the following will not produce a white artefact on a finished radiograph?

a) developer splash
b) specks of dirt
c) fixer splash
d) coin

A

B)specks of dirt

244
Q

What mark or artefact would insufficient washing after fixation leave on a finished radiograph?

a) white spots
b) dark spots
c) yellow stains
d) cloudy appearance

A

C)yellow stains