Big Bad Infections Flashcards

1
Q

what are the general variables of SIRS?

A

temp > 100.9 or <96.8

HR > 90 or more than 2 SD above the normal value for age

tachypnea (RR > 20)

altered mental status

significant edema or positive fluid balance

hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the inflammatory variables of SIRS?

A

leukocytosis or leukopenia

normal WBC with > 10% immature forms

plasma C-reactive protein more than 2 SD above normal value

plasma procalcitonin more than 2 SD above normal value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sepsis = ____ + _____

A

sepsis = SIRS + infection (or possible infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is severe sepsis?

A

two or more SIRS criteria + infection AND

end organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in severe sepsis, end organ damage is defined by one of the following…

A

hypotension

renal failure

shock liver

coagulopathy

repiratory failure

elevated lactice acid > 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is septic shock?

what is the lactate level?

A

severe hypoperfusion persisten in first hour AFTER aggressive fluid resuscitation

lactate level > 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the major Duke criteria for endocarditis?

A

positive blood cultures x2 w/ common offenders identified & no clear primary focuse

persistently + blood cultures after or during tx

TTE evidence of vegetation or good auscultaito of NEW valvular regurg

other imaging stating question of intracardiac abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the minor Duke criteria for endocarditis?

A

presence of valular heart disease

IV drug use

fever

unexplained vascular phenomenon (conjunctival hemorrhage, cutaneous petechiae, evidence of major or minor arterial emboli, intracranial hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what should we do with any positive Duke criteria?

A

get an ID consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is hematogenous osteomyelitis?

A

bacteremia leads to seeding of bacteria within bone

monomicrobial

blood & bone cultures should match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is continguous osteomyelitis?

A

bacteria seeds the bone from adjacent tissue

polymicrobial

blood cultures may or may not be positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is DM associated continguous osteomyelitis?

A

presentation: slow insidious onset

frequently presents as skin disruptions that are very slow healing, non-healing or recurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

can DM associated contiguous osteomyelitis subacute or chronic?

A

subacute (days to weeks)

chronic (months to years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what should we think if we can “see bone and touch bone”

A

osteo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the preferred imaging method for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI is prefffered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what type of antibiotics should be started for osteomyelitis?

A

broad spectrum parenteral antibiotics

17
Q

what is the typical length of treatment for osteo?

what labs will be done weekly?

A

tx is 6 weeks

labs done weekly are CBC, CMP, CRP

18
Q

what is included in the CRB-65 scoring for pneumonia?

A

clinical symptoms of pneumonia plus

confusion (delirium) → 1 point

RR > 30 → 1 point

BP < 90 systolic or < 60 diastolic → 1 point

19
Q

how does the scoring of the CRB-65 influence how we manage pneumonia patients?

what is an automatic admission?

A

0-1 point → manage at home

> 1 point → inpatient management

hypoxia is an automatic admission

20
Q

almost all antibiotic use in pneumonia is ______

A

empiric

(very hard to get a good sputum culture)

21
Q

what are some adjunct treatments for pneumonia?

A

O2 if sats < 90%

nebulized inhalation treatment - albuterol or Duoneb

steroids? (not commonly used

22
Q

do we need to repeat imaging in patients with pneumonia?

A

not if clinical improvement has been observed

if we do need imaging, consider CT chest for empyema & lung abscess

23
Q

what are some factors associated with HCAP?

A

IV therapy, wound care, or chemo within prior 30 days

resident of a nursing home/long-term care facility

hospitalization for 2 or more days within the prior 90 days

pneumonia that occurs 48 hrs or more after admission

pneumonia that develops more than 48-72 hrs after intubation

24
Q

what is the length of treatment for HCAP?

A

7 days minimum

25
Q

in HCAP, when can we try to cange to PO equivalents?

A

only if excellent clinical response to IV therapy for 48-72 hours

26
Q

what is the triple antibiotic therapy for HCAP with MDR risk?

A

Zosyn

Flouroquinolone

Vanco

27
Q

what is aspiration pneumonia?

A

an inoculum deleterious to the lwoer airways by a direct toxic effect, stimulation of an inflammatory process form bacterial infection, or obstruction due to uncleared fluid or particulate matter

28
Q

with possible aspiration pneumonia, we must keep patients strict NPO until ______

A

until speech therapy can evaluate and recommend safe swallowing strategies

29
Q

what IV antibiotic should be used if hospitalization is needed for aspiration pneumonia?

what if oral therapy is preferred?

A

IV - clindamycin

PO- augmentin

30
Q

what are 3 take home points for pneumonia?

A
  1. identify the type of pneumonia
  2. appropriate empiric antibiotic
  3. strict NPO until speech therapy can evaluated