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Radio Navigation > BGS post its - RNAV > Flashcards

BGS post its - RNAV Flashcards

1
Q

What is the beat frequency oscillator on an ADF used for?

A

Hearing the IDENT of some NDBs

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2
Q

How many atomic clocks are there on a NAVSTAR GPS satellite?

A

4

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3
Q

What does a single bright line on an AWR screen mean?

A

The cathode ray tube is faulty.

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4
Q

What should a controller see for ATS surveillance?

A

a map overlay

A/C identification and FL

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5
Q

How are antennas on modern AWR stabilised?

A

with inputs from the A/C attitude system (INS/IRS/VRGU)

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6
Q

What is the path delay of GPS signals in earth atmosphere proportional to?

A

the inverse of carrier frequency squared

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7
Q

What part of ILSs are protected from interference by FM immunity filters?

A

the localiser

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8
Q

What is scalloping?

A

a phenomenon which causes a CDI to deviate from side to side due to signal errors

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9
Q

when on a back course how will OBIs and HSIs sense?

A

an OBI will always reverse sense but a HSI will sense correctly if front course is set

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10
Q

What kind of nav aid can TACANs provide?

A

They can provide DME to civil A/C but also VOR to military A/C

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11
Q

What is the full scale deflection on a CDI for ILS localiser and glideslope?

A

localiser - 2.5deg

glideslope - 0.7deg

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12
Q

what is the minimum number of ground stations to give range & bearing information in DF?

A

2

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13
Q

How many times and on what frequency will VOR and DME idents be heard per second with VOR/DME colocation?

A

VOR - 3 times at 1020hz

DME - 1 time at 1350hz

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14
Q

What does the DME display counter rotating about its full range indicate?

A

It is conducting a range search.

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15
Q

What mode must a SSR unit be in to transmit mode A, C or S?

A

ALT

(ON is for mode A only)

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16
Q

What is quadrantal error of an ADF caused by?

A

refraction from A/C fuselage

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17
Q

What can be said about the azimuth and elevation transmitters of a MLS?

A

they operate on a shared frequency.

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18
Q

What is the coverage of the approach zone for MLS systems?

A

+/- 40deg of the rwy centre line out to 20nm

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19
Q

What is the coverage of the approach zone in elevation for MLS systems?

A

0.9deg to 20deg out to 20nm

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20
Q

Where are glidepath antenna located?

A

at the side off the runway approximately 300m beyond the threshold

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21
Q

What part of EM waves are polarised?

A

the electrical part.

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22
Q

Are ATC frequencies contained in the navigation database?

A

no

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23
Q

When does DME interoogation begin?

A

Once the first pulse paris of the tuned DME have been recieved

24
Q

Upon losing signal of an SBAS signal (EGNOS) how long would it take for an indication to show up?

A

6 seconds

25
Q

what is search the sky mode for GPS?

A

a procedure that starts after switching on if there is no stored satellite data available.

26
Q

What additional system does an FMS need to control vertical position?

A

Autothrottle

27
Q

What can VDF provide?

A

QDM or QTE

28
Q

When will ETOs and ETAs at destination computed by an FMS be correct?

A

if actual wind = forecast wind

if actual speed = FMC calculated speed

29
Q

What should the accuracy of GPS be?

A

13m horizontal

22m vertical

95% of the time

30
Q

what does the 2000 SSR code mean?

A

entering the airspace from area where SSR operation has not been required (oceanic)

31
Q

What kind of modulation do HF and VHF comms broadcasts have?

A

AM

32
Q

Out of VHF and HF which one is SSB?

A

HF

33
Q

What part of the VHF comms signal contains the information being transmitted?

A

the sidebands.

34
Q

What are the order of accuracies for RNAV fixes?

A

GNSS

IRS/INS

DME/DME

VOR/DME

VOR/VOR

35
Q

What is the orientation and number of satellites for most accurate position fix?

A

3 satllites low to the horizon and 1 more directly overhead (tetrahedron)

36
Q

Are the clocks in GPS constellations synchonised?

A

no

37
Q

Are satellite clock time corrections contained in the navigation message sent to A/C from the satellite?

A

yes

38
Q

What is FADING?

A

essentially destructive interference between sky and ground waves due to night effect

39
Q

What is another way of saying pulse recurrence rate?

A

pulse recurrence frequency

40
Q

What affects a primary radars ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth?

A

beam width

41
Q

How is the doppler effect used in DVORs?

A

it is used to create a FM signal as received by an A/C and reduces siting error

42
Q
A
43
Q

What does the MTR equation actually mean?

A

MTR is the range from LOS

44
Q

What is the purpose of AWR?

A

to detect precipitation usually accompanied by turbulence

45
Q

what is the A/C doing in DME tracking mode?

A

It is locked onto a DME and transmitting a relatively low number of pulse pairs per second

46
Q

When saturated, how will a DME decide which aircraft to prioritise?

A

those with the strongest signals

47
Q

How are VORTACs represented on the EFIS?

A

The same way a normal TACAN would be in GNAV

48
Q

Which DMEs will an FMS auto tune to?

A

The DMEs providing the best angular position lines for the RNAV system

49
Q

What is the coverage of GBAS systems?

A

+/- 35 deg out to 15nm

+/- 10deg out to 20nm

from threshold

50
Q

What is the datum used for MDA on a non-precision approach when using GPS?

A

barometric altitude

51
Q

What are the L1 and L2 frequencies and purposes of NAVSTAR?

A

L1 - 1575.42MHz - C/A & P (alies)

L2 - 1227.6MHz - P

52
Q

What can the middle marker of DME be used for?

A

to indicate the position for a missed approach in a CAT 1 approach during poor vis.

53
Q

What are the marker distances for DME?

A

Inner - 100m

Middle - 1000m

Outer - 10km (8km)

54
Q

What does the gain control knob do on an AWR?

A

it adjusts the sensitivity of the receiver to achieve optimum target aquisition.

55
Q

How does MLS minimise multipath errors?

A

The signal is inturrupted when the scanning beam passes over known obstacles to avoid reflection

56
Q

How can a failure of VOR systems be recognised on an EFIS display?

A

The magenta indications are removed.

Radio Navigation (17 decks)

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