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Discrete MCAT Questions > Behavioral Sciences > Flashcards

Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

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1
Q

What are sensory neurons also referred to as?

A

Also known as afferent neurons, bring ingot from receptors to brain.

Motor neurons are efferent neurons and bring info from brain to body.

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2
Q

What is an interneuron?

A

Neurons which transmits impulses between other neurons especially as part of a reflex arc.

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3
Q

What nervous system components are involved in the initial reflexive response to pain?

A

Spinal cord, interneuron, and motor neurons. The reflexive withdrawal has already occurred by the time the signal reaches the brain so the cerebral cortex is not a part of it.

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4
Q

What is the cerebral cortex?

A

Sensory, motor and association.

Often referred to as gray matter

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5
Q

What is the hindbrain responsible for?

A

Balance and motor coordination

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6
Q

What is the midbrain used for?

A

Manages sensorimotor reflexes that also promote survival.

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7
Q

What is the forebrain responsible for?

A

Associated with emotion, memory and higher order cognition

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8
Q

What does the temporal lobe deal with?

A

Language comprehension, memory, emotion.
Contains Wernickes area which is responsible for language comprehension.
Temporal lobes also function in emotion and memory because contains the amygdala and hippocampus.

Does NOT deal with motor skills.

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9
Q

What part of the brain deals with homeostasis and emotions?

A

Hypothalamus.

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10
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

Maintaining posture and balance

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11
Q

What is the pons responsible for?

A

Above medulla and contains sensory and motor tracts between the cortex and the medulla

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12
Q

What is the thalamus responsible for?

A

Acts as a relay station for sensory information to the cortex. Also responsible for sleep, consciousness and alertness

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13
Q

What is an ability of the non dominant hemisphere?

A

Sense of direction.

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14
Q

What are some abilities attributed to the dominant hemisphere?

A

Learning a new language
Reading a book for pleasure
Jumping rope with friends

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15
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)

Neural crest cells migrate to other sites in the body to differentiate into different tissues

Neural tube differentiates from the ectoderm.

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16
Q

What are the catecholamines?

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

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17
Q

What is acetylcholine?

A

Chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system the part of the autonomic nervous system (a branch of the peripheral nervous system) that contracts smooth muscles, dilates blood vessels, increases bodily secretions and slows heart rate.

Low levels results in paralysis or weakness of muscles

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18
Q

What do the adrenal glands do?

A

The adrenal glands promote fight or flight response through epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Produces both hormones and neurotransmitters
Adrenal cortex produces both estrogen and testosterone.
Produces stress response via cortisol

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19
Q

What is the pineal gland responsible for?

A

Producing melatonin

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20
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with both schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopamine.
Schizophrenia associated with high levels of dopamine that can cause hallucinations.
Parkinson’s is associated with destruction of the dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia

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21
Q

What is the babinski reflex?

A

A primitive reflex that refers to extension of the big toe accompanied by the fanning of the other toes. Normal in infants but should disappear by the time a child can walk.

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22
Q

What is a primitive reflex?

A

Reflexes exhibited by normal infants but not neurologically intact adults.

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23
Q

How do motor skills tend to develop?

A

From the core toward the periphery. Following objects with eyes comes before grabbing stuff with hands

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24
Q

What is the primary covalent bond between amino acids?

A

Peptide bonds

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25
Q

What type of reaction is used to make a peptide bond?

A

Condensation reaction between the amino group of one aa and the carboxyl group of another

(Specifically a dehydration reaction involving the loss of water)

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26
Q

The peptide bond has a partial double bond character because

A

The double bond can resonate between C=O and C=N

It has limited rotation because of the double bond

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27
Q

How many distinct tripeptides can be made from one V, one A, and one L molecule?

A

6
Just multiply the numbers
3x2x1
VAL, VLA, ALV, AVL, LVA, and LAV

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28
Q

What is preserved when a protein is denatured?

A

Primary structure

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29
Q

What amino acids have a chiral carbon in its side chain?

A

Threonine and isoleucine.

All amino acids except glycine have a chiral alpha carbon but only threonine and isoleucine also have a chiral carbon in their side chain

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30
Q

What are reasons for conjugating proteins?

A

To direct their delivery to a particular organelle
To direct their delivery to the cell membrane
To add a cofactor needed for their activity

Conjugated proteins can have a lipid or carbohydrate tag added to them which indicates where they should go or the activity for the protein

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31
Q

How to solve a just noticeable difference problem?

A

Weber’s law posits that thresholds are proportional. So find out how much the weight is being increased by compared to the original weight. For example a 100 to 125 increase is a 25% increase. So the person would not notice a difference unless the increase was greater than 25%

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32
Q

What is feature detection?

A

Ability to detect certain types of stimuli like movements, shape and angles. Requires specialized cells in the brain called feature detectors.

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33
Q

What is bottom up processing?

A

Start with incoming stimulus and works upwards until a representation of the object is formed in our minds

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34
Q

What is top down processing?

A

Cognitive process that initiates with our thoughts which flow down to lower level functions such as our senses

Example is while reading not noticing misspellings or an extra the because using a larger pattern so you miss the error

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35
Q

What is vestibular sense?

A

Contributes to our ability to maintain balance and body posture.

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36
Q

What is signal detection?

A

Means to measure the ability to differentiate between information bearing patterns and random patterns that distract from the information. Such as husband laughing across the room of a party while you are in the middle of a conversation with someone else.

Hits, false alarms, misses and correct rejection

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37
Q

What is sensory adaptation?

A

A reduction in response to a stimulus over time

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38
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Important for pain sensation

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39
Q

What are Chemoreceptors?

A

Sensors that detect changes in CO2, O2, and pH

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40
Q

What are osmoreceptors?

A

Found in hypothalamus of most organisms that can detect change is osmotic pressure

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41
Q

What are photoreceptors?

A

Light sensitive proteins that respond to light

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42
Q

What part of the eye is responsible for gathering and focusing light?

A

Cornea

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43
Q

What are the iris and pupil used for?

A

Regulating amount of light coming into the eye but not focusing it.

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44
Q

What does the retina of the eye do?

A

Transduces the light into electrical signals that are sent to the brain.
Rods and cones are found in the retina

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45
Q

What is the kinesthetic sense?

A

Ability to know the positions and movements of ones limbs.

Also called propioception

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46
Q

What is somatosensation?

A

Refers to the various modalities of touch: pressure, vibration, temperature and pain.

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47
Q

What are the five taste modalities?

A

Sweet, salty, savory (umami), bitter, sour

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48
Q

What is Endolymph?

A

The potassium rich fluid that bathed the hair cells of the inner ear, all of which are found within the membranous labyrinth.

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49
Q

What is perilymph?

A

Found in the space between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth.

Both the bony and membranous labyrinth contribute to the cochlea and vestibule

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50
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

Spiral cavity of the inner ear containing the organ of Corti which produces nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations.

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51
Q

What is the vestibule?

A

Central part of the bony labyrinth. Separated from the middle war by the oval window and communicates anterior my with the cochlea and posterior with the semi circular canals

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52
Q

Chemicals that compel behavior after binding to chemoreceptors are known as

A

Pheromones

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53
Q

What are olfactory receptors?

A

Also known as odorant receptors. Detect compounds that have an odor which give rise to the sense of smell

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54
Q

What is somatostimuli?

A

Stimuli that stimulate the somatic nervous system (part of the peripheral nervous system) which includes voluntary movement of the muscles and organs and reflex movements

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55
Q

What are papillae?

A

Tiny bumps on tongue that hold taste buds

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56
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Ability of a brain to simultaneously process incoming stimuli of differing quality.

Part of vision in that the brain divides what it sees into four components, color, motion, shape and depth

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57
Q

What are gestalt principles?

A

Basis for many optical illusions and include the tendency for people to continuity even when lines are unconnected.

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58
Q

Gate theory

A

Pain is controlled by large nerve fibers in the spinal cord that act as gates such that pain is not the product of a simple transmission of stimulation from the skin or some internal organ to the brain.

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59
Q

Acquisition

A

Refers to an early stage of the learning process during which time a response is first established. The subject will begin displaying the behavior when a stimulus is presented

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60
Q

Generalization

A

Process by which similar stimuli can produce the same conditioned response.

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61
Q

Discrimination

A

Ability to perceive and respond to differences among stimuli. Considered a more advanced form of learning than generalization

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62
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

A response or behavior is strengthened by stopping, removing or avoiding a negative outcome or aversive stimulus.
Putting on sunscreen stops you from getting sun burnt which is a negative thing.

Manager stops nagging an employee and employee starts being more productive.

Positive behavior followed by removal of negative consequences

Increases likelihood of behavior being repeated

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63
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

Positive behavior followed by positive consequences

Manager rewards employee for productivity and employee increases his/ her productivity

Increases likelihood of behavior being repeated

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64
Q

Avoidance learning

A

Type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior is increases to prevent an unpleasant future consequence

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65
Q

Extinction

A

Is a decreased response to conditioned stimulus when it is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus

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66
Q

Positive punishment

A

Adding an unpleasant consequence such as writing down what you did wrong a hundred times

Decrease likelihood of behavior being repeated

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67
Q

Negative punishment

A

Removing something desirable such as taking away a phone.

Decreases likelihood of behavior being repeated

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68
Q

Fixed interval schedule

A

Desired behavior is rewarded the first time it is exhibited after the fixed interval has elapsed. Both fixed interval and fixed ratio schedules tend to show this: almost no response immediately after the reward is given, but behavior increases as the rate gets close to receiving the reward. Pressing lever slow at first and then fast as end of interval approaches

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69
Q

Controlled processing

A

Requires active attention to the information being encoded.

Used to create long term memories and with practice can become automatic.

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70
Q

Semantic encoding

A

Encoding based on the meaning of the information. Strongest method of encoding.

Category of long term memory that refers to recall of facts rather experience or skills.

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71
Q

Visual encoding

A

Weakest method of encoding

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72
Q

Acoustic encoding

A

Intermediate between visual and semantic encoding

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73
Q

Iconic memory

A

Type of sensory memory.
Exact copy of visual info
Less than a second in duration

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74
Q

Echoic memory

A

Memory from hearing

Duration up to 4 seconds

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75
Q

Self reference effect

A

Indicates that information that is most meaningful to an individual is the most likely to be memorized

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76
Q

Clustering memorization

A

Organizing info in memory into related groups.

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77
Q

Method of loci memory

A

Uses visualization of familiar spatial environments in order to enhance the recall of information

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78
Q

Elaborative rehearsal memory

A

Thinking about the meaning of information and connecting it to other info already stored in memory

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79
Q

Peg words

A

Mnemonic device that is used to memorize lists that need to be in order. Use images associated with numbers

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80
Q

State dependent recall effect

A

Phenomenon where people remember more information if their physical or mental state is the same at time of encoding and time of recall.
Concerned with internal rather than external states of the individual.

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81
Q

What term describes how existing schema are modified to incorporate new information?

A

Accommodation

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82
Q

Adaptation

A

Jean piaget hypothesized that new information is processed this way

Includes both assimilation and accommodation

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83
Q

Assimilation

A

Incorporation of new information into existing schemata, if the new information doesn’t fit then accommodation occurs

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84
Q

Accommodation

A

Modification of existing schemata to account for new information

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85
Q

Which of the piagets stages of cognitive development occur before adolescence?

A

Sensorimotor and preoperational along with concrete operational.

Formal operational stage coincides with adolescence

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86
Q

What are the stages of piagets theory of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor 0-2 years
Preoperational 2-7 years
Concrete operational 7-11
Formal operational 11+

87
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

0-2 years
Coordination of senses
Language used for demand and cataloguing
Object permanence is developed

88
Q

Preoperational stage

A

2-7

Symbolic thinking, use of proper syntax and grammar
Imagination and intuition are strong.
Abstract thoughts are still difficult
Conservation is developed

89
Q

Concrete operational

A

7-11
Concepts attached to concrete situations
Time, space and quantity understood and can be applied but not as independent concepts

90
Q

Formal operational

A

11 years old and older
Theoretical, hypothetical and counterfactual thinking
Abstract logic and reasoning
Strategy and planning

91
Q

Base rate fallacy

A

Occurs when protypical or stereotypical factors are used for analysis rather than actual data. An experience changed your perception on the actual data.
Working with stroke patients makes you think strokes occur more often

92
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

Refers to drawing conclusions by integrating different pieces of evidence

93
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Involves categorization and classification based on how well an individual example fits its category

94
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Occurs when a person only seeks information that reinforces his or her opinions

95
Q

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences

A 
Linguistic 
Logical-mathematical 
Musical
Visual-spatial 
Bodily-kinesthetic 
Interpersonal 
Intrapersonal
96
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Consists of problem solving skills

97
Q

EEG waveforms during REM sleep most resemble what state of consciousness?

A

Alertness.

Composed mainly of beta waves which are present during alertness.

98
Q

Slow wave sleep

A

Consists mainly of delta waves which are not present during rem sleep

99
Q

Stage 1 sleep

A

Consist mainly of theta waves

100
Q

Meditation

A

Quieting of the mind, and consists mainly of slow alpha and theta waves

101
Q

Stage 2 sleep

A

Theta waves

Sleep spindles and K complexes

102
Q

Stages 3/4 sleep

A

Delta waves

Deepest sleep hardest to wake from

103
Q

REM sleep

A

Fast and random dreaming
Composed mainly of beta waves
Most like being awake but actually I’m really deep sleep.

104
Q

What is the normal pattern of sleep stages during a complete sleep cycle early in the night?

A

1-2-3-4-3-2-REM

105
Q

What hormone causes sleepiness?

A

Melatonin secreted by the pineal gland.

106
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

Increases throughout early morning resulting in wakefulness

107
Q

When does growth hormone secretion peak?

A

During slow wave sleep

108
Q

What is oxytocin associated with?

A

Uterine contractions in childbirth, milk letdown and bonding behavior

109
Q

Cognitive process theory

A

Wakeful and dreaming state use the same mental systems within the brain, particularly stream of consciousness.

110
Q

Activation synthesis theory

A

States that dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry

111
Q

Problem solving dream model

A

Indicates that dreams are used to solve problems while sleeping due to untethering of dreams from obstacles perceived while awake

112
Q

Neurocognitive theory

A

Seek to unify cognitive and biological perspectives by correlating the subjective dream experience with physiological experience of dreaming

113
Q

Syntax

A

Refers to how words are put together to form sentences and create meaning

114
Q

Phonology

A

Refers to actual sounds of language

115
Q

Semantics

A

Refers to the association of meaning with a word

116
Q

Pragmatics

A

Refers to changes in usage, wording, and inflection based on context

117
Q

A child peaks of at least 3 words but makes lots of errors and misuses past tense. How old is the child?

A

2-3 years old

118
Q

Learning theory

A

Based on work by B.F skinner states that parents reinforce phonemes that sounds most like their language resulting in preferential preservation of these phonemes

119
Q

Nativist theory

A

Posits a critical period during which language acquisition occurs.
Children are born with the innate ability to organize laws of language which enable children to easily lean a native language

120
Q

Social interactionist theory

A

Indicates that language develops via interaction with parents and caregivers as well as a desire of the child to communicate

121
Q

Broca’s area

A

Governs the motor function of language. A stroke of Broca’s area will leave receptive language intact but word formation will be affected

122
Q

Wernickes area

A

A stroke affecting this area will make it so the individual can not comprehend speech

123
Q

Actuate fasciculus

A

A stroke in this area will result in an inability to repeat words heard but spontaneous language production is intact

124
Q

Superior temporal gyrus

A

Where Wernickes area is located

125
Q

During what stages of sleep does dreaming occur?

A

About 75 percent occurs in REM

But dream occur in all other stages of sleep as well

126
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Based on external conditions including perceived reward or fear of punishment. Includes reward of winning a competition

127
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Act of doing something without any obvious external reward. Do it because you like doing it

128
Q

Primary drives

A

Innate drives (thirst, hunger and sex)

129
Q

Secondary drives

A

Learned by conditioning (ex. Money)

130
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

Primary force behind motivation. Deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs. These needs result in psychological drive states that direct behavior to the meet the need and bring back homeostasis

Clark hull

131
Q

Instinct approach theory

A

Inborn pattern of behavior
Biologically determined not learned
Born with pre programmed set of behavior essential for survival

132
Q

Maslows hierarchy of needs

A

Physiological needs—-> safety needs —-> love and belonging——> esteem—-> self actualization

133
Q

Yerkes dodson law

A

States that there is an optimal level of arousal necessary to perform. If levels of arousal are too high poor performance can result. Such as performing in front of a large crowd after sounding good at home alone

134
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

Theory that the body will move to eliminate uncomfortable internal states known as drives. Body pushes toward homeostasis

135
Q

Arousal theory

A

Suggests that people are driven to perform actions in order to maintain an optimum level of physiological arousal.

Skydiving

136
Q

Incentive theory

A

Sometimes people are motivated by a desire for reinforcement or incentives

137
Q

People from cultures around the work can identify what emotions?

A

Happiness, sadness and surprise, contempt, fear, disgust and anger

138
Q

Experiencing emotions involves what three components?

A

Physiological, cognitive, and behavioral

139
Q

Schachter singer theory of emotion

A

Environmental stimuli elicits physiological response, cognitively label the physical response and associate it with an emotion
We then feel the emotion
(Needs environmental context before emotion is identified)

Two factor theory

140
Q

Cannon bard theory

A

Physiological changes and feelings/ emotions occur at the same time and independent of each other

141
Q

James Lange theory

A

Experiencing a physiological reaction to a stimulus and then having an emotion

Barking dog—-> physical effects —-> emotion

142
Q

The biology of emotion involved what regions of the brain?

A

Amygdala, prefrontal cortex and thalamus.

Doesn’t include the basal ganglia

143
Q

Basal ganglia

A

Involved in smooth movement

144
Q

What is the left frontal lobe associated with?

A

Positive feelings corresponding with joy and happiness

145
Q

Right frontal lobe?

A

Associated with negative feelings such as sadness and disgust

146
Q

Secondary appraisal of stress

A

Stage at which ability of the organism to cope with the stressor is evaluated. Based on the harm, threat and challenge of the stressor which are all correlated with its intensity

147
Q

Primary appraisal of stress

A

Simply the initial determination whether there is a negative association at all, not its intensity

148
Q

Eustress

A

Positive stressor such as working out

149
Q

Hassle and frustration are both types of

A

Distress which are negative stressors

150
Q

What type of conflict is associated with the least amount of stress?

A

Approach approach conflict

Both results are good choices such as choosing between two desserts

151
Q

Avoidance avoidance conflict

A

Making a decision between two equally undesirable choices

Homework or housework

152
Q

Approach avoidance conflict

A

One goal or event that has both positive and negative effects or characteristics that make it both appealing and unappealing such as
Marriage

153
Q

What is the initial reaction to stress?

A

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system which is the alarm stage

154
Q

Self concept is defined as

A

The past self
The future self
And the self schemata

155
Q

Ought self

A

Appraisal of how other see us

156
Q

What is androgyny?

A

High femininity and high masculinity

157
Q

Undifferentiated

A

Low femininity and low masculinity

158
Q

Low femininity and high masculinity is

A

Masculine

159
Q

High femininity and low masculinity is

A

Feminine

160
Q

Learned helplessness

A

Requires a repeated inability to have any effect on a situation over a long period of time and is must more severe, usually leads to depression

161
Q

Low self efficacy

A

Feel ineffective when it comes to a task

162
Q

Oral stage

A

Fixation is smoking, dependency, aggression

163
Q

Anal stage

A

Fixation is obsessiveness, tidiness, meanness, untidiness, generosity

164
Q

Phallic stage

A

Fixation is vanity, self obsession, sexual anxiety, inferiority and envy

165
Q

Latency stage

A

Doesn’t have a fixation

166
Q

Genital stage

A

If all stages were completed person should be normal functioning adult who is mentally and sexually matured

167
Q

Erik eriksons 1 stage

A

Infancy 0-1

Basic trust versus mistrust

168
Q

Erik eriksons stage 2

A 
Early childhood (1-3)
Autonomy vs shame
169
Q

Eriksons third stage

A

(3-6)play age

Initiative vs guilt

170
Q

Eriksons fourth stage

A 
School age (6-12) 
Industry versus inferiority
171
Q

Eriksons stage 5

A

Adolescence (12-19)

Identity versus confusion

172
Q

Eriksons sixth stage

A

Early adulthood
(20-25)
Intimacy versus isolation

173
Q

Eriksons seventh stage

A

Adulthood (26-64)

Generativity vs stagnation

174
Q

Eriksons eighth stage

A 
Old age (65-death) 
Integrity versus despair
175
Q

Kohlbergs phases of moral reasoning

A

Preconventional
Stage one: desire to avoid punishment (obedience)
Stage two : individualism and exchange

Conventional
Stage 3: good interpersonal relationships
Stage 4: maintaining social order

Post conventional
Stage 5: social contract and individual rights
Stage 6: universal principles

176
Q

Lev Vygotsky

A

Zone of proximal development theory which holds that children are often unable to perform tasks by themselves but can complete the task with the help of a more knowledgeable other

177
Q

Albert bandura

A

Social learning theory that says human behavior is learned through observation, imitation and modeling.

Bobo dolls

178
Q

Alfred Adler

A

Every person has a sense of inferiority. People work toward overcoming this inferiority and this drive is motivating force behind our emotions and behaviors

179
Q

B.F skinner

A

Operant conditioning
Behavior is determined by its consequence by they reinforcement or punishments which make it more or less likely for that behavior to occur again

180
Q

Superego

A

Is responsible for moral guilt when we do not live up to our ideal

(Angel)

181
Q

id

A

Devil

Urge to do bad things

182
Q

Ego

A

Mediator between the id and superego

183
Q

Jungian archetypes

A

Drive for power and success are typically male traits

Anima=Feminine “inner female”
Animus=masculine “inner man”
Combo=syzygy
This represents your true self

The shadow=dark side of the psyche

The self= regulating center of the psyche and facilitator of individuation

The persona=how we present to the world, usually protects the ego from negative images (acts like a mask)

184
Q

Social cognitive perspective

A

People’s behaviors and traits shape their environments which in turn have an effect in their identity

185
Q

Neuroticism is associated with

A

High emotional arousal in stressful situations

186
Q

Conscientiousness

A

Associated with being hardworking and organized instead of impulsive

187
Q

Reaction formation

A

Defense mechanism that converts unwanted feelings into their exact opposite.

Explains stolkholm syndrome

188
Q

Regression

A

Reversion of ego to an earlier stage of development as a defense mechanism

189
Q

Projection

A

Ego defends itself by denying existence of impulses while attributing them to others

190
Q

Displacement

A

When negative feelings are displace into another less threatening subject with the slightest trigger.

“Blowing up on people”

191
Q

Cardinal traits

A

Trait that dominates entire personality and hence your life

192
Q

Fictional finalism

A

Internal idealistic belief about the future. Like assuming winning a lottery ticket will solve all someone’s problems

193
Q

Functional autonomy

A

Behavior continues after the drive behind the behavior has ceased.

Such as buying lottery tickets after you already won

194
Q

Unconditional positive regard

A

Used in some forms of humanistic therapy in which the therapist believes in the internal good of the client and does not judge the client negatively for any words or actions

195
Q

What is a negative symptom?

A

Absence of a normal or desired behavior

Such as disturbance of affect and avolition.
Personality difference and lack of initiative

196
Q

What are positive symptoms?

A

Addition of an abnormal behavior such as hallucinations, disorganized behavior, and delusions

197
Q

Echolalia

A

Involuntary repetition of others words and utterances and may be seen in schizophrenia

198
Q

Echopraxia

A

Imitation of others actions

199
Q

Loosening of associations

A

Is a type of disorders thought in which the patient moves between remotely related ideas

200
Q

Neologisms

A

Newly invented words

201
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

Focusing on details, moving routine, having a sense that there is only one right way to do things and lack of humor

202
Q

Major depressive episode

A

Marked by a period of at least two weeks in which the patient has five of nine cardinal symptoms one of which must be lack of interest (Anhedonia) or depressed mood.
Decreased need for sleep I commonly seen in manic episodes

203
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Don’t desire or enjoy close relationships even with family and are often seen as loners. May be emotionally cold and detached

204
Q

Dissociative fugue

A

Characterized by sudden travel or change in normal day to day activities and occurs in some cases of dissociative amnesia

205
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

Extreme focus on physical symptoms such as pain or fatigue that causes emotional distress and problems functioning

206
Q

To determine is the patient has major depressive disorder or a bipolar disorder, the presence of

A

Manic episodes should be confirmed. Bipolar episodes contain manic episodes while depressive disorder does not

207
Q

Panic disorder

A

Exhibiting signs of panic and irrational fear without any instigating object present indicates panic disorder

208
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

Splitting, the consideration of others as either all good or all bad is characteristic of this disorder

209
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Marked by a motor or sensory symptom in the absence of an underlying physical or neurological cause. Associated with an inciting event

210
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

Self esteem depends on the approval of others. Overwhelming desire to be noticed and often behave dramatically for attention

211
Q

What is true regarding bipolar disorders?

A

Highly heritable and are associated with increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain.
Bipolar 1: single manic episode and does not require major depressive episode
Bipolar 2: at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode
Cyclothymic disorder: contains at least one hypomanic episode and dysthymia

212
Q

Prevalence

A

Total number of cases divided by total population during a period of time

213
Q

Incidence

A

Total number of new cases divided by the at risk population during a period of time

Don’t forget to subtract the people who already have it

214
Q

Morbidity

A

Refers to burden or degree of disease associated with a given illness

Discrete MCAT Questions (6 decks)

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