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MCAT > Behavioral Sciences > Flashcards

Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

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1
Q

Franz Gall

A

phrenology

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2
Q

Pierre Flourens

A

extirpation (removing parts of brain and measuring behavioral changes)

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3
Q

William James

A

Functionalism (how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments)

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4
Q

John Dewey

A

criticized reflex arc

- believed psych should study organism as a whole as it functioned to adapt to environment

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5
Q

Paul Broca

A

examined behavioral deficits of people w/ brain damage

- Broca’s area

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6
Q

Hermann von Helmholtz

A

first to measure speed of a nerve impulse

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7
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington

A

first inferred existence of synapses

- thought synaptic transmission was electric ->its actually chemical

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8
Q

what are the 3 types of nerve cells and define them

A
  1. sensory neurons (afferent neurons) - transmit sensory info from receptors to CNS
  2. motor neurons (efferent neurons) - transmit motor info from CNS to muscles/glands
  3. interneurons - b/w other neurons, reflexive behavior
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9
Q

CNS vs PNS

A

CNS is brain/spinal cord; PNS is nerve tissue and fibers outside of CNS

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10
Q

SNS vs ANS

A

somatic is voluntary muscles; autonomic is involuntary

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11
Q

what is the order of layers from skin to brain?

A

skin, periosteum, bone, dura, arachnoid, pia

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12
Q

limbic system

A

emotion and memory

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13
Q

define functions of the following forebrain structures:

  • cerebral cortex
  • basal ganglia
  • limbic system
  • thalamus
  • hypothalamus
A
  1. cerebral cortex - complex cognitive/behavioral processes
  2. basal ganglia - movement
  3. limbic system - emotion and memory
  4. thalamus - sensory relay station
  5. hypothalamus - hunger/thirst; emotion
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14
Q

components of midbrain and define functions

A
  1. inferior and superior colliculi - sensorimotor reflexes
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15
Q

define the functions of the following hindbrain structures:

  • cerebellum
  • medulla oblongata
  • reticular formation
A
  1. cerebellum - refined motor movements
  2. medulla oblongata - vital functioning (breathing/digestion)
  3. reticular formation - arousal and alertness
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16
Q

regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)

A

noninvasive, detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased BF to diff parts of brain

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17
Q

computed tomography (CT)

A

multiple X-rays are taken at diff angles and processed by a computer to cross-sectional slice images of tissue

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18
Q

positron emission tomography (PET)

A

radioactive sugar is injected and absorbed into body, its dispersion and uptake throughout target tissue is imaged

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19
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

uses magnetic field to interact w/ hydrogen and map out hydrogen dense regions of the body

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20
Q

functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

uses same base as MRI, specifically measures changes associated w/ blood flow
- best for monitoring neural activity

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21
Q

define parts of hypothalamus and their functions

  1. lateral hypothalamus
  2. ventromedial hypothalamus
  3. anterior hypothalamus
A
  1. Lateral hypothalamus - triggers eating/drinking
  2. ventromedial hypothalamus - provides signals to stop eating
  3. anterior hypothalamus - controls sexual behavior
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22
Q

posterior pituitary

-what two hormones are released from it?

A

comprised of axonal projects from hypothalamus

- site of release of ADH and oxytocin

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23
Q

what does the pineal gland release? what does that do?

A

melatonin; regulars circadian rhythms

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24
Q

extrapyramidal system

A

gathers info about body position and carries it to CNS, but does not function directly through motor neurons

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25
Q

septal nuclei

A

contain one of the primary pleasure centers in the brain

- mild stimulation is intensely pleasurable

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26
Q

amygdala; what does lesion do?

A

plays important role in defensive and aggressive behaviors, including fear and rage
- lesions causes relaxation and hypersexual states

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27
Q

hippocampus

A

plays vital role in learning and memory processes, specifically consolidating info for LTM

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28
Q

gyrus vs sulcus

A

gyrus is a bump and a sulcus is a fold

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29
Q

broca’s aphasia

A

inability to produce meaningful speech, but able to comprehend it

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30
Q

parietal lobe

A

sensory input

- somatosensory cortex

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31
Q

wernicke’s aphasia

A

produce random speech

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32
Q

dominant vs non dominant hemisphere

A

dominant is usually left, primary function is language, logic, math
- non dominant is usually right, with a more creative function

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33
Q

ACh

A

found in CNS and PNS

- used to transit nerve impulses to muscles

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34
Q

catecholamines

- what do they play a role in?

A

epi, norepi, and dopamine (aka monoamines)

- play important role in experience of emotions

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35
Q

epi/norepi; low/high levels of norepi?

A

involved in controlling alertness and wakefulness
- involved in fight or flight

  • low levels = depression, high levels = anxiety
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36
Q

dopamine; imbalances can cause what?

A

plays role in movement and posture

- high levels can cause SCZ, low levels cause Parkinsons

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37
Q

serotonin

A

plays roles in regulating mood, eating, sleeping, rearming

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38
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory, plays role in stabilizing neural activity

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39
Q

glycine vs glutamate, which is inhibitory and which is excitatory?

A

glycine is inhibitory while glutamate is excitatory

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40
Q

endorphins

A

natural painkillers in brain

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41
Q

adrenal medulla vs adrenal cortex

A

adrenal medulla releases epi/norepi, while the adrenal cortex releases cortisol as well as sex steroids

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42
Q

define neurulation; what does it form?

A

occurs when ectoderm overlying notochord begins to furrow

- forms neural groove surrounded by 2 neural folds

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43
Q

neural crest

A

cells at the leading edge of the neural fold

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44
Q

what happens after neurulation?

  • what becomes sensory neurons? motor neurons?
  • how does the brain form?
A

remainder of furrow closes to form neural tube, which will form CNS. neural tube has ALAR PLATE, which differentiates into sensory neurons, and BASAL PLATE, which differentiates into motor neurons. neural tube folds on itself to form brain

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45
Q

rooting reflex

A

automatic turning of head in direction of stimulus that touches cheek

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46
Q

moro reflex

A

infants react to abrupt movements of their heads by flinging out their arms, then slowly retracting and crying

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47
Q

babinski reflex

A

causes toes to spread apart automatically when the sole of foot is stimulated

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48
Q

1st year of life

A
  • puts everything in mouth
  • goes from sitting w support to crawling
  • issues of trust, stranger anxiety
  • laughs aloud, repetitive responding
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49
Q

Age 1-2

A
  • walks alone/climbs stairs alone
  • hand preference
  • kicks/throws ball, pats pictures
  • separation anxiety, onlooker play
  • greater variation in timing of language dev.
  • uses 10 words
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50
Q

Age 2-3

A
  • high activity level
  • can turn doorknob/lid
  • scribbles w/ crayon
  • aim a ball, stand on tip toes
  • selfish/self centered
  • imitation, recognizes self in mirror
  • parallel play
  • 2word sentences, uses 250 words
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51
Q

Age 3-4

A
  • rides tricycle
  • alternates feet on stairs
  • bowel/bladder control
  • catches ball, unbuttons buttons
  • fixed gender identity
  • sex-typed play
  • takes turns, knows full name
  • complete sentences
  • 900 words
  • recognizes objects
  • strangers can understand
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52
Q

osmoreceptors

A

respond to osmolarity of blood

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53
Q

absolute threshold

A

minimum stimulus needed to activate a sensory system

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54
Q

difference threshold (JND)

A

minimum diff in magnitude b/w 2 stimuli before one can perceive the diff

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55
Q

Weber’s law

A

there is a constant ratio b/w change in stimulus magnitude needed to produce a JND and magnitude of original stimulus

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56
Q

signal detection theory

A

changes in our perception of the same stimuli depend on both internal and external context

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57
Q

response bias

A

tendency of subjects to systematically respond to a stimulus in a particular way due to nonsensory factors

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58
Q

sclera

A

white of the eye

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59
Q

2 blood vessels in the eye

A

choroidal and retinal

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60
Q

retina

A

innermost layer of eye, contains actual photoreceptors that transduce light into electrical info the brain process

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61
Q

cornea

A

clear, domelike window in front of eye

- gathers and focuses incoming light

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62
Q

iris; 2 parts (pupillae)

A

colored part of eye

- dilator pupillae and constrictor pupillae

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63
Q

ciliary body

A

produces aqueous humor, which bathes the choroid and drains into the canal of schlemm

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64
Q

lens

A

behind iris, helps control refraction of incoming light

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65
Q

what is accomodation (eye)?

A

ciliary muscle contracts and pulls on suspensory ligaments and changes shape of lens

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66
Q

macula vs fovea

A

macula is central section of retina and has a high concentration of cones while fovea is centermost point of retina, containing ONLY CONES

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67
Q

order light travels from photoreceptors to optic nerve

A

rods/cones -> horizontal cells -> bipolar cels -> amacrine cells -> RGCs -> optic nerve

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68
Q

where does info travel before and after LGN?

A

optic nerve to optic chiasm to LGN to visual cortex and superior colliculus

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69
Q

superior colliculus

A

controls some responses to visual stimuli and reflexive eye movements

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70
Q

parallel processing

A

ability to simultaneously analyze/combine info regarding color, shape, and motion

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71
Q

pervo vs magnocellular cells

A

parvocellular has high color spatial resolution, see fine detail, only work w stationary objects
- magnocelluplar has high temporal resolution and low spatial resolution, provide blurry but moving image of object

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72
Q

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

vibrates in phase w/ incoming sound waves

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73
Q

middle ear

A

malleus then incus then stapes

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74
Q

eustachian tube

A

helps equalize pressure b/w middle ear and environment

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75
Q

order of sound in ear

A

sound -> pinna -> tympanic membrane -> malleus -> incus -> stapes -> oval window -> organ of corti -> basilar membrane -> auditory nerve

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76
Q

round window

A

membrane-covered hole in cochlea, allows perilymph to actually move within cochlea

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77
Q

auditory pathway

A

vestibulocochlear nerve -> brainstem -> MGN -> auditory cortex OR superior olive OR inferior colliculus

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78
Q

place theory

A

location of a hair cell on basilar membrane determines perception of pitch when that hair cell is vibrated

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79
Q

olfactory pathway

A

odor molecules inhaled -> nasal passage -> olfactory nerves in olfactory epithelium -> olfactory bulb -> olfactory tract -> higher brain regions such as limbic system

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80
Q

papillae

A

little bumps on the tongue consisting of taste buds

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81
Q

pacinian corpuscles

A

respond to deep pressure and vibration

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82
Q

meisner corpuscles

A

respond to light touch

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83
Q

merkel cells

A

respond to deep pressure and texture

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84
Q

ruffini endings

A

respond to stretch

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85
Q

free nerve endings

A

respond to pain and temp.

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86
Q

gate theory of pain

A

proposes that there is a special “gating” mechanism that can turn pain signals on or off, affecting whether or not we perceive pain

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87
Q

kinesthetic sense (proprioception)

A

ability to tell where one’s body is in space

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88
Q

perceptual organization

A

refers to ability to use these 2 processes in tandem with all of the other sensory clues about an object, to create a complete picture or idea

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89
Q

constancy

A

idea that we perceive certain characteristics of objects to remain the same, despite diff in the environment

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90
Q

gestalt principles

A

these are ways for the brain to infer missing parts of a picture when a picture is incomplete

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91
Q

law of proximity

A

elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit

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92
Q

law of good continuation

A

elements that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together

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93
Q

subjective contours

A

perceiving contours, and therefore shapes that are not actually present in the stimulus

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94
Q

law of closure

A

when a space is enclosed by a contour it tends to be perceived as a complete figure

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95
Q

law of pragnanz

A

perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible

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96
Q

habituation vs dishabituation

A

habituation is a decrease in response after repeated exposure, while dishabituation is the recovery of a response to a stimulus after habituation has occurred

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97
Q

which type of reinforcement schedule is the best for learning a new behavior?

A

variable ratio

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98
Q

latent learning

A

learning that occurs without a reward but that is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced

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99
Q

instinctive drift

A

difficulty in overcoming instinctual behaviors

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100
Q

mirror neurons

A

neurons located in frontal/parietal lobes and fire when an individual performs an action and when that individual observes someone else performing that action

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101
Q

self-reference effect

A

we remember info best when we put it in context of our own lives

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102
Q

method of loci

A

involves associating each item in a list with a location along a route through a building that has already been memorized

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103
Q

peg-word system

A

associated numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the numbers

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104
Q

iconic vs echoic memory

A

iconic is visual and echoic is auditory memory

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105
Q

where is STM primarily housed?

A

hippocampus

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106
Q

explicit vs implicit memory

A

explicit is memory that consists of those memories that require conscious recall while implicit consists of our skills and conditioned responses

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107
Q

how can implicit memory be broken up further? define 1. semantic memory
2. episodic memory

A
  1. semantic memory is facts that we know

2. episodic memory is our experiences

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108
Q

spacing effect

A

learning is more effective when study sessions are spaced out

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109
Q

spreading activation

A

when one word unconsciously activates other linked concepts

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110
Q

serial position effect

A

higher recall for both the first few and last few items on a list

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111
Q

sundowning

A

increased dysfunction in the late afternoon and evening often exhibited in alzheimer’s

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112
Q

what causes korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

a Thiamine deficiency in the brain

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113
Q

agnosia

A

loss of ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds

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114
Q

proactive vs retroactive interference

A

proactive is when old info is interfering w/ new learning, and retroactive is when new info causes the forgetting of old info

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115
Q

misinformation effect

A

observing one thing and then recalling another thing because of false info

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116
Q

source-monitoring error

A

person remembers details of an event but focuses the context under which the details were gained

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117
Q

long-term potentiation

A

strengthening of synapses based on patterns of activity

- bases of LTM

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118
Q

dual-coding theory

A

both verbal associations and visual images are used to process/store info

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119
Q

schema

A

concept, behavior, or a sequence of events

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120
Q

assimilation vs accommodation

A

assimilation is the process of classifying new info into existing schemata, while accommodation is the process by which existing schemata are modified to encompass this new info

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121
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

birth to 2 years; child learns to manipulate environment to meet physical needs

  • circular rxns
  • object permanence
  • representational thought
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122
Q

primary vs secondary reactions

A

primary is repetition of body movement that originally occurred by chance (sucking thumb), secondary is when manipulation is focused on something outside the body (throwing things from high chair)

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123
Q

object permanence

A

understanding that objects exist even when out of view

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124
Q

representational thought

A

child has begun to create mental representations of external objects and events

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125
Q

pre operational stage

A

2 to 7 years old; symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and internal representations
- thinks INTUITIVELY rather than LOGICALLY

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126
Q

symbolic thinking

A

ability to pretend, make-believe, and have an imagination

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127
Q

egocentrism

A

inability to imagine what another person may think or feel

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128
Q

centration

A

tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon, or inability understand the concept of conservation

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129
Q

concrete operational stage

A

7-11 years old; children can understand conservation and conservation perspective of others

  • logical thought
  • CANNOT think abstractly
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130
Q

formal operational stage

A

11+ years old; ability to think logically about abstract ideas

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131
Q

Lev Vygotsky theorized that…

A

the engine driving cognitive development is the child’s internalization of his/her culture

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132
Q

fluid vs crystallized intelligence

A

fluid is problem solving skills while crystallized is more related to use of learned skills and knowledge

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133
Q

mental set

A

tendency to approach similar problems the same way

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134
Q

functional fixedness

A

inability to consider how to use an object in a nontraditional manner

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135
Q

heuristics

A

simplified principles used to make decisions

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136
Q

when is the availability heuristic used?

A

when we try to decide how likely something is

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137
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

involved categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category

138
Q

base rate fallacy

A

using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical info

139
Q

disinformation principle

A

when a potential solution to a problem fails during testing, this solution should be discarded

140
Q

confirmation bias

A

tendency to focus on info that fits and individuals beliefs, while rejecting info that goes against them

141
Q

recognition-primed decision model

A

after sorting through a variety of info to match a pattern, a person has gained an extensive level of experience that he/she is able to access w/o awareness

142
Q

reticular formation

A

neural structure in brainstem that keeps cortex awake and alert

143
Q

what kinds of waves are in each stage of sleep?

A
  • stage 1 - theta waves
  • stage 2 - sleep spindles & K complexes
  • stage 3/4 - delta waves
  • REM - sawtooth waves
144
Q

pathway for cortisol in morning

A

increasing light -> CRF -> ACTH -> cortisol (from adrenal cortex)

145
Q

activation synthesis theory

A

dreams are caused by wide-spread, random activation of neural circuitry

146
Q

problem solving dream theory

A

dreams are a way to solve problems while you are sleeping

147
Q

cognitive process dream theory

A

dreams are merely the sleeping counterpart of stream-of-consciousness

148
Q

dyssomnias vs parasomnias

A

dyssomnias refer to disorders act make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep, while parasomnias are abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

149
Q

narcolepsy

A

lack of voluntary control over onset of sleep

150
Q

hypnotic induction

A

hypnotist seeks to relax subject and increase subject’s level of concentration

151
Q

depressants

A

reduce NS activity, causing relaxation and reduced anxiety

152
Q

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome (caused by deficiency of what?)

A

deficiency of thiamine and characterized by severe memory impairment w/ AMS

153
Q

stimulants

A

increase in arousal of NS

154
Q

amphetamines

A

increase arousal by increasing release of dopamine, norepi, and serotonin (Decreasing reuptake)

155
Q

cocaine

A

decreases reuptake of dopamine, norepi, and serotonin

156
Q

opioids

A

bind to opioid receptors in PNS and CNS and decrease rxn to pain and give a sense of euphoria

157
Q

hallucinogens

A

likely affects serotonin, cause distortions of reality and fantasy, and enhancement of sensory experiences

158
Q

Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), how does it affect GABA and dopamine?

A

acts at cannabinoid, glycine, and opioid receptors

- THC inhibits GABA activity and increases dopamine causing pleasure

159
Q

mesolimbic reward pathway

A

nucleus accumbens (NAc) -> ventral tagmental area (VTA) -> medial forebrain bundle (MFB)

160
Q

phonology vs morphology

A

phonology is the actual sound of language while morphology is the structure of words

161
Q

nativist theory

A

existence of some innate capacity of language

162
Q

language acquisition device (LAD)

A

theoretical pathway

163
Q

social interactionist theory

A

focuses on interplay b/w biological and social processes

164
Q

linguistic relativity (Whorfian) hypothesis

A

our perception of reality is determined by the content of language

165
Q

broca’s area

A

controls motor function of speech via connections w/ motor cortex

166
Q

wernicke’s area

A

responsible for language comprehension

167
Q

conduction aphasia

A

speech production and comprehension are intact, but cannot repeat something that was said

168
Q

extrinsic vs intrinsic motivation

A

extrinsic is from external forces, coming from outside oneself, while intrinsic comes from within oneself

169
Q

instinct theory of motivation

A

people are driven to do certain behaviors based on evolutionarily programmed instincts

170
Q

arousal theory and explain how it includes heroes-dodson law

A

people perform actions in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal
- people peak performance with a medium amount of arousal

171
Q

examples of primary drives and secondary drives

A

need for food, water, warmth, etc.

- the drive to matriculate into medical school and become a doctor

172
Q

drive reduction theory

A

motivation is based on the goal of eliminating uncomfortable states

173
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from the bottom to the top:

A

physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization

174
Q

self determination theory (arc)

A

emphasizes the role of:

  1. autonomy - the need to be in control of one’s ideas
  2. competence - the need to complete and excel at difficult tasks
  3. relatedness - the need to feel accepted and wanted in relationships
175
Q

4 primary factors that influence motivation

A

instincts
arousal
drives
needs

176
Q

incentive theory

A

behavior is motivated not by need or arousal, but by the desire to pursue rewards and to avoid punishments

177
Q

expectancy-value theory

A

the amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectation of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which they values succeeding at the goal

178
Q

opponent-process theory

A

when a drug is taken repeatedly, the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology

179
Q

james-lange theory of motivation

A

a stimulus results first in physiological arousal, which leads to a secondary response in which the emotion is labeled

180
Q

cannon-bard theory of emotion

A

cognitive and physiological components of emotion occur simultaneously and result in the behavioral component of emotion

181
Q

what is true of the schachter-singer theory & cognitive arousal theory & two-factor theory ?

A

both arousal and labeling of arousal based on environment must occur in order for an emotion to be experienced

182
Q

thalamus

A

preliminary sensory processing station and routes information to cortex and other appropriate areas of the brain

183
Q

emotional memory

A

storage of actual feelings of emotion associated w/ an event

184
Q

functions of 2 parts of PFC, specify on VM PFC

A
  1. dorsal PFC - attention and cognition
  2. ventral PFC - connects w/ regions of brain responsible for experiencing emotion
    - ventromedial PFC - decision making and controlling emotional responses from amygdala
185
Q

cognitive appraisal

A

subjective evaluation of a situation that induces stress

186
Q

primary vs secondary appraisal

A
  • PRIMARY is initial examination which finds out of the stress is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful
  • if it is a threat, SECONDARY is the evaluation of one’s ability to cope w/ the stress
187
Q

distress vs eustress

A

distress occurs when experiencing unpleasant stressors, eustress is a result of positive conditions

188
Q

social readjustment rating scale

A

system that levels stress level measured in “life change units”

189
Q

general adaption syndrome (3 stages)

  1. alarm
  2. resistance
  3. exhaustion
A
  1. alarm - initial reaction to a stressor and activation of SNS
  2. resistance - continuous release of hormones allows SNS to remain engaged to fight stressor
  3. exhaustion - body can no longer maintain elevated response w/ SNS activity
190
Q

androgyny vs undifferentiated

A

androgyny is state of being simultaneously very masculine and very feminine, undifferentiated is having low scores on both

191
Q

theory of gender schema

A

key components of gender identity are transmitted through cultural and societal means

192
Q

hierarchy of salience

A

we let the situation dictate which identity holds the most importance for us at any given moment

193
Q

self-discrepancy theory; describe 3 selves

  1. actual self
  2. ideal self
  3. ought self
A

each of us has 3 selves

  1. actual self - the way we see ourselves as we currently are
  2. ideal self - person we would like to be
  3. ought self - representation of the way others think we should be
194
Q

self-efficacy

A

our belief in our ability to succeed

195
Q

locus of control; internal vs external

A

the way we characterize the influences in our lives

- internal is when people control their own fate, and external is that their life is caused by luck or outside influence

196
Q

libido

A

the sex drive

197
Q

fixation, what can it lead to in adults?

A

occurs when a child is overindulged or overly frustrated during a stage of development
- neurosis

198
Q

oral stage (0-1 yrs)

A

libidinal energy centered on the mouth

- fixation can lead to excessive dependency

199
Q 
anal stage (1-3 yrs)
- fixation can either lead to \_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

toilet training occurs during this time

- fixation can lead to excessive orderliness or messiness

200
Q

phallic stage (3-5 yrs)

A

oedipal or electra conflict is resolved during this stage

201
Q

latency stage (until puberty)

A

libido is sublimated

202
Q

genital stage (puberty to adulthood)

A
  • makes associations w/ a gender, and now seeks out sexual relations w/ others
    if previous stages have been successully resolved, the person will enter into normal heterosexual relationship
203
Q

5 stages of psychosexual development

A
  1. Oral Stage
  2. Anal Stage
  3. Phallic Stage
  4. Latency Stage
  5. Genital Stage
204
Q

trust vs. mistrust

A

0-1 y/o

- child will either trust environment/self or be suspicious of the world

205
Q

autonomy vs shame and doubt

A

1-3 y/o

  • favorable outcome is feeling able to exert control over the world and exercise choice
  • unfavorable outcome is sense of doubt
206
Q

initiative vs guilt

A

3-6 y/o

  • favorable outcomes include sense of purpose, ability to initiate activities, ability to enjoy accomplishment
  • if guilt wins, child is overcome by fear of punishment that they may restrict himself or show off
207
Q

industry vs inferiority

A

6-12 years

  • favorable is child feeling competent, and exercising abilities and intelligence in the world
  • unfavorable is sense of inadequacy and inability to act competently, low self esteem
208
Q

identity vs. role confusion

A

12-20 y/o

  • physiological revolution
  • develop a sense of self
209
Q

intimacy vs isolation

A

20-40 y/o

  • favorable is love, intimacy, and commitment to someone
  • unfavorable is avoidance, distancing oneself, isolation
210
Q

generativity vs stagnation

A

40-65 y/o

  • favorable is being a caring, contributing member of society
  • unfavorable is sense of stagnation, self indulgence, boredom, self-centered
211
Q

integrity vs despair

A

65+

  • favorable is wisdom, dignity, and acceptance of good life
  • unfavorable is feeling of bitterness about one’s life, worthlessness, fear of death
212
Q

pre conventional morality

A
  1. obedience - punishment
  2. self-interest - gaining rewards
    - preadolescence
213
Q

conventional morality

A

individuals begin to see themselves in terms of their relationships to others

  1. conformity - seek approval of others
  2. law and order - maintains the social order in the highest regard
214
Q

postconventional morality

what is the social contract?

A

describes level of reasoning Kohlberg claimed not everyone was capable of and is highest level, where you make ideals based on social norms, which may conflict w/ laws

  • views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure greater good
215
Q

zone of proximal development

A

those skills and abilities that have not yet fully developed but are in the process of development

216
Q

theory of mind

A

ability to sense how another’s mind works

ex. friend is interpreting story while you tell it

217
Q

looking-glass self

A

an image of yourself based on what you believe others think of you

218
Q

id

A

all the basic, primal, inborn urges to survive and reproduce

219
Q

pleasure principle

A

tendency of the id to strive for immediate gratification

220
Q

primary process

A

id’s response to frustration: obtain satisfaction now, not later

221
Q

secondary process (for ego)

A

The ego process of rationally seeking an object to satisfy a desire.

222
Q

superego

A

the ideal self

223
Q

Conscience vs. ego-ideal

A

conscience is a collection of those proper actions for which a child is punished, ego-ideal is those proper actions for which a child is rewarded

224
Q

reaction formation

A

suppressing urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites

225
Q

thematic apperception test

A

a projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambiguous scenes

226
Q

Rorsachach inkblot test

A

10 inkblots, seeks to identify people’s inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots

227
Q

displacement (in the context of urges)

A

transference of an undesired urge fro one person or object to another

228
Q

sublimation

A

transformation of unacceptable urges into social acceptable behaviors

229
Q

anima/animus

A

the feminine side of a man/the masculine side of a woman

230
Q

shadow archetype

A

responsible for appearance of unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts, feelings and actions in our consciousness

231
Q

Self (Jung archetyp

A

the point of intersection b/w collective unconscious, the personal unconscious, and the conscious mind

232
Q

myers-briggs type inventory

A

personality test 4 variable combination (introverted & extroverted: sensing, feeling, thinking, and intuition)

233
Q

inferiority complex

A

an individual’s sense of incompleteness, imperfection, and inferiority both physically and socially

234
Q

fictional finalism

A

the notion that an individual is motivated more by his expectations of the future than by past experiences

235
Q

neurotic needs

A

10 needs that are directed toward making life and interactions bearable

236
Q

what causes basic anxiety and basic hostility?

A

basic anxiety is caused by inadequate parenting and basic hostility is caused by neglect and rejection

237
Q

object relations theory

A

representation of parents or other caregivers based on subjective experiences during early infancy

238
Q

phenomenological theorists

A

focus on value of individuals and take a more person-centered approach

239
Q

gestalt therapy

A

practitioners tend to take a holistic view of the self, seeing each individual as a complete person rather than reducing him to individual behaviors or drives

240
Q

Force field theory (Kurt Lewin)

A

focus on current state of mind

241
Q

peak experiences (Maslow)

A

profound and deeply moving experiences in a person’s life that have important and lasting effects on the individual

242
Q

personal construct psychology

A

Humanistic theory of personality:
People are constantly testing predictions of others’ behaviors; anxiety occurs when the predictions are difficult to make

243
Q

client-centered therapy

A

a humanistic therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, in which the therapist uses techniques such as active listening within a genuine, accepting, empathic environment to facilitate clients’ growth. (Also called person-centered therapy.)

244
Q

Unconditional Positive Regard (Rogers)

A

an attitude of total acceptance toward another person

245
Q

type vs trait theorists

A

type try to create a taxonomy of personality types while trait prefer to describe individual personality as the sum of a person’s characteristic behaviors

246
Q

type A vs type B personalities

A

type A is competitive and compulsive while type B is laid back and and relaxed

247
Q

PEN model

  • psychoticism
  • extraversion
  • neuroticism
A
  • psychoticism: a measure of nonconformity or social deviance
  • extraversion: a measure of tolerance for social interaction and stimulation
  • neuroticism: a measure of emotional arousal in stressful situations
248
Q

Big 5

A

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

249
Q

cardinal traits

A

traits around which a person organizes his or her life

250
Q

central traits

A

secondary traits
other personal characteristics that are more limited in occurrence: aspects of one’s personality that only appear in close groups or specific social situations

251
Q

functional autonomy

A

behavior continues despite satisfaction of the drive that originally created the behavior

252
Q

token economies

A

Positive behavior is rewarded with tokens that can be exchanged for privileges, treats, or other reinforcers

253
Q

reciprocal determinism

A

idea that our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and environment all interact with each other to determine our actions in a given situation

254
Q

biomedical approach

A

assumes that any disorder has roots in biomedical disturbances, and the SOLUTION should also be of biomedical nature

255
Q

biopsychosocial approach

A

assumes there are biological, psychological, and social components to an individual’s disorder

256
Q

schizophrenia

A

delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought/behavior

- must show continuous signs of disturbance for 6 months

257
Q

positive vs negative symptoms

A

positive are behaviors added to normal behavior (delusions), while negative are the absence of normal behavior (decrease in motivation)

258
Q

explain 3 types of delusions (reference, persecution, grandeur)

A
  1. delusions of reference - belief that common elements in environment are directed toward individual
  2. delusions of persecution - belief that the person is being deliberately interfered with
  3. delusions of grandeur - common in bipolar1, belief the person is remarkable in some significant way
259
Q

thought broadcasting vs insertion

A

broadcasting is belief that thoughts are being broadcast directly from one’s head to the external world, while insertion is the belief that thoughts are being placed in one’s head

260
Q

3 types of affect (blunting, flat, and inappropriate)

A
  1. blunting - serve reductio in intensity of affect (emotional) expression
  2. flat affect - there are no signs of emotional expression
  3. inappropriate affect - the affect is clearly discordant w/ content of individual’s speech (laughing when talking about death)
261
Q

what are abolition and affect?

A

affect is the experience and display of emotion, and avolition is decreased engagement in purposeful, goal oriented actions

262
Q

prodromal phase

A

phase before SCZ is diagnosed, characterized by poor judgement
-deterioration, social withdrawal, peculiar behavior, etc.

263
Q

major depressive disorder

A

1+ period of at least 2 weeks with 5 of the following symptoms: depressed mood, loss of interest, appetite disturbance, weight change, sleep disturbance, lethargic, feeling of worthlessness, difficulty concentrating, etc.

264
Q

persistent depressive disorder

A

individuals who suffer from dysthymia, depressed mood but not severe enough to meet criteria of MJD

265
Q

MJD symptoms mnemonic

A 
SIG E CAPS
Sleep
Interest
Guilt
Energy
Concentration
Appetite
Psychomotor symptoms 
Suicidal thoughts
266
Q

manic episode symptoms mnemonic

A 
DIG FAST
Distractible 
Insomina
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Agitation 
Speech
Thoughtlessness
267
Q

manic episodes

A

characterized by abnormal and persistently elevated mood lasting at least one week with at least 3 of following: increased distractibility, decreased ned for sleep, inflated self esteem (grandiosity)

268
Q

Bipolar 1 vs 2

A

BP1 is manic eposes with or without MDE, while BP2 has hypomania with at least one MDE

269
Q

cyclothymic disorder

A

combination of hypomanic episodes and periods of dysthymia that are not severe enough to qualify as MDEs

270
Q

monoamine or catecholamine theory of depression

A

too much norepi and serotonin in synapse lead to mania, while too little leads to depression

271
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear of being in places/situations where it might be hard for an individual to escape

272
Q

panic disorder; symptoms?

A

repeated panic attacks

- fear, trembling, sweating, hyperventilation, sense of unreality

273
Q

body dysmorphic disorder

A

person has unrealistic negative eval of appearance and attractiveness

274
Q

explain intrusion, avoidance, arousal, and negative cognitive symptoms from PTSD

A
  1. intrusion symptoms - recurrent reliving of event
  2. avoidance symptoms - deliberate attempts to avoid memories
  3. negative cognitive symptoms - inability to recall key features of event, negative view of world
  4. arousal symptoms - increased startle response, irritability, insomnia, reckless behavior
275
Q

dissociative amnesia; dissociative fugue

A

amnesia is inability to recall past experiences (often linked to trauma), fugue is a sudden, unexpected move or wandering away from one’s home (confused about identity)

276
Q

dissociative identity disorder (DID)

A

2 or more personalities that recurrently take control of a person’s behavior
- sometimes from abuse as a child

277
Q

depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

individuals feel detached from own mind/body (depersonalization) or from their surroundings (derealization)

278
Q

conversion disorder

A

unexplained symptoms affecting voluntary motor/sensory functions

279
Q

ego syntonic vs ego dystonic

A

syntonic is when the individual perceives behavior as correct, dystonic is when the individual sees illness as intrusive

280
Q

Cluster A disorders, explain each:

  1. paranoid personality disorder
  2. schizotypal personality disorder
  3. schizoid personality disorder
A
  1. paranoid personality disorder - pervasive distrust of others and their motives
  2. schizotypal personality disorder - pattern of odd/eccentric thinking, have ideas of reference or magical thinking
  3. schizoid personality disorder - pattern of detachment from relationships and restricted emotional expression
281
Q

Cluster B disorders, explain each:

  1. antisocial personality disorder
  2. borderline personality disorder
  3. histrionic personality disorder
  4. narcissistic personality disorder
A
  1. antisocial personality disorder - disregard for and violation of rights of others
  2. borderline personality disorder - instability in interpersonal behavior, mood, and self image, relationship problems, suicide, fear of abandonment
  3. histrionic personality disorder - constant attention-seeking behavior (dramatic, colorful clothes, etc.)
  4. narcissistic personality disorder - grandiose sense of self-importance, need for constant admiration, disturbances in relationships (fragile self esteem)
282
Q

Cluster C disorders, explain each

  1. avoidant personality disorder
  2. dependent personality disorder
  3. obsessive compulsive personality disorder
A
  1. avoidant personality disorder - shyness and fear of rejection, socially isolated, desire for acceptance
  2. dependent personality disorder - continuous need for reassurance, remain dependent of parent or sig. other
  3. obsessive compulsive personality disorder - individual is perfectionistic and inflexible, likes rules and order. can’t discard worn-out objects, lack of desire to change, stubbornness
283
Q

For depression, what are levels of:

glucose metabolism, cortisol, norepi, serotonin, dopamine, and hippocampus size?

A
  • high glucose metabolism in amygdala
  • high levels of cortisol
  • decreased norepi, serotonin, dopamine
  • hippocampus atrophy
284
Q

For bipolar disorders, what are factors for: norepi/serotonin, genetics, risk for MS?

A
  • increased norepi and serotonin
  • higher risk if parent has bipolar disorder
  • higher risk for persons w/ MS
285
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A
  • bradykinesia (slow movement)
  • resting tremor (tremor that appears when muscles aren’t being used)
  • pill-rolling tremor (flexing/extending fingers while moving thumb back/forth)
  • mask like facies (expressionless face, staring eyes)
  • cogwheel rigidity (muscle tension that intermittently halts movement)
  • shuffling gait w/ stooped posture
286
Q

what is the biological basis of parkinson’s (deficiency of what? in what structure of brain?)

A

decreased dopamine production in substantia nigra (of basal ganglia)

287
Q

how does L-DOPA help manage parkinson’s?

A

L-DOPA is a precursor that is converted to dopamine once in the brain, replacing lost dopamine

288
Q

Michelangelo phenomenon

A

concept of self is made up of your own traits and the influence people have on you

289
Q

social facilitation and yerkes-dodson law

A

social facilitation is when people perform a task better when in the presence of others
- yerkes-dodson law claims that peak performance comes from medium arousal

290
Q

what is social loafing

A

tendency of individuals to put in less effort in a group setting than an individual one

291
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

simultaneous presence of 2 opposing thoughts/opinions, leading to discomfort and an attempt to minimize one thought

292
Q

group polarization, and risky/choice shift

what is groupthink?

A

group polarization is when a group will make a decision that is more extreme than individuals in the group would make
-risky or choice shifts means that they the group can make riskier or more cautious decisions, respectively

Groupthink is when a group of people come to an incorrect/poor decision as a result of trying to maintain harmony

293
Q

what is assimilation and how do ethnic enclaves affect it?

A

assimilation is the process by which a group’s behavior/culture begin to resemble that of another group, and it can be slowed by ethnic enclaves, which are locations w/ a high concentration of one ethnicity

294
Q

define cultural transmission, cultural diffusion

A
  • transmission is process through which cultural elements, in the form of attitudes, values, beliefs, and behavioral scripts, are passed onto and taught to individuals and groups
  • diffusion is the spread of norms, customs, and beliefs
295
Q

anticipatory socialization vs resocialization

A

process by which a person prepares for future changes in life, resocialization is when one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones to make a life change

296
Q

what is the labeling theory? what about the differential dissociation theory? strain theory?

A
  • labels given to people affect not only how others respond, but also their own self image
  • deviance can be learned through interactions w/ others who are also deviant
  • deviance is a result of disconnect from societal goals (theft as chasing the american dream)
297
Q

identification vs internalization

A

Identification is when people are influenced by someone who is liked and respected, such as a famous celebrity. Internalization is when people accept a belief or behavior and agree both publicly and privately

298
Q

foot in the door vs door in the face techniques vs lowball technique vs thats not all technique

A
  • small request is made, and after gaining compliance, a larger request is made
  • large request is made, and if refused, smaller request is made
  • requestor gets initial commitment from individual and then raises the cost of commitment
  • individual is made an offer, but before the decision, is told the deal is even better than expected
299
Q

what are the components (ABC) of attitude?

A

Affective - the way a person feels toward something (emotional component)
Behavioral - the way a person acts towards something
Cognitive - the way an individual thinks toward something

300
Q

functional attitudes theory

A

attitudes serve 4 functions

  1. knowledge - attitudes help provide organization to thoughts
  2. ego expression - allows us to communicate our self identity
  3. adaptation - one will be accepted if socially accepted attitudes are expressed
  4. ego defense - protect self esteem or justify actions we know are wrong
301
Q

elaboration likelihood model and how it pertains to central route vs. peripheral route processing

A

elaboration likelihood model separates individuals based on central route processing (elaborate thinking). and peripheral route processing (superficial thinking)

302
Q

learning theory vs social cognitive theory

A

learning theory is that attitudes are developed through diff forms of learning, while social cognitive is that people learn how to behave by observing others

303
Q

ascribed vs achieved vs master status

A
  • status given involuntarily
  • status gained as a result of one’s effort/choices
  • status by which a person is more identified
304
Q

role conflict vs role strain vs role exit

A
  • difficulty satisfying requirements of multiple roles
  • difficulty satisfying multiple requirements for same role
  • dropping of one identity for another
305
Q

gemeinschaft und gesellschaft

A

community and society

  • gemeinschaft (community) refers to groups unified bu feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography
  • gesellschaft (society) refers to groups that are formed b/c of mutual self interests working together toward the same goal
306
Q

3 parts of SYMLOG

What is McDonaldization?

A
  1. dominance vs. submission
  2. friendliness vs. unfriendliness
  3. instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive

Mcdonaldization is a shift in focus toward efficiency, predictability, calculability, and control in societies

307
Q

how to formal organizations and groups differ? what is the iron law of oligarchy?

A

organizations continue despite departure of an individual member; organizations have expressed goals; organizations have enforcement procedures
- democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group

308
Q

what is the basic model of emotional expression and how was it established by?

What is the appraisal model?

A

by Charles darwin - emotional expression involves a facial expressions, behaviors, postures, vocal changes, physiological changes

  • accepts that there are biologically predetermined expressions once an emotion is experienced, but there is a cognitive antecedent to emotional expression
309
Q

what does the social construction model assume about emotion?

A

that there is no biological basis for emotions

310
Q

authentic vs ideal vs tactical self

A
  • authentic self is your own self image
  • ideal self is who you’d like to be
  • tactical self is how you market yourself to others
311
Q

describe front stage vs. back stage self of dramaturgical approach

A

front stage is where the actor is in front of people and acts accordingly to conform to the image he wants other to see
- back stage is when the actor is not being observed and can act how he feels

312
Q

T or F, we are attracted to someone who is similar to us?

what its reciprocal liking?
what is the mere exposure effect / familiarity effect?

A

TRUE

  • you like someone more when you believe they like you back
  • people prefer stimuli they’ve been exposed to more frequently
313
Q

cognitive neoassociation model

A

we’re more likely to respond to others aggressively when we’re feeling negative emotions

314
Q 
compare/contrast the following:
secure attachment
avoidant attachment
ambivalent attachment
disorganized attachment
A
  • secure attachment is when a child has a consistent caregiver and is able to go explore, knowing they have a secure base to return to
  • avoidant attachment is when caregiver has little/no response to a distressed child
  • ambivalent attachment is when caregiver has inconsistent response to child’s distress
  • disorganized attachment is when child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to caregiver’s absence or presence
315
Q

monogamy vs polygyny vs polyandry vs promiscuity

A
  • monogamy is an exclusive mating relationship
  • polygyny is 1M many F, polyandry is 1F many M
  • promiscuity is relationship w/ opp. sex w/o exclusivity
316
Q

direct vs indirect benefits when mating

A

direct provides advantages to mate, indirect provides advantage to offspring

317
Q

altruism vs cooperation vs spite vs selfishness

A
  • altruism is when donor provides benefit to recipient at a cost to him
  • cooperation is when both donor and recipient benefit by cooperating
  • spite is when both donor and recipient are negative impacted
  • selfishness is when donor benefits while recipient is negatively impacted
318
Q

explain just-world hypothesis and self-serving bias

A
  • good things happen to good people, bad things to bad people (karma)
  • individuals will view own success from internal factors, and failures from external factors
319
Q

consistency cues vs consensus cues vs distinctiveness cues

what is the fundamental attribution error?

A

consistency cues have consistent behavior over time, consensus cues match others’ behavior, distinctiveness cues use similar behavior in similar situations

we’re generally biased toward making disposition attributions rather than situational attributions, especially in negative contexts

320
Q

paternalistic vs contemptuous vs envious vs admiration stereotypes

A
  • paternalistic is when a group is looked down upon as inferior
  • contemptuous is when group is viewed w/ resentment
  • envious is when group is viewed w/ jealous/bitterness
  • admiration is when group is viewed w/ pride
321
Q

what is a stereotype threat? what is ethnocentrism?

A

when people are afraid of confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group
- ethnocentrism is the practice of making judgements about other cultures based on values/beliefs of one’s own culture

322
Q

what is cultural relativism? describe institutional vs. individual discrimination

A

perception of another culture as diff/ from one’s own, but w/ recognition that the cultural values fit
- individual is discrimination by a person/group, while institutional is discrimination by an entire institution

323
Q

manifest vs latent functions

A

manifest is an action intended to help some part of a system, while latent is an unintended positive consequence on other parts of society

324
Q

symbolic interactionism vs social constructionism

A

symbolic interactionism reflects on how we use symbols to interact w/ each other, social constructionism reflects on how we as a society construct concepts and principles

325
Q

define rational choice theory, exchange theory, feminist theory

A
  1. rational choice theory focuses on decision making in an individual and attempts to reduce this process to a careful consideration of benefits/harms to the individual 2. exchange theory is extension of rational choice theory that focuses on interactions in groups
  2. feminist theory focuses on subordination women through social structure and institutional discrimination
326
Q

define democracy, monarchy, dictatorship, theocracy, capitalist, socialist

A

DEMOCRACY allows every citizen a political voice through electing representatives. MONARCHIES include king/queen, but power may be mitigated by parliament. DICTATORSHIP is when single person holds power. THEOCRACY is where power held by religious leaders.
CAPITALIST focuses on free market trade and limited gov. intervention (encourage division of labor). SOCIALISTS treat large businesses as shared and profit is shared w/ workforce.

327
Q 
explain the 4 tenets of medical ethics:
beneficence 
nonmaleficence 
respect for patient autonomy
justice
A
  1. beneficence - physician has responsibility to act in patient’s best interest
  2. nonmaleficence - physician has responsibility to avoid potentially harmful treatments
  3. respect for patient autonomy - physician has responsibility to respect patient’s decisions
  4. justice - physician has responsibility to treat similar patients w/ similar care
328
Q

how do functionalists view society?

A

as a living organism

329
Q

what is ethnography and what are ethnographic methods?

material culture is associated with ________ and symbolic culture is associated with _________

A

ethnography is the study of cultures/customs and ethnographic methods are methods used to study the ethnicity/culture of a group

artifacts; ideas

330
Q

what is culture lag?

  • what is the diff. b/w a value and a belief?
A

when symbolic culture is slower to change than material culture

  • a value is something important in life (a standard), a belief is something an individual accepts to be truth
331
Q

ascribed vs achieved status

A

ascribed is involuntary (age, gender, skin color), while achieved is voluntary (something achieved through hard work)

332
Q

describe marxist theory of social stratification

what is class consciousness, how does it differ from false consciousness

A

the proletariat (have-nots) can overthrow the bourgeoisie (haves) by developing class consciousness

class consciousness is the organization of working las around shared goals and need for political action. false consciousness is misrepresentation of one’s actual position within society

333
Q

what is anomie and strain theory?

A

anomie is a lack of social norms or a breakdown of social bonds b/w individual and society
- strain theory focuses on how anomic conditions lead to deviance by eroding social solidarity

334
Q

what is social capital? is it proportional to social integration? what about to social inequality?

A

social capital is investment into society in return for economic/collective rewards
- prop. to social integration, inversely prop. to social inequality

335
Q

what is intersectionality in the context of social class?

A

the compounding of disadvantage seen in individuals who belong to more than one oppressed group

336
Q

meritocracy vs plutocracy

A

meritocracy is based on intellectual talent/achievement, and is a means for a person to advance up the social ladder
- plutocracy is rule by the upper class

337
Q

vertical vs. horizontal mobility in the context of social stratification

what is gentrification?

A

vertical mobility is movement from one social class to another, while horizontal is change in occupation within the same social class

gentrification is when upper/middle class populations begin to purchase/renovate bad neighborhoods

338
Q

define core/peripheral/semi-peripheral nations

A

core nations focus on higher skills/paying productions. peripheral nations have lower-skilled productions. semi-peripheral nations are midway between the two

339
Q

incidence vs prevalence; mortality vs. morbidity in terms of epidemiology

A
  • incidence is new cases/pop. at risk/time
  • prevalence is total cases/total pop. /time
    mortality is deaths causes by disease, morbidity is degree of illness w/ disease
340
Q

what is second sickness?

medicare vs. medicaid

A

making health outcomes worse through social injustice

medicare covers patients 65+ and w/ various diseases, medicaid covers patients in significant financial need

MCAT (8 decks)

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