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MCAT > Behavioral Sciences > Flashcards

Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

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1
Q

T/F: Rods make up the vast majority of the photoreceptor cells in the eye. Basically rods > cones

A

TRUE

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2
Q

What is the visual pigment of rods?

A

Rhodopsin - highly sensitive to light

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3
Q

T/F: Rods primarily contribute to scotopic vision.

A

TRUE

Rhodopsin is highly sensitive to light, which thus is main contributor to vision at NIGHT (scotopic!)

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4
Q

As a part of a medical procedure, an ophthalmologist injects a small amount of air into a patient’s right eye. The patient is then instructed to lay down on their left side shifting the air bubble to the right (temporal) side of the right eye. Based on the position of the air bubble, it would most likely cause a visual distortion in the patient’s ____ visual field.

A

LEFT

The temporal retina of the right eye captures light from the left visual field.

The left eye captures light from the right visual field.

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5
Q

Where are the parvocellular neurons located? How good is its spatial and temporal resolution? What kind of objects does it pick up?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus
high spatial, low temporal
stationary objects (notices small, colorful aspects)

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6
Q

Where are the magnocellular neurons located? How good is its spatial and temporal resolution? What kind of objects does it pick up?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus
low spatial, high temporal
moving objects (picks up shape and color but not minute details, keen on picking up object SPEED)

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7
Q

What is the medial geniculate nucleus responsible for? Where is it located?

A

relaying AUDITORY info to cortex

thalamus

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8
Q

T/F: There is low density of cones in the macula.

A

FALSE

HIGH concentration of cones in the central part of the macula (macula with the fovea)

Fovea ONLY has cones!!

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9
Q

List out the WHOLE visual pathway, from light entering to the eye to the occipital lobe receiving the information

A

light → cornea → aqueous humor → pupil/iris → lens (cilliary muscles around it) → vitreous humor → retina (rods/cones →horizontal cells→ bipolar cells →amacrine cells→ ganglion cells)

ganglion cells converge together = optic nerve → optic chiasm → lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) → occipital lobe (primary visual cortex)

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10
Q

What are opsins? What kind of opsins do cones have? Rods?

A

DEF: convert photons of light → electrical signals at retina

Cones = PHOTOpsins
Rods = RHODopsins
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11
Q

Where is the cornea located? Fxn?

A

Transparent, outermost surface of eye

protect eye from foreign substances (ie. dust)

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12
Q

What muscle plays a major role in focusing light on the retina?

A

cilliary muscles (around lens!)

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13
Q

During a vision test, the physician notes that the patient is not able to detect objects in their left visual field. Which of the following could be a possible cause?

a) a pituitary gland tumor pressing on the optic chiasma
b) blood clot blocking cerebral artery supplying left occipital lobe
c) stroke in posterior position of right cerebral hemisphere
d) retinal damage in the left eye

A

C

LVF is processed by the right occipital lobe, which is located at the posterior aspect of the right hemisphere

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14
Q

As a part of a medical procedure, an ophthalmologist injects a small amount of air into a patient’s right eye. While the patient is staying upright, the air bubble rises to the top of eyeball resulting in a distortion of the patient’s visual field. The visual distortion is in the patient’s ____ visual field

A

bottom

the TOP portion of the retina (in BOTH eyes) captures light from the BOTTOM visual field! (and vice versa!!!)

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15
Q

Which layer of the retina are bipolar cells located in? Fxn?

A

inner nuclear layer

connect info from several cones or multiple rods → simplifies info into gradient → send to amacrine and then ganglion

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16
Q

Which layer of the retina are horizontal cells located in? Fxn?

A

outer nuclear layer (along with the rods and cones)

allows lateral communication between the rods and cones → send signal to BIPOLAR cells

Picks up the more nuanced “edges” of the picture

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17
Q

Which layer of the retina are amacrine cells located in? Fxn?

A

inner nuclear layer

receives info from BIPOLAR cells → allows lateral communication between ganglion cells (connects bipolar and ganglion TOGETHER!)

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18
Q

What is the optic chiasm? What is its immediate downstream target?

A

the left and right nasal optic nerves crossover

LGN

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19
Q

temporal visual field

A

visual field closest to ear

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20
Q

nasal visual field

A

visual field closest to nose

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21
Q

T/F: The right eye nasal visual field and the left eye temporal visual field looks at the same part of the world

A

TRUE

The converse is also true, where the left eye nasal visual field and the right eye temporal visual field looks at the same part of the world

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22
Q

What are binocular neurons? Where are they located?

A

make depth perception (3D shit) possible by comparing info received from both hemispheres

occipital lobe

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23
Q

parallel processing

A

the process where the brain processes and interprets incoming visual info of differing quality simultaneously

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24
Q

What is the foot-in-the-door technique? Is it behavior influencing attitude or the other way around?

A

making a larger request after someone agrees to a smaller one

Ie. email to subscribe to newsletter → regularly sends out mail

Example of behavior influencing attitude because agreeing to a smaller request increases the likelihood of agreeing to a larger one

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25
Q

What is the door-in-the-face technique?

A

a large request is made, followed by smaller request after the initial request was denied

Opposite of foot-in-the-door → due to initial denial, they change to smaller request since smaller = more likely to be agreed to

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26
Q

What is the that’s-not-all technique?

A

individual is made an offer and then is told offer is even better than they were first told

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27
Q

What is the lowball technique?

A

after getting an initial commitment, the cost of commitment is RAISED!

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28
Q

Moro reflex

A

startle reflex

infant flings arm out when there is a sudden loud sound or when they suddenly move their head

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29
Q

Babinski reflex

A

the infant’s toes fan out when you stimulate their foot

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30
Q

sucking reflex

A

when the infant automatically sucks anything when the roof of their mouth is stimulated

different from rooting reflex in that sucking doesn’t include the cheek shit (that’s all rooting!)

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31
Q

rooting reflex

A

When the infant’s cheek is touched/stimulated, the baby’s head will turn their head to the direction of the stimulus

not sucking reflex: rooting only describes the head turn; could suck if the mom’s nipple brushed against their cheek but they are two SEPARATE reflexes!

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32
Q

If you touch the hot stove and jerk your hand away immediately or if the doctor strikes your knee, what is the nerve impulse pathway at play here? Exactly what is the common trigger that evokes this pathway

A

afferent (sensing) → interneuron → efferent (motor)

INVOLUNTARY REFLEXES!

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33
Q

What is the limbic system associated with? List at least 3 structures that are a part of the limbic system.

A

memory AND EMOTION

septal nuclei, anterior cingulate gyrus, amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus

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34
Q

What is the somatosensory cortex responsible for? Where is it located?

A

processing tactile senses of the body (ie. pain, temp, pressure, touch)

anterior parietal lobe

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35
Q

reaction formation

A

you respond the opposite way of what your actual inappropriate impulse was

Ie. you act mean to someone you like

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36
Q

sublimation

A

you try to channel your inappropriate impulse in a socially acceptable direction

ie. you get angry at boss, so you take up martial arts to help work out your feelings

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37
Q

displacement

A

you try to change the direction of your emotion WITHOUT CHANGING THE EMOTION ITSELF

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38
Q

suppression

A

you consciously try to get rid of an idea or feeling from your conscious

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39
Q

What does person-centered therapy tend to focus on? What perspective is based on?

A

focuses on client reflection, help them generate their own solutions, and encourages them to take positive action (rather than docs giving solutions or diagnosing them)

humanistic perspective → personality should be understood in the context of the person as a whole

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40
Q

drive reduction theory

A

behavior motivated to get rid of uncomfortable states

ie. you find something to eat to get rid of hunger

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41
Q

arousal theory

A

behavior motivated to maintain an optimal level of arousal

ie. you had a long day of work so you go to karaoke with the squad to destress

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42
Q

incentive theory

A

behavior motivated to gain rewards (external benefits) or avoid punishments

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43
Q

expectancy-value theory

A

behavior motivated based on how much you value a goal and your expectation of success at attaining it

ie. you really want to get a 520+ on your mcat and you have high expectations of doing just that so that motivates you to get out of bed and spend all day in the library

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44
Q

The self-determination theory states that there are 3 universal needs. What are they?

A

AUTONOMY: need to be in control of one’s actions + ideas

competence: desire to complete and EXCEL at difficult tasks
relatedness: need to feel WANTED + ACCEPTED in relationships

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45
Q

What is the opponent-processing theory? Which aspects of repeated drug use does it explain?

A

Repeated drug use physiologically changes the brain and body in attempts to counteract the drug effects

Tolerance (↓ NT receptors, so ↑ dosage for same effect)
Withdrawal (can lead to tolerance and dependence)
Dependence

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46
Q

What are the 3 components of attitude?

A

affective: the way you feel about something
cognitive: the way you think about something (usually justifies affective and behavioral)

behavioral: the way you act with respect to something (react)
ie. a man freezing up whenever encountering a snake in jungle

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47
Q

How to you discern if a person is experiencing attitude influencing behavior vs behavior/experience influencing attitude?

A

Look at the cause!

If the cause states an attitude (ie. believing in something, feeling something, thinks about something) = attitude → behavior

If the cause states an experience (good/bad) or a certain behavior (good/bad) = behavior/experience → attitude
ie. woman disliking doctors after having a bad experience with one

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48
Q

What are 3 similarities of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

both act on the sympathetic nervous system
both MOBILIZE RESOURCES
both DEALS WITH STRESSFUL SITUATIONS

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49
Q

3 differences of epinephrine vs norepinephrine

A

epinephrine ↑ HR VS norepinephrine ↑ BP if BP ↓

epinephrine dilates pupils VS norepinephrine KEEPS BODY TEMP HIGH

epinephrine DIRECTS BLOOD FLOW TO MUSCLES VS norepinephrine STIMULATES ENERGY PRODUCTION

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50
Q

What cognitive ability is acetylcholine responsible for and what are the effects? What if we have an atrophy of ACh? What if we have impaired cholinergic signaling?

A

responsible for cholinergic signaling → focuses our attention to learn and form new MEMORY

atrophy = AD

impaired cholinergic signaling = delirium

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51
Q

What is social cognitive theory? Is this behavior influencing attitude or the other way around?

A

you learn how to behave by observing others, which then shapes your attitude (ie. role-playing effects)

behavior → attitude

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52
Q

What is insufficient justification? Is this behavior influencing attitude or the other way around?

A

social situation (which forms attitude) CAUSES behavior but is NOT RECOGNIZED as the cause

attitude → behavior

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53
Q

What is overjustification? Is this behavior influencing attitude or the other way around?

A

When you think your behavior is mostly caused by the situation while ignoring the fact that maybe the reason why you’re acting this way is because you’re actually INTERESTED in it (not just because of the situation)

attitude → behavior

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54
Q

Which lobe is most associated with sound processing and language comprehension?

A

temporal

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55
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory? How can it be resolved?

A

the discomfort experienced due to the simultaneous presence of 2 conflicting attitudes, opinions, or behaviors

can be resolved by changing one’s behavior to match one’s attitude OR change in attitude to match one’s behavior (WAY more likely one)

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56
Q

Let’s just say that two participants had to choose a vacuum and one participant chose the one ranked 10/10 by consumers and the other chose one ranked 3/10 by consumers. According to this theory, what would the participants with the high-ranked and low-ranked behave?

A

one with higher rank: would not experience cognitive dissoance because their choice (behavior) doesn’t contradict with the consumer ratings, so not compelled to change their behavior

one with lower rank; would question the validity of consumer ratings (this is a CHANGE in attitude in order to resolve cog diss.)
→ if they refuse to use it: this is change in behavior to match the bad ratings (this one’s less common and also a bit of a stretch; changing your attitude is A LOT more likely)

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57
Q

What are Allport’s 3 traits in personality?

A

cardinal: dominant traits that drive all aspects of a person’s personality (rare)
central: MAIN traits of personality
secondary: traits that vary depending on the circumstance (PREFERENCE)

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58
Q

drive vs needs

A

Drive: urge to sate a BIOLOGICAL need (NOT psychological)

Needs: PSYCHOLOGICAL + PHYSICAL requirements that motivate and influence behavior

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59
Q

What are 4 components of temperament? What is thought to be determined by?

A

mood, emotional responsiveness, energy level, demeanor

biology

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60
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, from most → least important? Why is this theory wrong?

A

basic needs, safety, love and belonging, self-respect, self-actualization (creativity, maturity, lack of prejudice)

you can get meet these needs CONCURRENTLY, not in a sequential fashion as Maslow entails

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61
Q

What is NOT an effect of sympathetic NS activation?

a) ↑ HR
b) ↓ skin conductance
c) dilation of pupils
d) ↑ [blood glucose]

A

B

You have INCREASED skin conductance

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62
Q

What are the differences between PET and EEG regarding what kind of information they detect and the regions they scan?

A

PET indirectly measures metabolic activity (↑ glucose metabolism = ↑ activity). EEG measures activity too, but ELECTRICAL activity

EEG can record electrical activity of the brain as a WHOLE, but not in SPECIFIC brain regions like the PET scan can

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63
Q

If your teacher told you to watch a video and then take a quiz on it after, which part of the brain would be least involved in it?

a) hypothalamus
b) hippocampus
c) frontal lobe
d) thalamus

A

A - hypothalamus - homeostatic balance

thalamus - RELAY station for incoming SENSORY info
hippocampus - retaining details into LTM
frontal lobe - cognitive processing of info

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64
Q

Out of family, adoption, and twin studies, which help distinguish between genetic and environmental effects on behavior? If so, which effect do they indicate?

A

adoption and twin studies

adoption studies indicate GENETIC influence since they are working with people with no genetic similarity but the same environment

twin studies indicate ENVIRONMENTAL influence since they are working with people with high genetic similarity but in different environments

Families would NOT be helpful since they are working with people with high genetic similarity AND same environment

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65
Q

What is reciprocal determinism? What perspective of personality is this a central idea of?

A

DEF: our ACTIONS are determined by our INTERACTION between our “BEFT” (behavior, environment, feelings, thoughts)

social-cognitive

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66
Q

What are the 4 perspectives of personality? (Hint: “BeST Personality!”)

A

“BeST Personality” → Behavioral, Social Cognitive, Trait, Psychoanalytic

Behavioral - personality is reflective of BEHAVIORS that have been performed OVER TIME

Social cognitive - reciprocal determinism (behavior determined by BEFT)

Trait - personality = sum of traits

Psychoanalytic - personalities determined by unconscious THOUGHTS + DESIRES

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67
Q

culture-based motivation

A

people perform actions based on cultural/societal norms

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68
Q

humanistic perspective

A

emphasizes empathy and positive aspects of human behavior, encourages to think of individual as a whole rather than a collection of traits

Ie. sensitivity training, person-based therapy

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69
Q

situational approach

A

behavior is primarily determined by environment and context

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70
Q

What would NOT FIRST occur in adolescence?

a) developing romantic feelings
b) rebellion against parents
c) ↑ desire for independence
d) more common cross-gender friendships

A

A - happens at 5

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71
Q

What are the levels of masculinity and femininity in androgenous vs undifferentiated individuals?

A

androgenous: ↑ M and F
undifferentiated: ↓ M and F

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72
Q

What are Freud’s stages of psychosexual development? (Hint: “Orangutans Always Play w/ Little Gorillas”)

A

oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

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73
Q

In Freud’s oral stage, what age? Where’s the erogenous zone? How is libidinal tension reduced? How would the individual turn out if fixated on this stage?

A

0-1 years
mouth
by putting something in the mouth
fixated: ↑ dependency

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74
Q

In Freud’s anal stage, what age? Where’s the erogenous zone? How is libidinal tension reduced? How would the individual turn out if fixated on this stage?

A

1-3
bowel + bladder control
gratification from going to excreting/retaining waste by themselves
fixated: too rigid OR too disordered

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75
Q

In Freud’s phallic stage, what age? Where’s the erogenous zone? How is libidinal tension reduced? How would the individual turn out if fixated on this stage?

A

3-6
genitals
Oedipus and Electra complex: unconscious attraction to their parents of the opposite sex
Fixated: choose a partner that closely resembles the parent of the opposite sex

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76
Q

In Freud’s latency stage, what age? Where’s the erogenous zone? How is libidinal tension reduced? How would the individual turn out if fixated on this stage?

A

6-puberty
N/A
libidinal energy has been sublimated (redirected to other activities and hobbies)
nothing happens in this stage

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77
Q

In Freud’s genital stage, what age? What would a healthily developed adult look like?

A

puberty-adulthood

would have maturing sexual interest and be involved in a mature heterosexual relationship

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78
Q

Name and explain Lev Vygotsky’s important cognitive developmental concept. Does the knowledgeable other have to be more knowledgable than the learner

A

Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)

ZPD is the gap between what the learner CAN do and CANNOT do → the learner CAN DO activities in the ZPD

No (peers can learn shit by sharing new perspectives)

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79
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 1? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

trust vs mistrust
0-1
resolved: sense of HOPE AND TRUST
unresolved: grow up to be suspicious

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80
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 2? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

autonomy vs shame/doubt
1-3
resolved: sense of WILL
unresolved: feelings of lack of control and doubt

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81
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 3? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

Initiative vs Guilt
3-6
resolved: sense of PURPOSE
unresolved: place extensive restrictions on themselves OR show off excessively

82
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 4? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

industry vs inferiority
6-12
resolved: sense of COMPETENCE
unresolved: feel inadequate, ↓ self esteem

83
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 5? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

identity vs confusion
adolescence (12-19)
resolved: strong and stable sense of SELF
unresolved: ID confusion, personality constantly changes

84
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 6? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A 
intimacy vs isolation
young adulthood (20-25)
resolved: gain LOVE (intimacy, commitment, etc.)
unresolved: distance oneself, avoid commitment
85
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 7? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

Generativity vs stagnation
adulthood (26-64)
resolved: sense of CARE (productive, caring members of society)
unresolved: bored, self-centered

86
Q

According to Erik Erikson’s social environmental theory, it’s all about people maturing by resolving conflicts. Out of the 8 stages, what is Stage 8? When does it happen? What if it goes resolved? Unresolved?

A

integrity vs despair
65-death
resolved: sense of WISDOM, accept death when it comes
unresolved: bitter, life is worthless, tend to fear death as well

87
Q

According to Kohlberg’s Moral Theory, what are the stages in the pre-conventional morality stage? If someone was going to steal medicine for his dying wife, how would each stage respond to that?

A

Stage 1: punishment & obedience = no difference between them
Response: don’t steal because he’ll be punished and go to jail

Stage 2: instrumental-relativist = greatest benefit to oneself
Response: do it because he gets to be rewarded by saving his wife even if he has to go to jail

88
Q

According to Kohlberg’s Moral Theory, what are Stages 3 and 4 in the conventional morality stage? If someone was going to steal medicine for his dying wife, how would each stage respond to that?

A

Stage 3: good boy, good girl = cares about others’ approval
Response: don’t steal because he will meet disapproval OR steal because that’s what a good husband should do

Stage 4: law and order = follow rules, maintain social order
Response: don’t steal because it’s illegal

89
Q

According to Kohlberg’s Moral Theory, what are Stages 5 and 6 in the post-conventional morality stage? If someone was going to steal medicine for his dying wife, how would each stage respond to that?

A

Stage 5: social contract = focuses on greater good to ensure society runs smoothly + preserving individual rights (utilitarian roles)
Response: don’t steal because against social contract (if anyone can steal shit if they needed, no one can afford to make such shit in the first place)

Stage 6: universal ethical principles = morality is based on principles that TRANSCEND mutual benefit
Response: do it because he’s preserving life (underlying principle: life has infinite worth, so we should preserve life whenever possible)

90
Q

Self concept vs self-schema vs identity

A

self-concept: a conglomeration of many different self-SCHEMAS

self-schema: labels that describe us (can describe past, present, and future selves)

identity: a unique self-schema because specifically based on our associations with different groups in society

91
Q

social identity theory

A

social ID: one’s sense of ID based on membership in groups

Theory: membership in GROUP can become even MORE IMPORTANT than their INDIVIDUAL ID, in groups and outgroups
→ self-esteem could go ↑ or ↓ based on success/failure of that group

92
Q

hierarchy of salience

A

theory of ID organization that posits that we prioritize a certain ID based on situational context

93
Q

primary group vs secondary group vs reference group

A

primary: small, close, personal relationship that last a long time
secondary: impersonal, temp relationships that are goal-oriented
reference: group someone compares themselves (or in-group) to but DOESN’T BELONG TO

94
Q

Theory of Mind

A

ability to understand other people’s perspectives

95
Q

role-taking

A

taking other roles and understadning that there are IDs outside of our own

96
Q

What is a locus of control? Internal vs External?

A

LoC: perceived ability to control one’s life and situations they face

internal: attributing circumstances (success/failure) to one’s characteristics/actions
external: attributing circumstances (success/failure) to external factors

97
Q

What is the self-discrepancy theory? What are the 3 components of this theory?

A

Each of us has 3 selves (actual, ideal, and ought) and the perceived difference b/w them can lead to negative feelings (ie. low self-esteem) → ↓ diff could lead to ↑ self-esteem but not necessarily and ↑ in self-efficacy

actual: the way we see ourselves as we currently are
ideal: the person we would like to be
ought: the way others think we should be

98
Q

self-efficacy

A

our belief in our ability to succeed

99
Q

looking-glass self

A

the way that the self is developed through understanding the perception that others have of them

100
Q

What type of ID is based on political borders?

a) gender ID
b) ethnic ID
c) nationality ID

A

C ONLY

ethnicity and legal citizenship doesn’t have to be tied with this

101
Q

What is acquisition? If someone is trying to get rid of their fear of dogs, what is the acquisition portion of this scenario?

A

N(neutral)S → CS

The development to fear dogs in the first place

102
Q

What is extinction? If someone is trying to get rid of their fear of dogs, what is the extinction portion of this scenario?

A

CR disappears when no longer elicited by the CS

The person stops fearing dogs when seeing photos of it repeatedly in therapy

103
Q

What is spontaneous recovery? If someone is trying to get rid of their fear of dogs, what is the spontaneous recovery portion of this scenario?

A

spontaneous recurrence of CR that has ALREADY undergone EXTINCTION
Sees dog in the park after therapy session and gets scared again

104
Q

avoidance learning

A

learning to engage in a behavior to avoid facing undesired stimulus

105
Q

escape learning

A

behavior is due to stopping undesired stimulus that has ALREADY STARTED

106
Q

positive punishment

A

↓ behavior by INTRODUCING UNDESIRABLE stimulus

107
Q

positive reinforcement

A

↑ behavior by INTRODUCING DESIRABLE stimulus

108
Q

negative punishment

A

↓ behavior by REMOVING DESIRABLE stimulus

109
Q

negative reinforcement

A

↑ behavior by REMOVING UNDESIRABLE stimulus

110
Q

latent learning

A

learning that first occurs W/O reward, but then an individual later demonstrates skill when a reward is presented

(ie. learns arithmetic in class but then when the mom offers to give them a candy bar if they solve how much change they would get, they do it immediately)

111
Q

preparedness

A

the idea that animals are MOST able to learn behaviors that most coincide with their natural behavior

112
Q

unconditioned stimulus vs neutral stimulus

A

US = elicits UR without conditioning
NS → CS though conditioning, which can elicit CR

ie. if you walk down a street with your favorite restaurant and your mouth starts salivating every single time you walk down there:
US = FOOD
NS = STREET (which becomes the CS)
UR = CR = salivating

113
Q

generalization

A

a stimulus that is SIMILAR to (but DISTINCT from) the CS → CR

ie. previously abused dogs start barking when they see a human (the abuser is a human, so another human looks very similar to the CS, which is the abuser in this case)

114
Q

trial-and-error

A

various solutions are tried until one is found that seems to work

115
Q

What kind of ratio/interval reinforcement is continuous reinforcement? How often is a reward given in this reinforcement?

A

fixed-ratio

a reward is given EACH TIME a behavior is performed

116
Q

In the first part of the study, the experimenter presents a shock every time the rat touches the red lever. Then in the second part of the study, the experimenter stops the shocks and the rat starts to grab the red lever again. What phenomenon is happening in each part of the study?

A

1st = POSITIVE punishment b/c introducing shocks = undesirable stimulus → NOT negative b/c you aren’t removing jack shit

2nd = EXTINCTION b/c the CR = AVOID touching the red lever, is removed since the rat is touching it again!!

117
Q

self-serving bias

A

tendency to explain one’s own:
failures → situational attribution (ie. I failed cos my teacher sucks)
successes → dispositional attribution (ie. I won b/c I’m smart)

118
Q

How do relationships serve as a major factor in self-serving bias?

A

the closer you are to folks, the less likely you are going to attribute your failure to each other which increases the likelihood of doing joint attribution

119
Q

How do emotions serve as a major factor in self-serving bias?

A

emotions impact self-esteem → can influence one’s need to protect one’s self-identity (a major motivation of self-serving bias)

120
Q

attribute substitution

A

substituting a simpler solution or applying a heuristic when making judgments that are complex

121
Q

fundamental attribution theory

A

the tendency towards making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions to other people’s actions

(ie. if someone’s late, people are more inclined to think that’s because they are lazy than other external factors like traffic)

122
Q

stereotype threat

A

being anxious or concerned about confirming a negative stereotype about their social group

123
Q

self-fulfilling prophecy

A

belief influences expectations → expectations influence behavior → behavior influences result → result reinforces the original belief

basically, expectations create conditions that then cause expectations to become reality

124
Q

group-serving bias

A

tendency to credit the group for their successes and then blame external factors for its failures

125
Q

joint attribution

A

acknowledging that all members of a group share some blame (more likely to resort to joint attribution if one is closer with their group members rather than blaming a particular person or subset of the group)

126
Q

self-enhancement

A

tendency to take all the credit for the group’s successes while giving little to no credit to others or to external factors

127
Q

emotional support vs esteem support vs network support

A

listening and empathizing with feelings

affirming the qualities + skills of a person

provides a sense of belonging

128
Q

informational support vs material support

A

providing info that helps someone

provides financial or material assistance to another

129
Q

What is McDonaldization? What are the 2 things it focuses on?

A

standardization of a type of institution across society

focuses on efficiency and predictability

130
Q

cognitive neoassociation model of aggression

A

individuals are more likely to behave aggressively when they are experiencing negative emotions (ie. tired, sick, frustrated, in pain)

131
Q

characteristic institution

A

basic organizing institution in society (ie. clan, family)

132
Q

ascribed status

A

status based on factors outside of individual control (ie. race, gender, family background)

133
Q

role conflict

A

difficulties in fulfilling expectations of MULTIPLE roles (ie. a single mother, a professor, and a cook)

134
Q

role strain

A

difficulty in satisfying MULITPLE REQS of the SAME role

ie. premed student juggling mcat, research, clinical, classes, etc.

135
Q

role exit

A

dropping one identity for another

136
Q

iron of oligarchy

A

over time, democratic and bureaucratic institutions are to be dominated by an elite group

137
Q

immediate network

A

a pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups that are dense and have strong ties (ie. fam and friends)

138
Q

distant network

A

a pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups that are loose and have weak ties (ie. alumni network)

139
Q

formal organization

A

a group that has formal fxns, expressed goals, and enforcement procedures to control activities

140
Q

What does a baby with secure attachment act like when the caregiver leaves? Returns? Why does the baby act like this?

A

distressed when CG leaves

comforted when CG returns

baby TRUSTS CG to comfort them

141
Q

What does a baby with ambivalent (anxious) attachment act like when the caregiver leaves? Returns? Why does the baby act like this?

A

distressed when CG leaves

lack of comfort when CG returns

usually results when caregivers have an inconsistent response to a child’s stress

142
Q

What does a baby with avoidant attachment act like when the caregiver leaves? Returns? Does their conduct differ b/w CG and strangers?

A

no distress when CG leaves

no comfort when CG returns

no preference b/w CG and stranger

143
Q

What does a baby with disorganized attachment act like when the caregiver leaves or returns? What are some emotional/physical characteristics they exhibit?

A

no clear pattern of response to CG’s presence or absence

seems confused; exhibits repetitive, rocking behaviors

144
Q

What is deindividuation? What are two factors that can increase the likelihood of this happening?

A

loss of self-awareness and individual identity in a large group setting providing anonymity

↑ group cohesion, ↑ anonymity

145
Q

What are 2 ways group polarization can manifest and what do they mean?

A

risky shift: the tendency for individuals in a group to move toward a more extreme version of the position they had before group discussion

cautious shift: the tendency for an individual to adopt a more cautious approach following a group discussion

146
Q

What are 4 factors that can increase the likelihood of groupthink?

A
  • group cohesion
  • poor leadership
  • pressure to conform
  • stress
147
Q

peer pressure vs conformity vs compliance

A

peer pressure: being INFLUENCED by peers to do something (doesn’t necessarily mean they did something yet)

conformity: actual ACT of matching behavior or belief with the group (not necessarily after directly being told to do it)
compliance: changing behavior in DIRECT response to a request from a peer

148
Q

social facilitation

A

tendency for ppl to perform better on simple tasks when others are around

149
Q

social action

A

ppl can consciously change their behavior because others are present, and considers how one’s actions can affect others

150
Q

What is the Yerkes-Dodson effect? What does it say about performing tasks in front of others?

A

DEF: performance is hindered at very low or very high levels of arousal and is optimal at intermediate levels

Being in presence of others will significantly raise arousal → enhances the performance of tasks that one already does well

151
Q

group assimilation

A

minority ethnic groups are integrated into culture of societ’s dominant group

152
Q

What does group cohesiveness mean? What does it require to have a high group cohesion?

A

DEF: the extent to which group members are attracted to the group and its goals

requires ppl coming to a consensus of an opinion

153
Q

identity shift

A

individual’s state of harmony is disrupted by a threat of social rejection, so the individual will often conform to the norms of the group

154
Q

During civil unrest, governing power limits crowd size and bans face coverings. These two rules directly counteract what social group phenomenon?

A

Deindividuation

limiting crowd size = smaller group

no face coverings = less anonymity

155
Q

T/F: The urge of conformity can often result in fear of being incorrect outweighing fear of rejection

A

FALSE!

The fear of rejection would more often outweigh the fear of being incorrect

156
Q

List one similarity and difference between choice shift and group polarizaton

A

similarity: BOTH refer to the same idea that groups tend to make decisions that are more extreme than the individual ideas and inclinations
difference: choice shift is the change of decisions of the GROUP as a whole vs group polarization which affects more on the INDIVIDUAL level

157
Q

choice shift

A

a change in decisions before and after a group discussion = outcome of the change in attitude, namely in the difference between the average group members’ pre-group discussion attitudes and the outcome of the group decision

158
Q

What is groupthink? What is based on?

A

the tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions within the group WITHOUT considering outside bias

based on pressure to conform and remain loyal to the group

159
Q

group polarization

A

tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the individual ideas and inclinations they had beforehand → hence individuals move more toward extreme point than they would have if acting on their own

160
Q

a similarity and a difference between groupthink vs group polarization in terms of conformity

A

similarity: both can make risky decisions
difference: groupthink vs group polarization, respectively

tendency to value conformity VS tolerance for dissent

161
Q

T/F: risky shift and choice shift are present in both groupthink and group polarization

A

FALSE

these two are present in group polarization ONLY

162
Q

How can the bystander effect be a result of social etiquette, diffusion of responsibility, and the urgency of the situation?

A

social etiquette: it can be rude to watch others + their surroundings → ↓ chance of someone helping out a person

diffusion of responsibility: ↑ ppl are present, ↑ chance that individual feels that they are NOT responsible for helping out

urgency: ↑ urgent, ↑ likely to intervene; ↓ danger, ↓ likely to help ppl in need

163
Q

Ppl subject to groupthink can:
I. stereotype ppl who hold conflicting opinions
II. exert pressure for conformity
III. advocate for reprisals of non-conformists
IV. believe in correctness of their beliefs

A

I, II, IV

III would not really necessarily happen

164
Q

social construct

A

something which exists only b/c of, and is defined by, society

Ie. work ethic, money, fashion

165
Q

rational choice theory

A

humans will make rational choices to further their own interests

166
Q

symbol

A

any object, image, sound, action, words, or icons that carries meaning to humans

167
Q

What does functionalism focus on? What are the two components of it?

A

focuses on the roles of social groups in society

the functions of various components of society can be either manifest (intended) or latent (unintended)

168
Q

manifest function vs latent function

A

manifest fxn: intended, beneficial function of an organization or institution

latent fxn: unintended, beneficial function of an organization or institution

169
Q

manifest dysfunction vs latent dysfunction

A

manifest dysfxn: intended, detrimental function of an organization or institution

latent dysfxn: unintended, detrimental function of an organization or institution

170
Q 
factors that conflict theorists usually consider are:
I. generational status
II. wealth
III. social support
IV. altruism
V. stratification
VI. feminism
VII. rebellion
A

I, II, V, VI, VII

III and IV are NOT a source of conflict

171
Q

conflict theory

A

sociological perspective that attempts to understand society by examining conflicts b/w groups based on inequalities and competition for resources

172
Q

T/F: conflict theory is a macro theory that is used to explain interactions between groups, rather than individual actions

A

TRUE

173
Q

T/F: conflict theory states that those in power attempt to maintain their power by using their influence to shape society, such as laws, cultural norms, and customs

A

TRUE

174
Q

Social constructionism

A

the way individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols and how these concepts can differ between cultures

175
Q

Symbolic interactionism assumes:
I. humans respond to symbols based on their meanings
II. social interaction is how symbols gain meanings
III. interpretations of the meaning of symbols influence human action
IV. meaning of symbols can vary from culture to culture

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE!

176
Q

List Ekman’s 7 universal facially expressed emotions

A 
contempt
happiness
anger
disgust
sadness
surprise
fear

“C HAD Sad SurF”

177
Q

T/F: Fear developed first, then social emotions such as guilt, pride, and shame were formed afterwards

A

TRUE

178
Q

What part(s) of the brain is associated with the ability to feel pain?

A

parietal lobe

179
Q

What part(s) of the brain is associated with the ability to interpret facial expressions?

A

temporal lobe
amygdala
occipital lobe

180
Q

What part(s) of the brain is associated with the ability to feel emotions?

A

PFC (involved in the expression of emotions)

emotions are base fxn derived from lower-order brain structures

181
Q

What part(s) of the brain is associated with the ability to regulate and control emotional responses to events?

A

higher order structures like the frontal cortex region

182
Q

What if the frontal cortex region is damaged in terms of emotional expression?

A

instability in emotional response (ie. Phineas Gage)

183
Q

physiological responses when experiencing fear include:
I. ↑ HR
II. ↑ BP
III. ↓ skin temp

A

I and II

It would be ↑ skin temp since blood flow ↓ as blood is diverted to muscles and other organs involved in “fight or flight” response

184
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

emotional stimulus → physiological response (ie. activation of sympathetic NS) → experience emotion

185
Q

evolutionary theory of emotion

A

emotions evolved over time as a way for humans to adapt to their environment

186
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

physiological rxn + emotions simultaneously are expressed which result in a behavioral response

187
Q

primary appraisal

A

initial evaluation of whether or not an event is stressful

188
Q

What is a secondary appraisal? What are the three components that are considered?

A

DEF: the process of evaluating if stress caused by a certain event is something that the organism can cope with

harm: damage caused by the event
threat: potential for future damage
challenge: potential to overcome and possibly benefit from the event

189
Q

reappraisal

A

constant re-evaluation of an ongoing stressful situation

190
Q

What is general adaptation syndrome? What are the three components in sequence?

A

the sequence of physiological responses that occur via sympathetic NS in response to stress

  1. alarm → 2. resistance → 3. exhaustion
191
Q 
In the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the following can occur:
I. ↑ susceptibility to illness
II. ↓ sympathetic NS activity
III. continuous secretion of hormones
IV. possible risk of death
A

I, II, and IV

III doesn’t happen because, in this stage, the body no longer maintains continuous secretion of hormones and ↑ sympathetic NS activity that characterizes the resistance stage before it

192
Q 
When one expresses anger, the physiological responses they would most likely have is:
I. ↑ skin temperature
II. ↑ skin conductance
III. ↑ BP
IV. ↓ heart rate variability
A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

IV is definitely so because ↓ HRV = ↑ HR!!
HRV = difference in time between each heartbeat

193
Q 
Which brain structure is NOT involved in the storage + retrieval of memory? For the other ones that are, what are they involved in?
I. amygdala
II. PFC
III. thalamus
IV. hippocampus
A

III

thalamus = sensory processing station

amygdala → involved in associating emotion w/ implicit memory (ie. emotional memory)

PFC = involved in regulation of emotional responses from amygdala

hippocampus = involved in LTM formation and storage

194
Q

Schachter-Singer Theory

A

To experience emotion, in addition to physiological arousal, the mind must identify the environmental stimulus causing that arousal

physiological rxn + cognitive appraisal → experience emotions

195
Q

Describe the HPA axis

A

the hypothalamus stimulates AP → AP releases ACTH → ACTH activates the adrenal cortex (AC) → AC secretes cortisol

196
Q

Describe how epinephrine and norepinephrine are released

A

the hypothalamus sends NERVE IMPULSES down to the adrenal medulla (AM) → AM releases epinephrine + norepinephrine to activate sympathetic NS

197
Q

problem-focused vs emotionally focused coping strategy

A

PF: working directly to overcome a stressor (CONCRETE ACTIONS!)

EF: changing one’s feelings about a stressor

198
Q

Is taking responsibility for an event an emotionally focused or problem-focused coping strategy?

A

EMOTIONALLY FOCUSED

taking responsibility involves one’s feelings about stressors

199
Q

Is asking a friend for help an emotionally focused or problem-focused coping strategy?

A

PROBLEM-FOCUSED!

This is concrete action!

200
Q

The limbic system is associated with emotion. What is the role of the thalamus? amygdala? septal nuclei? hippocampus?

A

thalamus: communicates physiological changes to the body and emotional cognition to the upper cortex (conscious thought), basically connecting the cortex and downward to the rest of the body
amygdala: fear, aggression, anger

septal nuclei: dopaminergic reward system

hippocampus: memory formation

MCAT (6 decks)

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