Behavioral Science Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Brodmann’s area 3,1,2

A

primary somatosensory cortex (post-central gyrus, parietal cortex)—projects to primary motor (BA4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brodmann’s area 4

A

primary motor cortex (precentral gyrus, parietal cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Substantia nigra

A

produce and releases dopamine

Compacta - contains dense dopamine neurons
Reticulata - contains some dopamine neurons and GABA receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Limbic system

A

Emotional and memory processing. Amygdala, hippocampus, fornix, and mammillary bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Amygdala

A

Emotion and memory (stores implicit memory). Defensive and aggressive behavior like rage and fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hippocampus

A

Consolidate info into long term memory (stores explicit memory). Communicates with the limbic system through the fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

not being able to establish long term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

memory loss before a brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fornix

A

major output tract of the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lateral hypothalamus

A

triggers eating and drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus

A

signals to stop eating. Lesions here can lead to obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anterior hypothalamus

A

control of sexual behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypothalamus

A

hunger and thirst, emotion, homeostasis, and mate seeking behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Posterior pituitary

A

secretes ADH and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Superior colliculi

A

receives visual sensory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inferior colliculi

A

receives sensory info from the auditory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pons

A

contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

vital functioning (breathing, heart rate, digestion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reticullar formation

A

Arousal and controlling alertness. Can be stimulated to wake someone from a coma. Located in hindbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Brain stem

A

medulla, pons, cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Computed tomography (CT)

A

X-rays taken at different angles and processed to see the cross sections of the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Electroencephelogram (EEG)

A

placing electrodes to study the larger groups of neurons that generate electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

A radioactive sugar is injected into the body, and its dispersion to target tissue is imaged. Used to identify metabolic processes in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

use of a magnetic field to interact with H and detect H dense regions of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

Measures changes in blood flow using same technique as MRI. Useful for monitoring neural activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Corpus callosum

A

connects the two hemispheres of the brain and allows them to communicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Basal ganglia

A

centers for motor coordination. Caudate + putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lobes of the brain

A

Frontal lobe: executive function, cognitive control, movement
Parietal lobe: sensory information processing (temperature, taste, touch) and movement
Occipital lobe: vision
Temporal lobe: memory, auditory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dominant hemisphere

A

Left side of the brain in most individuals. Associated with language, logic, and math skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Non-dominant hemosphere

A

Associated with intuition, creativity, spatial processing (sense of direction), facial recognition, and music cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acetylcholine

A

In the PNS it is responsible for voluntary muscle control and transmission of nerve impulses.
In the CNS it is responsible for attention and arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Controls alertness and weakness. Low levels are associated with depression. High levels with anxiety and mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Epinephrine

A

Promotes fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Serotonin

A

Plays roles in regulating mood, appetite, sleeping, and dreaming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Endorphins

A

neuropeptides that are natural painkillers in the brain. Act relatively slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Adaptive value

A

the extent to which a trait or behavior positively benefits a species by influencing the evolutionary fitness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Rotting reflex

A

stimulus that touches the cheek —> turning of the head in the direction of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Moro reflex

A

abrupt movements of the head —> flinging of the arms in the air, then slowly retracting them and crying after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Babinski reflex

A

sole of the foot is stimulated —> extension of big toe and other toes spread apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Grasping reflex

A

object is placed in the hand —> closing of the fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Aα and Aβ fibers

A

fibers that touch sensation travels through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cuneate nucleus

A

carries fine touch and proprioceptive information from the upper body to the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Absolute threshhold

A

minimum stimulus energy required to activate a sensory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Subliminal perception

A

Perception of stimulus below a given threshold. This means that a stimulus below threshold of perception will reach the CNS, but is not processed by regions that control attention and consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Weber’s law

A

Just noticeable difference (JND) = change / original

*the original # can be the first frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Signal detection theory

A

Perception of stimuli can be affected by non-sensory factors like experiences (memory), motive, and expectations. Ex/ how loud does your name have to be called in a crowd for you to hear it?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Adaption

A

when our detection of a stimulus changes over time. Ex/ pupils dilating in the dark to make it possible to pick out the light. Ex/ not noticing the feeling of our clothes until we have a reason to think about it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cones (eye)

A

for color and sensing fine details (acuity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Rods (eye)

A

Sensation of light and dark. They contain the pigment rhodopsin. Their are more rods than cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fovea

A

Center part of neural retina that only contains cones. Visual acuity is best here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Path of light into eye

A

Light —> cornea —> aqueous humor —> pupil—> lens —> vitreous humor —> retina (rods/cones) -> optic nerve -> thalamus -> visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Parallel processing

A

ability to simultaneously analyze and combine info about color, shape, and motion. Then this info is compared to our memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Parvocellular cells

A

Cells that detect shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Magnocellular cells

A

Cells that detect motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pinna (auricle)

A

cartilaginous outer ear that channels sound waves into the external auditory canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Eustachian tube

A

connects the middle ear to the nasal cavity. This helps equalize pressure between the outside and middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bony labyrinth

A

Contains the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. They are continuous with each other and contain the K+ rich fluid endolymph within the membranous labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cochlea

A

Spiral shaped ducts that contain the round window (out), oval window (in), organ of Corti, and tectorial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Vestibule

A

Contains the utricle and saccule. They are important for balance and orientation in 3D space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Important for perceiving rotational acceleration. They contain ampulla that contain hair cells which will bend due to rotation of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Proprioception

A

the ability to tell where your body is in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bottom up processing

A

object recognition by parallel processing and feature detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Top down processing

A

object recognition driven by memories and expectations that allow the brain to recognize the whole object first and then its components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Constancy

A

idea that we perceive certain characteristics of objects to remain the same despite differences in environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gestalt principles

A

The ways the brain infers missing parts of a picture when it is incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Law of proximity

A

elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Law of similarity

A

objects that are similar tend to be grouped together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Law of good continuation

A

elements that appear to follow the same pathway tend to be grouped together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Subjunctive contours

A

perception of a shape within other shapes without being explicitly seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Law of closure

A

if a shape is not fully closed, it can still be fully seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Law of prägnanz (symmetry)

A

perceptual organization will always be regular, simple, and as symmetric as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Classical conditioning

A

a type of associative learning that creates associating between two unrelated stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Unconditioned stimuli

A

stimuli (ex/ food) that produces a reflexive response or a unconditioned response (Ex/ salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Conditioned stimulus

A

a neutral stimulus (ex/ bell) that through association causes a reflexive response or a conditioned response (ex/ salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Extinction

A

A decrease in response resulting from repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the presence of the unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

A weak conditioned response after extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Generalization

A

a stimulus similar to the conditioned stimulus produces the conditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Discrimination

A

the subject learns to distinguish between the similar stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Forward classical conditioning

A

Occurs when the conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus. The subject learns to anticipate the unconditioned stimulus as a result of the conditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Operant cnditioning

A

links voluntary behaviors with consequences in an effort to alter the frequency of those behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Reinforcement

A

Increasing the likelihood that a subject will perform a behavior. Can be positive (incentive) or negative (removal of something unpleasant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Escape learning (reinforcement)

A

using a negative reinforcer for immediate incentive. Ex/ shocking a dog when it runs away on a leash and causing him to come back. The dog learns to escape the shock by returning to the owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Avoidance learning (reinforcement)

A

preventing unpleasantness before it happens. Ex/ a dog learns that beeping indicates getting closer to a shock fence so he stops approaching it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Punishment

A

Reducing the occurrence of a behavior. Can be positive (adding a consequence) or negative (removing an incentive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Shaping

A

process of reward for behaviors that lead up to the desired behavior and eventually just the desired complex behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Fixed ratio reinforcement schedule

A

reinforcement of a behavior after a specific number of performances of that behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Variable ratio reinforcement schedule

A

reinforcement of a behavior after a varying number of performances of that behavior, but the average number of performances to receive the reward is relatively constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Fixed interval reinforcement schedule

A

reinforcement of a behavior the first instance of a behavior after a specific time period has passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Variable interval reinforcement schedule

A

reinforcement of a behavior the first time the behavior is performed after the varying interval of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Latent learning

A

When learning occurs without a reward, but its spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Prepardness

A

When animals are predisposed to learn behaviors based on their own natural abilities and instincts
Ex/ rewarding a bird for pecking based behavior when the goal is the be able to peck for their own food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Instinctive drift

A

The tendency of animals to resist learning a behavior due to conflict with their instinctive animal behaviors.
Ex/ a raccoon not being able to pick up a coin and put it in a piggy bank because it cant help think about picking up a seed, putting it in a stream to wash, and taking it back out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Self reference effect

A

Putting semantic encoding (adding meaning to memory) in context of our own lives. Relating new info to one’s own experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Controlled processing

A

Active memorization (putting new info into memory). Requires undivided attention (effortful)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Maintenence rehersal

A

Repetition to keep something in working memory or store it in long term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Chunking (clustering)

A

taking individual elements of a large list and grouping them together into groups with similar meanings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Sensory memory

A

consist of iconic memory (visual) and echoic memory (auditory) memory. It last for a very short time and fades quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Elaborative rehersal

A

Association of information to the knowledge already stored in the long term. This is a way to consolidate info into the long term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Implicit memory

A

Memories that do not require conscious recall. Skills and conditioned responses. Also called procedural memory (long term memory of motor skills)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Explicit memory

A

Memories that require conscious recall. Also called declarative memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Semantic memory

A

The facts we know (part of explicit memory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Episodic memory

A

Our experiences (part of explicit memory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Flashbulb memory

A

memories of learning something so shocking or surprising that it creates a strong and seemingly accurate memory about learning about the event, but not the event itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Semantic network

A

the way our brain organizes information. Everything is interconnected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Spreading activation

A

when one node of the semantic network is activated, the other linked concepts are unconsciously activated. Ex/ if a person can not recall an event and someone gives them some details of the event, that person can potentially start to remember the event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Priming

A

recall is aided by first being presented a word or phase thats close to the desired memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

State dependent effect

A

when your mental state effects recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Eidetic memory

A

Also known as photographic memory. It is the ability to perfectly remember things heard, read, or seen even if only for a brief moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Retrograde memory

A

ability to recall memory before trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Anterograde memory

A

ability to form memories after trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Form of memory loss caused by thiamine deficiency in the brain. A key symptom is confabulation which is the process of creating vivid but fabricated memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Agnosia

A

The loss of the ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds (1 of the 3). Caused by physical damage to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Interferance

A

Retrieval error caused by the existence of other similar info. A common reason for memory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Proactive interference

A

Old info is interfering with new info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Retroactive interference

A

New info is interfering with old info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Prospective memory

A

Remembering to perform a task at some point in the future. Usually event based like remembering to buy milk after passing the grocery store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Misinformation effect

A

False interpretations are made based on the info given. False info leads to false interpretation while more descriptive info can lead to overstating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Source monitoring effect (source amnesia)

A

Confusion between semantic and episodic memory. A person remembers the details of an event, but confuses the context the details were gained. Can occur when someone hears a story about someone else, but later recalls the story as happening to himself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Synaptic pruning

A

as we get older weak neural connections are broken while strong ones are bolstered, increasing efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Informational processing model

A

Thinking requires sensation, encoding, and storage of stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Schemata

A

organized patterns of behavior and thought. It can include a concept, behavior, or sequence of events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Assimilation

A

classifying new info into existing schemata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Accommodation

A

existing schemata are modified to encompass new info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Object permanence

A

The understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of view. Part of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage Ex/ peek a boo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Symbolic thinking

A

ability to pretend and have an imagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Egocentricism

A

inability to imagine what another person may think or feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Centration

A

focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon and inability to understand conservation (same amount of water in a bowl vs cup)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

consist of problem solving skills. Using connections and relationships to resolve problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Crystal intelligence

A

capacity to understand relationships or solve problems using info acquired during school and other experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Functional fixedness

A

the inability to consider how to use an object in a non-traditional manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Deductive reasoning

A

starts from a set of general rules and draws conclusions from the info given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Inductive reasoning

A

seeks to create theories from generalizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Heuristics

A

simplified principles used to make decisions (rules of thumb, mental shortcuts). While they can be ineffective at times, they are essential for quick decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Availability heurstic

A

a mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to a given person’s mind when evaluating a specific topic, concept, method or decision. Ex/ Do more words start with “K” or have “K” as the third letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Representative heuristic

A

categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the representative image of that category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Base rate fallacy

A

using stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Disconfirmation principle

A

when a potential solution to a problem fails, the solution should be discarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Tendency to focus on info that fits an individual’s beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Belief perseverance

A

The inability to reject a particular belief despite the clear evidence. Also known as preservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Intuition

A

The ability to act of perceptions that may not be supported by available evidence. Developed by experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Recognition primed decision model

A

This model describes intuition and how your brain sorts through a variety of information to match a pattern without much awareness. Ex/ After seeing thousands of patients with chest pain, an ER doc is able to determine which are having a heart attack without looking at an EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

States of conciousness

A

alertness, sleep, dreaming, and altered states of conscleepiousness like hypnosis, meditation, and drug induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Delta waves

A

low frequency waves. Indicative of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Theta waves

A

awake state, but not active. Ex/ drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Alpha waves

A

Relaxed, non-active state for sensory regions. Resting sensory region. Ex/ closing your eyes will start to form alpha waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Beta waves

A

Low amplitude, high frequency. Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Lack of voluntary control over the onset of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Cataplexy

A

Symptom of narcolepsy where there is a loss of muscle control and sudden intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours (usually caused by an emotional trigger)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Sleep paralysis

A

Symptom of narcolepsy where there is a sensation of being unable to move despite being awake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Barbituates

A

Anxiety reducing and sleep medications that increase GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Amphetamines

A

increased dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin release. Causes decreased appetite and need for sleep; increased HR and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Opioids (opiates)

A

naturally and synthetically made respectively. Cause a decreased reaction to pain and a sense of euphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Selective attention

A

focusing on one part of the sensorium (sensory environment) while ignoring other stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Cocktail party phenomenon

A

Focusing on one thing while other stimuli are processed in the background [if they are perceived important]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Categorical perception

A

the ability to notice subtle differences how speech sounds represent a change in meaning. Its an auditory example of constancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Morphology

A

the structure of words. Morphemes are the building blocks of words that have a particular meaning. Ex/ re-, un-, -ed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Semantics

A

the association of meaning with a word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Pragmatics

A

the dependence of language on context and pre-existing knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Prosody

A

the rhythm, cadence, and inflection in our voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Nativist theory

A

Nativism states that everyone (universally) is able to process and absorb language due to language acquisition devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Sensitive period

A

when environmental input has maximal effect on the development of an ability. Occurs before the onset of puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Whorf hypothesis

A

also called the linguistic relativity hypothesis. States that our perception of reality is determined by the content, form, and structure of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Arcuate fasiculus

A

neurons that connect Broca’s and Wernicke’s area. Association between language comprehension and speech production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Aphasia

A

deficit of language production or comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Instinct theory of motivation

A

states that people are driven to do certain behaviors based on evolutionary programmed instincts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Arousal theory

A

states that people perform actions in order to maintain max arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Primary drives

A

needs to basic things like food, water, and anything relating to homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

Motivation is based on the goal of eliminating uncomfortable states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

certain needs yield a greater influence on our motivation

1) Physiological 2) Safety 3) Love/Belonging 4) Esteem 5) self-actualization (realizing full potential)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Self determination theory

A

Emphasizes 3 universal needs: Autonomy, competence, relatedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Incentive theory

A

Behavior is not motivated by need or arousal, but by pursuing reward and avoiding punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Expectancy–value theory

A

The motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individuals expectation of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which he values succeeding at the goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Opponent–process theory

A

when a drug is taken repeatedly, the body will try to counteract the (negative) effects physiologically. This explains tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Token economy

A

Rewarding individuals with secondary enforcers that can be exchanged for appetitive stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

James–Lange theory

A

Stimulus —> physiological response —> emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Cannon–Bard theory

A

Stimulus —> physiological response + emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Schachter—Singer theory

A

Stimulus —> physiological response —> cognitive labeling of the response (context/environment) —> emotion
Ex/ identical stimuli invoke different emotional responses in rats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Cognitive appraisal

A

the subjunctive evaluation of a situation that induces stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Distress

A

Occurs when experiencing negative stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Eustress

A

Occurs when experiencing positive stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Avoidance–approach conflict

A

conflict deals with one choice (decision), but it can have negative or positive effects.
Ex/ rushing back from injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Avoidance–avoidance conflict

A

conflict deals with 2 negative choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Approach–approach conflict

A

conflict deals with choosing between 2 desirable choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Double approach–avoidance conflict

A

decision with multiple choices or goals, with attracting or repelling aspects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Self concept (self identity)

A

The sum of the ways in which we describe/perceive ourselves: in the present and future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Self schema

A

a self-label that contains a set of qualities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Hierarchy of salience

A

A situation dictates which identity holds the most importance for us at a given time. Ex/ the identity a person wants to express through fashion is dependent on social context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Self discreapency theory

A

States that we each have 3 selves: actual self, ideal self, and ought self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Self esteem

A

self worth

190
Q

Ought (tactical) self

A

our representation of the way others think we should be, associated with self esteem

191
Q

Self efficacy

A

our belief in our ability to succeed

192
Q

Learned helplessness

A

when you have very low self efficacy and give up on trying to change the negative influences towards you. Ex/ a person who will not leave an abusive relationship

193
Q

Locus of control

A

the way we characterize the influences in our lives

194
Q

Internal locus of control

A

you view yourself as controlling your own fate

195
Q

External locus of control

A

the events in your life are caused by luck or outside influences

196
Q

Fixation

A

when a child is overindulged or overly frustrated during a stage of development (Freud)

197
Q

Social contract

A

Moral rules are conventions that are designed to ensure the greater good (Kohlberg, postconventional morality)
Ex/ Everyone has the right to live. Businesses have the right to profit from their products

198
Q

Zone of proximal development

A

skills and abilities that are not fully developed but are in the process of. For this to happen, there needs to be someone guiding the child like an adult (Vygotsky)

199
Q

Role taking

A

when a child begins to understand the perspective and role of others. A child is more likely to engage in behavior modeled by individuals that are like them Ex/ female child will imitate a female

200
Q

Theory of mind

A

Txhe ability to sense how another’s mind works

201
Q

Psychoanalytic perspective

A

Unconscious internal states influence actions and determine personality (Freud, Jung)

202
Q

Id

A

Primal urge to survive and reproduce. It is based on the pleasure principle

203
Q

Ego

A

The need to reduce tension on a permanent basis. It is based on the reality principle

204
Q

Superego

A

our personality’s perfectionist where we have pride in our accomplishments and guilt in our failures

205
Q

Defense mechanims

A

are the ego’s way of relieving anxiety caused by clashing of the id and superego

206
Q

Repression

A

Unconsciously removing an idea or feeling

207
Q

Suppression

A

Consciously removing an idea or feeling

208
Q

Regression

A

Returning to an earlier stage of development.

Ex/ a husband telling his wife bad news in “baby talk”

209
Q

Reaction formation

A

When urges are suppressed by transforming them into the exact opposite
Ex/ 2 people fight all the time because they like each other

210
Q

Projection

A

Individuals attribute their undesired feelings to others. The inkblot test makes use of projection to gain insight into a person’s mind.
Ex/ a kid who says “i hate my parents” might start saying “my parents hate me”

211
Q

Rationalization

A

Justification of behavior in a manner that is acceptable to self and society

212
Q

Displacement

A

Changing the target of emotion from one person or object to another
Ex/ holding your tongue at work with your boss but coming home and snapping at your wife

213
Q

Sublimation

A

Channeling an unacceptable impulse in a socially acceptable direction

214
Q

Archetypes

A

Images of the collective unconscious. They are shared among all humans and is a result of the experiences of our ancestors. Ex/ common image of a mother and father

215
Q

Humanistic perspective

A

Emphasis on the internal feelings (emotions) of healthy individuals as they strive toward happiness and self-realization (self-actualization, self-awareness, free will)

216
Q

Type A personality

A

personality characterized by competitive and compulsive behavior

217
Q

Type B personality

A

laid-back and relaxed behavior

218
Q

Neuroticism

A

The degree to which an individual is prone to emotional arousal in stressful situations

219
Q

Extraversion

A

The degree to which an individual has tolerance for social interaction and stimulation

220
Q

Psychoticism

A

measure of nonconformity or social deviance

221
Q

Cardinal traits

A

traits that a person organizes their life around

222
Q

Secondary traits

A

aspects of one’s personality that only appear in close groups or specific social situations

223
Q

Functional autonomy

A

This is where a behavior continues despite satisfaction of the drive that originally created the behavior. Ex/ a hunter hunting for food, but then continuing to hunt because he enjoys it

224
Q

Behaviorist perspective

A

Personality is a reflection of behaviors that have been reinforced over time (based on classical conditioning)

225
Q

Token economies

A

(+) behavior is rewarded with tokens that can be exchanged for privileges or other reinforces

226
Q

Social cognitive perspective

A

The behaviorist perspective plus focusing on how we interact with the environment. Based on the expectations of others

227
Q

Reciprocal determinism

A

the idea that our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and environment all interact with each to other to determine our actions in a given situation

228
Q

Biological perspective

A

Personality can be explained as a result of the genetic expression in the brain. Also known as trait theory

229
Q

Indirect therapy

A

social support

230
Q

Direct therapy

A

medication

231
Q

Schizophrenia

A

A person suffering from at least one of these symptoms: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, catatonia, negative symptoms. And at least 2 positive symptoms for 6 months.

232
Q

Delusions

A

false beliefs discordant with reality and not shared by others in spite of strong evidence to the contrary

233
Q

Neuroleptics

A

block dopamine receptors and are used to treat the excess dopamine (schizophrenia, etc..)

234
Q

Delusions of reference

A

belief that elements in the environment are being directed towards the individual. Ex/ TV characters are talking to the individual

235
Q

Delusion of persecution

A

belief that the person is being deliberately interfered with

236
Q

Delusion of grandur

A

belief that the person is remarkable in some significant way. Ex/ an inventor or historical figure

237
Q

Thought broadcasting

A

the belief that a person’s thoughts are being heard by the external world

238
Q

Thought insertion

A

thinking thoughts are being place in your head

239
Q

Hallucinations

A

the most common form is auditory but there can be visual or tactile (drug use or withdrawal), and olfactory or gustatory (common before a seizure)

240
Q

Disorganized thought

A

when speech seems to shift from idea to idea or have no structure (loosening of associations). Sometimes called a word salad

241
Q

Echolatia

A

repeating another’s words

242
Q

Echopraxia

A

imitating another’s actions

243
Q

Catatonia

A

Motor behavior characteristic where the patient maintains a rigid posture, refusing to be moved

244
Q

Blunting

A

severe reduction in the intensity of effect expression

245
Q

Flat effect

A

no signs of emotional expression

246
Q

Inappropriate affect

A

The affect (action) is discordant with the content of the person. Negative symptom. Ex/ laughing while describing a parent’s death

247
Q

Avolition

A

decreased engagement in purposeful, goal-directed actions

248
Q

Ego-dystonic

A

disorders where the person sees the illness as something thrust upon them that is intrusive

249
Q

Ego-systonic

A

disorders where people see their behavior as normal, correct, and in harmony with their goals

250
Q

Dysthemia

A

a depressive mood not severe enough to be classified as a depressive disorder

251
Q

Major depressive episode symptoms

A

SIG E CAPS - Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor, Suicide

252
Q

Manic episode

A

last 1 week with the 3 of the following: increased distractibility, decreased need for sleep, inflated self esteem, racing thoughts, increased agitation, increased talkativeness, and involvement in high risk behavior

253
Q

Bipolar disorder I

A

manic episodes with/without major depressive episodes

254
Q

Bipolar disorder II

A

hypomania with at least 1 major depressive episode

255
Q

Hypomania

A

the person is more energetic and optimistic. This does not impair functioning

256
Q

Catecholamine theory of depression

A

increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse leads to mania. Conversely, decreased levels of these (and dopamine) lead to depression

257
Q

Social anxiety disorder

A

anxiety that is due to social situations

258
Q

Agoraphobia

A

fear of being in places or situations where it might be hard for an individual to escape

259
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

a person has an unrealistic evaluation of their personal appearance

260
Q

PTSD

A

Anxiety disorder. Must have intrusion, avoidance, negative cognitive, or arousal symptoms for at least a month. Less than a month downgrades to acute stress disorder

261
Q

Intrustion symptoms

A

recurrent reliving of an event, flashbacks, nightmares

262
Q

Avoidance symptoms

A

deliberate attempts to avoid memories, people, places, things, or activities

263
Q

Negative cognitive symptoms

A

an inability to recall key features of the event, negative mood, feeling distanced from others, and a persistent negative view of the world

264
Q

Arousal symptoms

A

increased startle response, irritability, sleep disturbances, and self-destructive behavior

265
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

occur when a person avoids stress by escaping (detaching) from their identity. The person still has their sense of reality intact. Patients also have memory dysfunction

266
Q

Somatic symptom

A

a bodily symptom that causes stress/impairment

267
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

this is where a person has at least 1 somatic symptom that is accompanied by disproportionate concerns about its seriousness, devotion of time to focus on it, or elevated levels of anxiety about it

268
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

when a person is consumed with thoughts about having or developing a serious medical condition

269
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Characterized by unexplained symptoms affecting motor or censoring functions after a person experiences high levels of stress or a traumatic event. Ex/ a person going blind after watching their son die tragically

270
Q

Personality disorder

A

a pattern of behavior that will not change and causes impairment in cognition, emotions, interpersonal interaction, or impulse control (2 of those). All personality disorders are ego-systonic

271
Q

3 Personality clusters

A
Cluster A (Weird)- paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid
Cluster B (Wild) - antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic 
Cluster C (Worried) - avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive
272
Q

Schizotypal personality

A

Pattern of odd or eccentric thinking. These individuals can have magical thinking (superstition or clairvoyance)

273
Q

Schizoid personality

A

Pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression

274
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

pattern of instability in interpersonal behavior, mood, and self image

275
Q

Histrionic personality

A

Constant attention seeking behavior

276
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality

A

the person is inflexible (likes rules), lacks a desire to change, has excessive stubbornness, lacks a sense of humor, and maintains a careful routine. OCD differs from this because it is ego-dystonic

277
Q

Biology of depressive disorders

A

Abnormally high glucose metabolism in the amygdala, abnormally high levels of glucocorticoids, and decreased NE, serotonin, and dopamine (the monoamine theory of depression says increased of these lead to mania so decreased leads to depression)

278
Q

Biology of bipolar disorders

A

Increased NE and serotonin

279
Q

Social facilitation

A

The tendency of people to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others

280
Q

Simple vs. complex tasks

A

Tasks someone is already good at vs. tasks that someone is less familiar with

281
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law of social facilitation

A

being in the presence of others will raise arousal which increases the ability to perform simple tasks and decreases performance on complex tasks

282
Q

Deindividuation

A

Individual behavior is different in social environments. The presence of large groups causes a loss of individual identity

283
Q

Social loafing

A

the tendency of individuals to put in less effort (work) when in a group setting than individually due to seeing their contribution as insignificant or due to reliance on others

284
Q

Identity shift effect

A

When a persons state of harmony is disrupted by a threat of social rejection (peer pressure), the person will conform to the norms of the group. This causes internal conflict. To eliminate the conflict, the person will have an identity shift

285
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

the simultaneous presence of 2 opposing thoughts that leads to an internal state of discomfort

286
Q

Social interaction

A

the way 2 or more individuals can shape each others behavior

287
Q

Social action

A

the effects that a group has on individual behavior

288
Q

Group polarization

A

the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the individual ideas of each member

289
Q

Groupthink

A

occurs when the desire for harmony within the group results in decisions that may not be the best option

290
Q

Subculture

A

groups of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture. These are based on race, ethnicity, sexuality, etc.

291
Q

Socialization

A

The processes of developing and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs. It is a lifelong practice where norms and values are learned

292
Q

Secondary socialization

A

occurs within smaller sections of society outside of home

293
Q

Primary socialization

A

occurs mainly in childhood when learning of social norms occurs with parents and close relatives

294
Q

Resocialization

A

the process of discarding old behavior when making a life change. Ex/ joining the nature of the armed services

295
Q

Mores

A

widely observed social norms

296
Q

Taboo

A

socially unacceptable

297
Q

Folkways

A

norms that refer to behavior that is considered polite in social interactions. Ex/ shaking hands

298
Q

Labeling theory

A

labels given to people affect not only how others respond to that person, but also that persons self-image

299
Q

Differential association theory

A

describes the degree to which deviance can be learned through interactions with others and influence the rejection of normative behavior

300
Q

Normative conformity

A

a desire to fit into a group because of fear of rejection

301
Q

Internalization

A

changing ones behavior to fit into a group while privately agreeing to the ideas of the group

302
Q

Foot in the door technique

A

a small request is made and after compliance is gained, a larger request is made

303
Q

Door in the face technique

A

a large request is made and after it is refused, a second smaller request is made. Usually the smaller request is the goal

304
Q

Lowball technique

A

when someone gets an initial commitment by an individual, but then the cost of the commitment is raised. Ex/ agreeing to run a meeting but there is paperwork to be done also

305
Q

That’s not all technique

A

A request/offer is made, but before a decision is given, you are told that the offer is even better than expected. Ex/ sales commercials

306
Q

Social cognition

A

the way in which people think about others and how these idea impact behavior

307
Q

3 components of attitude

A

Affective, behavioral, cognitive

308
Q

Elaboration liklihood method

A

individuals process persuasive information differently

309
Q

Central processing route

A

people think deeply about information, scrutinize it, and draw conclusions/make decisions based on it

310
Q

Peripheral processing route

A

people focus on superficial details and focus on the appearance of the individual giving the information, catchphrases, and credibility

311
Q

Social cognitive theory

A

people learn how to behave and shape attitudes by observing the behaviors of others. Three factors of this are behavior, personal factors, and environment. All interact with each other (Bandura’s triangle)

312
Q

Ascribed status

A

One that is given involuntarily due to factors like race, ethnicity, gender

313
Q

Achieved status

A

One that is gained as a result of individual and direct effort

314
Q

Master status

A

Status by which a person is most identified

315
Q

Role

A

A set of beliefs, attitudes, and norms to define those who hold status

316
Q

Role conflict

A

difficulty satisfying requirements of multiple roles

317
Q

Role strain

A

difficulty satisfying multiple requirements of 1 role

318
Q

Reference group

A

a group that an individual uses for a standard of evaluating themselves and their behavior

319
Q

Social group

A

general term for a collection of people with common identity and regular interaction
* Be careful. This differs from a reference group. Reference groups are more similar

320
Q

Group conformity

A

individuals are compliant with the groups goals even if they contrast the individuals goals. This is related to groupthink

321
Q

Gemeinschaft

A

community. Groups unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs
Ex/ families and neighborhoods

322
Q

Gesellschaft

A

society. Groups formed because of mutual self-interests working together toward the same goal
Ex/ companies and countries

323
Q

Network redundency

A

networks are observable patterns of social relationships and when there are overlaps in connections with the same individual it is network redundancy

324
Q

Basic model of emotional expression

A

states that expression involves facial expressions, behaviors, postures, vocal changes, and physiological changes (Darwin)

325
Q

Appraisal model

A

There are biologically predetermined expressions once an emotion is experienced, but there is a cognitive antecedent (event that existed before) to the emotional expression

326
Q

Social construction model

A

Emotions are based on experiences and social encounters alone (not biologically). Certain emotions can only exist within certain social encounters

327
Q

Display rules

A

cultural expectations of emotions. They govern which emotions can be expressed and to what degree. Ex/ Inuit culture does not display anger

328
Q

Cultural syndrome

A

shared set of beliefs/norms among members of the same culture that influence the rules for expressing emotions. Ex/ happy in the US is more individual and happy in Japan is sharing happiness with others

329
Q

Impression management

A

Our attempt to influence how others perceive us

330
Q

Front stage

A

the way you act in front of people. In regard to a setting, role, or “script” the person wants others to see

331
Q

Back stage

A

the way you act when other people do not see you. Free to act in a way that is not congruent with the public image

332
Q

Recipricol liking

A

people like others better when they believe that the other person likes them

333
Q

Cognitive neoassociation model

A

we are more likely to respond to others aggressively when we are feeling negative emotions (tired, sick, hungry, pain)

334
Q

Secure attachement

A

When a child has a consistent caregiver and a secure base to return to. Children cry when their parents leave but are excited when they return

335
Q

Avoidant attachment

A

When the caregiver has little to no response to a distressed child. The child shows no expression and minimal distress to a caregiver or stranger

336
Q

Ambivalent attachement

A

When a caregiver has inconsistent responses to a child’s distress like responding appropriately or neglectfully. The child is very has mixed feelings about the caregiver

337
Q

Disorganized attachment

A

When a child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to the caregivers absence or presence. Associated with erratic behavior (ex/ rocking back and forth, frozen looks, looking confused) and social withdrawal. Red flag for abuse

338
Q

Foraging

A

seeking out and eating food. It is driven by bio, psy, and social influences

339
Q

Lateral hypothalamus

A

promotes hunger

340
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus

A

promotes satiety

341
Q

Polygyny

A

Males having exclusive relationships with multiple females

342
Q

Polyandry

A

Females having exclusive relationship with multiple males

343
Q

Sensory bias

A

development of a trait that results in a preference that exist in the population

344
Q

Fisherian selection

A

a trait that is sexually desirable and more likely to be passed on

345
Q

Game theory

A

refers to decision making behavior and the influences of it (strategy, reward/punishment, profit/cost)

346
Q

Zero sum game

A

a situation where the gains or loses of the participants is balanced by the gains or loses of the other participants.
Ex/ online daters view potential mates as inevitably being taken by themselves or someone else

347
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

A measure of an individuals success in a population. This is based on the offspring: the individuals support of them and their ability to support themselves and others

348
Q

Primacy effect

A

first impressions are often more important than subsequent impressions

349
Q

Recency effect

A

the most recent impressions are more important

350
Q

Implicit personality theory

A

People make assumptions about how different types of people are related based on their traits and behavior. Ex/ stereotyping

351
Q

Halo effect

A

a cognitive bias that states that judgements about a specific aspect of a person can be effected by the overall impression of the individual (positive or negative)

352
Q

Just world hypothesis

A

a cognitive bias that states that in a just world, good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people

353
Q

Self serving bias

A

refers to the fact that individuals view their own success based on internal factors and view failures based on external factors

354
Q

Attribution theory

A

Tendency of others to infer the causes of other peoples behaviors. There can be dispositional attributions (internal) or situational attributions (external)

355
Q

Consistency cues

A

consistent behavior of a person over time. More likely to associate the behavior with the motives of the person

356
Q

Consensus cues

A

The extent to which a person’s behavior differs from others. More likely to form a dispositional attribution to explain it

357
Q

Distinctivness cues

A

The extent to which a person engages in similar behavior across different scenarios. More likely to form a situational attribution it explain it

358
Q

Correspondent inference theory

A

When an individual performs an action that helps/hurts us, we explain the behavior by dispositional attribution

359
Q

Fundamental attribution theory

A

States that we are biased toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational, especially in negative context. Ex/ road rage

360
Q

Attribute substitution

A

occurs when individuals must make judgements that are complex, but instead substitute a simple solution.
Ex/ when asked how much of a cube is taken up by a sphere, a person thinks about it in relation to a circle inside a square

361
Q

Paternalistic sterotype

A

A group is looked down upon as inferior (high warmth, low competent). In medicine it is known as “doctor knows best”

362
Q

Contemtuous sterotype

A

a group is viewed with resentment/anger (low warmth, low competent)

363
Q

Admiration sterotype

A

a group is viewed with pride (high warmth, high competent)

364
Q

Self fulfilling prophecy

A

occurs when stereotypes lead to expectations within a group. This expectation can create conditions that lead to confirmation of those expectations.
Ex/ the stereotype of med students not being able to knot a suture so they become nervous

365
Q

Stereotype threat

A

when people are nervous about confirmation a negative stereotype about their group. Ex/ women driving, gay couples being parents

366
Q

Prejudice

A
irrational positive or negative attitude toward a group prior to actual experience with that group.
Ex/ power, prestige, and class influence prejudice
367
Q

Ethnocentricism

A

Judging other cultures based on the values and beliefs of ones own culture. This is based on in-groups and out-groups

368
Q

Discrimination

A

behavior that occurs when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a group to be treated differently from others

369
Q

Functionalism

A

the study of the structure and function of each part of a society

370
Q

Manifest functions

A

actions that are meant to improve a part of a system

371
Q

Latent functions

A

manifest functions that have unintentional positive consequences on other parts of society

372
Q

Conflict theory

A

Refers to how power differences are created and how they contribute to the maintenance social order (Karl Marx)

373
Q

Symbolic interactionalism

A

The way people view the world and interact through a shared understanding of language, gestures, and symbols (Ex/ a TV ad as a symbol). Symbolic interactionalists study the effects of social constructs (ex/ segregation)

374
Q

Social constructionism

A

How individuals form the significance of principles or concepts in their society (in their perceived reality)
Ex/ how we define justice/honor, paper money/coins, work ethic, gender roles

375
Q

Exchange theory

A

an individual will carry out certain behaviors based on anticipated rewards/punishments from a group/society

376
Q

Beneficence

A

act in the patients best interest

377
Q

Nonmalelificence

A

do not harm

378
Q

Autonomy

A

respecting that patients can make their own decisions

379
Q

Justice

A

treating each patient equally

380
Q

4 tenets of medical ethics

A

Benevolence, nonmaleficence, justice, autonomy

381
Q

Teacher expectancy

A

The idea that a students performance is dependent on a teachers belief in their ability. This is an example of a self fulfilling prophecy

382
Q

Denomination

A

relates to the church and coexisting beliefs

383
Q

Sect

A

a group that has broken off from the parent religion and can sometimes form a cult

384
Q

Capitalist vs. socialist economies

A

capitalism is little to no intervention from the government so private corporations see most of the profit. Socialist treat industries as a collective and distribute profit among the work force

385
Q

Symbolic culture

A

focuses on the ideas that represent a group of people or ideas. Ex/ the phrase “life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness”

386
Q

Culture lag

A

symbolic culture is slower to change that material culture. Ex/ smartphone evolution is faster than acceptance of less privacy

387
Q

Ritual

A

Ceremony that involves objects, symbols, AND behaviors

Ex/ saying the pledge of allegiance in front of the American flag every day

388
Q

Gender

A

a social construct that is set of behavioral, cultural, and psychological traits

389
Q

Race

A

a social construct dependent of phenotypical traits of a group. Ex/ Black

390
Q

Racial formation theory

A

racial identity is fluid and dependent on current political, economic, and social factors

391
Q

Ethnicity

A

a social construct that sorts people by cultural factors like language, nationality, and religion. Ex/ African-American, Latino

392
Q

Symbolic ethnicity

A

when ethnic symbols and identity remain important, but do not play a significant role in daily life

393
Q

Intersectionality

A

the association of multiple demographic factors that leads to discrimination and oppression. Ex/ race, ethnicity, and immigration status influencing access to health care

394
Q

Crude rate

A

the total rate for a population (fertility and mortality)

395
Q

Demographic transition

A

Stage 1: pre-industrial society with high birth/death
Stage 2: improved healthcare, sanitation, wages lead to decreased death
Stage 3: Improved contraception and women’s rights and a shift from agriculture to industry decreases birth rate
Stage 4: industrial society with low birth/death rates
*The population will increase over the 4 stages

396
Q

Demographic shift

A

Any change in the demographics of a population over a period of time

397
Q

Malthusian theory

A

focuses on how the exponential growth of a population can outpace the growth of food supply and lead to social degradation

398
Q

Relative deprivation

A

a decrease in resources or representation, relative to the past or the whole society, can motivate social movements

399
Q

Proactive social movements

A

promote social change

Ex/ response to a insufficient job market.

400
Q

Reactive social movements

A

resist social change

Ex/ response to police brutality

401
Q

Social stratification

A

Focuses on social inequalities and is related to socioeconomic status

402
Q

False conciousness

A

the misconception of where you stand within a society

403
Q

Prestige

A

the positive regard society has for a given person or idea

404
Q

Anomie

A

Lack of social norms, or the breakdown of social bonds.

Accelerates social inequality

405
Q

Strain theory

A

Anomic conditions lead to deviance.
Ex/ if the American dream (hard work) does not work (because of the messed up social structure), deviant behavior like theft may occur to achieve the goal

406
Q

Social capitol

A

benefits one receives from group association

407
Q

Cultural capitol

A

benefits one receives from education, experience, abilities and skills (non-financial social aspect)

408
Q

Meritocracy

A

Intellectual talent (skill) and achievement are factors for social mobility but does not always guarantee it. Ex/ token economy

409
Q

Plutocracy

A

rule by the upper classes. Social mobility is low and wealth in unevenly distributed

410
Q

Urbanization

A

When dense areas of population create a pull for migration. Example of demographic shift

411
Q

Social reproduction

A

The idea that social inequality can be passed on from one generation to the next

412
Q

Structural poverty

A

based on the concept of “holes” in the structure of society rather than poverty due to the actions of individuals

413
Q

Urban decay

A

a result of suburbanization and can lead to gentrification (urban renewal)

414
Q

Incidence

A

measure of the number of new cases of an illness

415
Q

Prevalence

A

measure of the number of cases of an illness overall

416
Q

Second sickness

A

a theory proposed by Howard Waitzkin to describe the exacerbation (worsening) of health outcomes caused by social injustice

417
Q

Medicare

A

covers patients over 65, those with end stage renal disease, and those with ALS

418
Q

Medicaid

A

covers patients that are financially in need

419
Q

Confabulation

A

The process of creating vivid but fabricated memories. Symptom of Korsakoff syndrome

420
Q

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development

A

Based on a series of crises that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands

421
Q

Physiological revolution

A

Apart of the identity vs. role confusion stage (adolescence) of Erickson’s psychosocial development. It’s the ability to see yourself as a unique person

422
Q

Freud’s stages of psychosexual development

A

Based on children facing conflict between societal demands and the desire to reduce the libidinal tension associated with different erogenous zones of the body

423
Q

Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning

A

Based on the development of moral thinking. As our cognitive abilities grow, we are able to think about the world in more complex ways. This affects the way we solve problems and perceive right and wrong.

  • Pre-conventional = children
  • Conventional morality = normal adult reasoning.
  • Post-conventional = a small subset of adults (social contract and universal human ethics)
424
Q

Self disclosure

A

When the sharing of feelings and thoughts are met with non-judgemental empathy. This leads to increased attraction between individuals

425
Q

Similarity

A

Liking stimuli similar to you

426
Q

Familiarity effect

A

Liking stimuli that you are exposed to often

427
Q

Indicator traits

A

Traits that signify overall good health and well-being of an organism, increasing attractiveness to mates

428
Q

Alcohol

A

Increases dopamine production and GABA receptor activity

429
Q

Septal nuclei

A

One of the primary pleasure centers in the brain and is associated with addictive behavior

430
Q

Antisocial personality

A

Pattern of disregard for, or violation of, the rights of others

431
Q

Paranoid personality

A

Pattern of pervasive mistrust of others and suspicion regarding their motives

432
Q

Dynamic filtering

A

Hypothesis about the selection of info by the working memory, in which potentially irrelevant info or interfering info is excluded depending on task demands

433
Q

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep

A

Stage of sleep between sleep cycles. Arousal levels are on par with wakefulness, but muscles are paralyzed. Dreaming and memory consolidation occurs

434
Q

REM rebound

A

Exhibited in people who sleep normally after sleep deprivation (one cannot make up for lost sleep). It is an earlier onset and greater duration of REM sleep compared to normal

435
Q

Population bottleneck

A

Event that dramatically reduces the size of a population

436
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

Executive function of perception, emotion (injury can cause personality changes), impulse control, and long-term planning

437
Q

Anticipatory socialization

A

Process where a person prepares fo impending changes in his/her life

438
Q

Positive symptoms

A

behavior, thoughts, or feelings added to normal behavior: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought

439
Q

Negative symptoms

A

absence of normal or desired behavior: blunting, avolition, flat effect

440
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

Alignment of physiological processes with the 24 hr day. It can be reset or shift based on external stimuli (light and darkness). It develops as children age, but it is not seen in infants

441
Q

Night terros

A

Periods of intense anxiety that occur during slow wave sleep

442
Q

Somnambulism

A

Sleep walking. Occurs during slow wave sleep

443
Q

Stages of sleep

A

Stage 1: theta waves
Stage 2: theta waves + sleep spindles and K complexes
Stage 3 and 4: slow wave sleep, delta waves
Final: REM sleep

444
Q

REM behavior disorder

A

The body does not have a mechanism to prevent voluntary muscle movements, so a person experiences extensive physical activity during REM sleep

445
Q

Sleep cycle

A

A single complete progression through the sleep stages. The makeup of the cycle changes through the night with SWS predominating early in the night and REM sleep dominating late at night

446
Q

Race vs. ethnicity

A

Social construct based on phenotypical appearance vs. social construct based on cultural traits (language, clothing, religion)

447
Q

Absolute vs. relative poverty

A

Poverty when people don’t have enough resources to acquire basic living necessities vs. poverty when you’re poor compared to a larger population

448
Q

Cognitive vs. affective processes

A

Thoughts/beliefs based on knowledge vs. feelings

449
Q

Selye’s general adaption syndrome

A

People’s responses to variable stressors are similar Ex/ physical and social stressors

450
Q

Distress vs. eustress

A

Stress after a negative stressor vs. stress after a positive stressor

451
Q

Howard Garner’s theory of multiple intelligences

A

7 defined intelligences: linguistic, logical-math, visual-spatial, body-kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal. He believes that in Western society, the first two are the most important (tested on IQ test)

452
Q

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

A

IQ = mental age / chronological age x 100

453
Q

Beliefs vs. values

A

A belief is something that an individual accepts to be true. They are taught by family, friends, and other members of society. Values dictate one’s ethical principles and standards of behavior because that person deems it important in life (ex. honestly, trust, loyalty, kindness)

454
Q

Watson’s “Little Albert” study

A

Explains fear generalization. An infant was scared of a white rat and then experienced fear around other furry white things (at other ages)

455
Q

Sheriff’s Robber’s Cave experiment

A

Conflict arises between groups when they are competing for limited resources

456
Q

Zimbardo’s Stanford prison study

A

To study the roles people play in prison situations

457
Q

Milgram’s shock experiment

A

Tested obedience and how far people would go obeying instruction if it involved harming people

458
Q

Aligning actions

A

When someone makes questionable behavior acceptable through excuses

459
Q

Alter-casting

A

When someone imposes an identity onto another person

460
Q

Downward drift hypothesis

A

Schizophrenia causes a decline in socioeconomic status

461
Q

Method od loci

A

Mnemonic technique used by associating info with a location along a route of a building that has been already memorized

462
Q

Whole report vs. partial report

A

Methods used to test sensory memory. Recalling all of the info given vs. recalling a portion of the info given

463
Q

Bureaucracy

A

Organization where the goal is performing complex tasks as efficiently as possible by dividing work among bureaus

464
Q

Poverty of the stimulus argument

A

Children do not hear enough speech patterns to learn languages in the short time that they do

465
Q

The Big Five

A

5 traits that are important in a collaborative environment: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism

466
Q

Activation-synthesis theory of dreaming

A

Dreams are caused by random widespread activation of neural circuits

467
Q

Monocular vs. binocular cues

A

Relative size of object, partial obscuring of one object by another, linear perspective, motion parallax, position of object in a visual field, and lighting and shadowing VS. the angle required between the 2 eyes to bring an object into view, and the differences in images projected on the 2 retinas

468
Q

Health disparities

A

Preventable differences in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunities to achieve optimal health that are experienced by socially disadvantaged people

469
Q

Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

Characterized by feelings of automation and trouble recognizing oneself. Causes impairments of daily activities. No psychotic symptoms are displayed

470
Q

Cognitive processes theory of dreaming

A

Dreams are an extension of waking consciousness

471
Q

Neurocognitive theory of dreaming

A

Relates to the cognitive and physiological aspects of dreaming

472
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

The use of increasing proximal stimuli to gradually reduce the fear response in individuals