BE30 - Systems limitations Flashcards
1
Q
Cracked windshield -
Limitations
A
INNER ply cracks = Prohibited
Flight only permitted with OUTER ply cracks, with the following restrictions :
- Max 25hr flight time
- Vision not impaired
- Use of wipers is not impaired
- Windshield anti-ice must be operational
2
Q
Severe Icing
A
- Exit the severe icing ASAP
- Disengage AP / Do NOT engage autopilot
- Do NOT extend (or) retract flaps
- Avoid abrupt manoeuvres
3
Q
Min Bat (V) for GPU plug-in
A
20
4
Q
Min Bat (V) for BAT Start
A
23
5
Q
Min GPU (V) for GPU start
A
24
6
Q
Battery
Type & Amps
A
Lead Acid
42 amp/hr
7
Q
Battery
Time avail. on 50 amps
A
30 min
8
Q
GPU
Required rated voltage & amps
A
Amps :
1000 for start & 300 continuous
Voltage :
28.0 - 28.4 VDC
9
Q
Generators
Rated VDC & Amps
A
Amps :
300 am/hr
Voltage :
28 VDC
10
Q
Generators
Max % Load - Ground
A
N1 62-70% = Gen load 75%
N1 70-100% = Gen load 100%
11
Q
Generators
Max % Load - Flight
A
SL-FL340 = 100%
FL340-350 = 95%
12
Q
Certified occupancy (pax)
A
15
13
Q
Oil
Tot. qty & max. LOW on dipstick
A
Tot = 14 qts
Refill = 4 qts
14
Q
Engine
Model & SHP rating
A
PT6A-60A
1050 SHP
15
Q
Propeller blades angle -
Feathered
A
79.3°
16
Q
Propeller blades angle -
Reverse
A
-14°
17
Q
Propeller blades angle -
Ground LOW Pitch
A
2°
18
Q
Propeller blades angle -
Flight LOW Pitch
A
12°
19
Q
Propeller blade angle -
Ground fine
Zero Thrust
A
-3°
20
Q
Ground Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM
A
1050
21
Q
Flight Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM
A
1450
22
Q
Load factor (g)
Flaps UP (+/-)
A
+3.1
- 1.24
23
Q
Load factor (g)
Flaps DOWN (+/-)
A
+2.0
- 0.0
24
Q
Boots
min temp
A
-40
25
Prop deice
ammeter green range
26-32 amps
26
Landing gear
Cycle limit
1 cycle per 5 min, up to 6 cycles.
Then, 15 min cool down
27
Autopilot
AIL hard floor
Never engage below 400'
28
Starter
Limit ON & Sequence
ON = 30 sec
Sequence = (S) 5min (S) 5 min (S) 30 min
* Note = After a dry motoring run, only 1 (S) left
29
Pressurization
Max. diff
6.6 psi
30
Pneumatic pressure
green range
12-20 PSI
31
Gyro suction
SL up to ___ '? & Green range
SL-15,000'
4.3 - 5.9 ''Hg
32
Gyro scution
____' up to 35,000' & Green range
15 000' - 35,000'
2.8 - 4.9 ''hg
33
AC Dimensions
Height
14' 4''
34
AC Dimensions
Width (wing span)
57' 11''
35
AC Dimensions
Length (nose to tail)
46' 8''
36
Wing dihedral angle
6°
37
AC Category
Commuter
38
AC Dimensions
Prop ground clearance
11.5''
39
AC Dimensions
Turn radius
41' 7''
40
Engine
Compressor stages (4)
(3) Axial flow
(1) Centrifugal glow
41
Autopilot
Enroute limit
1000' AGL
42
YD/AP -
Limit if inop
Flight limited to 5,000'
(as per Cargo Pod supp.)
43
Yaw Damper -
Requirement to use
Must be ON anytime > 5,000'
44
Rudder boost
System activation min & max torque differential
Activates = 30% Torque differential
Max effective = 80% torque differential
45
TAS
When to amend?
TAS +/- 5%
5% = TAS / 10 / 2
46
Flaps APP & DOWN
How many degrees?
App = 14°
Down = 35°
47
AIL RCAM
Max contaminant depth
0.5''
48
Nose gear travel
- wt. pedals only
- wt. turn moment
- TOTAL
12° wt. pedals
36° wt turning moment
48° total
49
Brake deice -
Timer duration
| wt. Gear Up
10 min
50
Wing light
Time limit on ground
6 sec
51
Boots
Manual inflation time limit
7-10 sec
52
Oxygen system
Nominal pressure
1000-1500 PSI
53
Oxygen system - Capacity
77 cubic feet
54
Airframe - OAT limit
SL-FL250 = ISA + 37°C
>FL250-FL350 = ISA + 31°C
55
Condition levers - Minimal N1% :
- LOW idle
- HIGH idle
LOW idle = 62% N1
HIGH idle = 70% N1
56
Anti-ice
When should it be ON (ground & filght)
GROUND = Anytime
FLIGHT = In visible moisture when the OAT is 5° and below
57
Anti-ice
When should it be OFF (ground)
Takeoff above 10°
58
AIL Min Oil temp before unfeathering
0°
59
Max altitude for takeoff & landing
14,000'
60
Oxygen system
Passengers mask auto-deployment altitude
12,500'
61
Cabin depressurisation =
- Max cab. alt. that should be reached
- What system will prevent it, and how
13,500' cab alt
Altitude limit controller (integrated into the plumbing system of the Outflow & Safety valves).
62
AIL - Min Oil temp for takeoff
& why
55°
Oil to fuel heat exchanger
63
Autofeather -
When is it required?
- Must be operative for all flights
- Must be ARMED for take-off/ approach / landing
64
On shutdown, wait until ____ before feathering props
500 RPM
65
Cracked cabin window
- Limitations
Flight is prohibited
66
On HOT or HUNG start, wait until ____ before releasing starter cranking
400° ITT
67
Autofeather -
ARMING requirements (2)
BOTH ENGINES =
1) Power level position advanced to equivalent of N1 > 88%
2) TRQ > 17%
68
Autofeather -
ACTIVATION sequence (2)
1) When failed engine TRQ < 17%
= Auto-feather disables on operating engine
2) When failed engine TRQ < 10%,
= Auto-feather feathers prop on failed side
69
TEMP COMP must be applied to FRA when…
OAT <= -15
70
As per AIL, A/P must be disconnected by _____ on an approach
100’ above minima
71
How to help attain prop RPM > 1050
(3x)
- PWR levers = GROUND FINE
- Cond levers = HIGH IDLE
- PWR levers = Increase
72
Altitude limit (ceiling) with Gear (or) Flaps
20,000’
Supp. AC registered in Canada
73
On shutdown, wait until ____ before GENs & BATT to OFF.
WHY?
N1<15%
Confirms starter relay is not engaged
74
Min N1 required for A/C
62%
75
Tire pressure = nose/main
Nose = 60 psi
Main = 95 psi
76
Anti-ice OFF = resultant TRQ increase
6-8%
77
Normal electrical system voltage
28.25 +/- .25 VDC
78
What supplies VDC and VAC to the aicraft electrical system
VDC =
1x Battery
2x Generators
VAC =
2x Inverters
79
Battery power is located to which buses?
- Battery bus
- Center bus
- Triple fed bus
80
What protects the (5) electrical buses?
- All individually protected by current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays
&
- Load shedding isolates a faulty bus from those still functionnal
81
If the Battery is switched ON, which relay closes?
Battery relay
&
Batt Bus Tie relay
82
What is automatic load-shedding?
Genretors buses get automatically shed (isolated from the circuit) as necessary to reduse excess loads
83
What is on the Dual Fed bus?
(L & R) Fire extinguishers
&
Cabin entry lights CB, incld. :
- Emergency instrument indirect lights
- Entry lights
- Door observation lights
- Aft baggage lifhts
84
What is the main important system on the Center bus?
- Landing gear motor
Others good to know :
- No. 1 inverter
- Electric heat
- Manual Prop Deice
85
What is on the Battery bus?
- Avionics
- Ground Comm
- Dual fed bus
- Battery switch relay
86
What are the (6) functions of the GCU?
1) Voltage regulation
2) Overvoltage or overexcitation protection
3) Paralleling (load sharing) within 10%
4) Reverse current protection
5) Current limiting during a cross-gen start
6) Isolation of failed / off Gen from its Bus
87
AC Voltage & Hertz
115 VAC & 26 VAC
400 Hz
88
(3) Functions of the inverters?
1) Convert VDC to VAC
2) Voltage regulation
3) Frequency regulation
89
How are the starter-gens cooled on the ground?
By an internal shaft driven fan drawing outside air
90
What happens when you RESET a generator?
It excites the generator's field
Increase starter-gen output
Bring GEN back on line
91
What is reverse current ?
If a generator field becomes underexcited, it would draw currect from the center bus
92
What is the starter-gen overvoltage limit
32.5 VDC
93
What happens when the GEN switch is switched to NORM
The bus tie PCD analyzes bus voltages and automatically close the genereator bus-tie relays when no fault exist
94
What is the BUS SENSE switch function?
Controls the over-current sensing function of the Bus-Tie system.
95
How is the battery cooled
Air cooled
96
What happens when the BAT BUS is switched to EMER OFF
The battery bus is disconnected from the battery
97
On which Bus is the Flap Motor ?
LEFT Gen
98
What bus is powered by external power?
Center bus
99
When will GPU voltage power be locked OUT ?
If voltage exceeds 31 VDC
100
What happens when the Avionics Switch is ON?
Voltage is REMOVED from each coil, then the contacts CLOSE to supply power to the avionics CB
101
What happens if the Avionics Switch is failed in the OFF position?
How to get around it?
Current is provided to the coil, therefore the contacts are OPEN and no power is supplied to the Avionics CB.
By PULLING the Avionics CB, the avionics master swtich will be bypassed and the avionics powered.
102
Which lights are installed on the wingtips?
- Nav
- Recog
- Strobe
103
What powers the emergency exit lights?
Self-illuminating phosphor coated tube
104
What are the (6) principal uses of P3 air
- Fuel Manifold Purge system
- Cockpit side window defog
- Cabin window defrost
- Inflating the door seal
- Gear hydraulic precharge
- Inflate the boots
105
Igniters
- How many of them?
- How many required to start?
2 per engine
1 required to start
106
When does the P2.5 valve fully closes?
90% N1 (then only P3 air is used)
107
What happens during acceleration if the compression bleed air valve sticks ....
- OPEN ?
- CLOSED ?
OPEN =
High ITT & Low TRQ
CLOSED =
Compressor stalls
108
When is the best time to check oil level?
Within 15 minutes of shutdown
109
What is the function of the Propeller Ground Solenoid?
How does it activates / deactivates?
Ensures automatic transition between the Flight Low Pitch Stop (12°) to the Ground Low Pitch Stop (2°) upon touchdown, by repositionning the beta valve to allow more oil pressure into the dome, hence decreasing the blade angle.
* Deactivation of the Ground Low Pitch Stop (on takeoff) =
Electrical power is removed from the solenoid by a microswitch on its respective power lever as it advance through 68-70%N1 (also resulting in its respective [L/R PROP PITCH] annunc. to extinguish]
* Activation of the Ground Low Pitch Stop (on landing) =
Solenoid is powered when a switch in the (R) Main Landing Gear is activated by WOW
110
What is the Prop Sync max authority?
20 RPM
111
At which temperature is the bleed air cooled?
70°F = 21°C
112
How is vaccum air obtained?
From the bleed-air going throug an ejector - Vaccum created from the air being accelerated
113
Propeller deice cycle - AUTO mode
## Footnote
Timing
A timer runs a 90 sec phase cycles
The 1st. 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the RH prop.
The 2nd 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the LH prop.
114
Bleed air
- Where does it enters the cabin?
- What does it serve for?
Outlets in the LOWER cabin sidewalls
Pressurization & Heating
115
What is used to heat the cabin on the ground?
Bleed air supplemented by the Electric Heat elements
116
How does the Air Conditionning works?
Condensing coil & blower assembly in the nose.
Driven by the RH engine.
Recirculates cabin air.
Condensor removes excess heat from the high-pressure & high-temperature air.
Freon refrigerant
117
Air Conditionning - Temp limit
Do NOT operate A/C when the ambient temp is below 10 C
118
How can outside ambient air be distributed to the cabin?
Selecting the Cabin Press switch to DUMP allows the evaporator door to open and allow outside ambient air to the mixing plenum
119
Can Electric Heat function in flight & on the ground?
Only on the ground
120
Can the Air Conditionning work in flight & on the ground?
Yes, in flight & on the ground
121
What (3x) GEAR systems are on the WOW switches
1) Gear selector - Valve UP solenoid
* On ground = Hydraulic fluid is prevented to flow to the retraction side of the system
2) Gear Motor control relay
* On ground = Pump in the gear motor is prevented to operate
3) Gear Handle Lock solenoid
* On ground = J-hook prevents handle to move up
122
What (3x) PRESSU systems are on the WOW switches
1) Preset solenoid
* On ground = Outflow valve closes
2) Dump solenoid
* On ground = Safety valve opens, and depressurize the aircraft
3) Door seal solenoid
* On ground = Seal deflates
123
What (1x) DEICE system is on the WOW switches
1) Stall Warning Heat control
* On ground = Flow is limited to a lower voltage to prevent overheating
124
What (2x) ENVIRO systems are on the WOW switches
1) Electric Heat control
* In flight = Power is removed from the circuit, making it unusable
2) Ambient Air modulating valves
* In flight = Ram air door closes
125
What (1x) PROP system is on the WOW switches
1) Ground Low Pitch Stop system
* On ground = Propeller Solenoid is energized, hence the Low Pitch Stop is automatically reset from the Flight stop (12°) to the Ground stop (2°)
126
Auto-IGNITION
When does it activate?
When TRQ < 17%
127
Rudder Boost -
When is it required?
Operative & ON for all flights
128
Which systems will remain functionnal in case of a DUAL GEN failure (without manually closing the MAN TIES)?
WHY?
Switches & Toggles with a white circle
These systems are on the CTR (or) TPL Fed Buses, therefore powered by the battery
* Note : In order to reduce electrical demand on the battery, unecessary systems with a white circle should be switched off
129
Flight Idle -
Prop RPM range & blade angles
1700 - 1450 RPM
(1450 RPM = 12°)
130
Ground Idle -
Prop RPM range & blade angles
1700 - 1050 RPM
(1050 = 2°)
131
Ground Fine (Beta) -
Blade angles
2° to -3°
132
Reverse -
Prop RPM range & blade angles
1050-1650 RPM
-3° to -14°
133
Which systems require Vacuum?
(4x)
- Pressurization Controler
- Outflow valve
- Safety ''dump'' valve
- Deice Boots (deflation)
134
Which systems require AC?
(3x)
- FDR (Flight Data Recorder)
- AP/YD (Autopilot & YawDamper)
- FD (Flight Director)
135
Which buses power each inverter?
#1 Inverter = Center Bus
#2 Inverter = (R) Generator Bus
136
Take Off - When to set the ENVIR switch :
- LOW
- NORMAL?
NORMAL = up to 10°
LOW = 11° & above
137
Brake Deice - Max. OAT
15°
