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BE30 > BE30 - Systems limitations > Flashcards

BE30 - Systems limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Cracked windshield -
Limitations

A

INNER ply cracks = Prohibited

Flight only permitted with OUTER ply cracks, with the following restrictions :
- Max 25hr flight time
- Vision not impaired
- Use of wipers is not impaired
- Windshield antiice must be operational

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2
Q

Severe Icing

A
  • Exit the severe icing ASAP
  • Disengage AP / Do NOT engage autopilot
  • Do NOT extend flaps / Do NOT retract flaps
  • Avoid abrupt manoeuvres
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3
Q

Min Bat (V) for GPU plug-in

A

20

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4
Q

Min Bat (V) for BAT Start

A

23

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5
Q

Min GPU (V) for GPU start

A

24

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6
Q

Battery
Type & Amps

A

Lead Acid
42 amp/hr

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7
Q

Battery
Time avail. on 50 amps

A

30 min

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8
Q

GPU
Required rated voltage & amps

A

Amps :
1000 for start & 300 continuous

Voltage :
28.0 - 28.4 VDC

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9
Q

Generators
Rated VDC & Amps

A

Amps :
300 am/hr

Voltage :
28 VDC

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10
Q

Generators
Max % Load - Ground

A

N1 62-70% = Gen load 75%
N1 70-100% = Gen load 100%

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11
Q

Generators
Max % Load - Flight

A

SL-FL340 = 100%
FL340-350 = 95%

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12
Q

Certified occupancy (pax)

A

15

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13
Q

Oil
Tot. qty & max. LOW on dipstick

A

Tot = 14 qts
Refill = 4 qts

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14
Q

Engine
Model & SHP rating

A

PT6A-60A
1050 SHP

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15
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Feathered

A

79.3°

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16
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Reverse

A
  • 14
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17
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Ground LOW Pitch

A

2°

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18
Q

Propeller blades angle -
Flight LOW Pitch

A

12°

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19
Q

Propeller blade angle -
Ground fine

A

-3° (zero thrust)

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20
Q

Ground Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM

A

1050

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21
Q

Flight Low Pitch Stop -
Prop RPM

A

1450

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22
Q

Load factor (g)
Flaps UP (+/-)

A

+3.1
- 1.24

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23
Q

Load factor (g)
Flaps DOWN (+/-)

A

+2.0
- 0.0

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24
Q

Boots
min temp

A

-40

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25
Q

Prop deice
ammeter green range

A

26-32 amps

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26
Q

Landing gear
Cycle limit

A

1 cycle per 5 min, up to 6 cycles.
Then, 15 min cool down

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27
Q

Autopilot
AIL hard floor

A

Never engage below 400’

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28
Q

Starter
Limit ON & Sequence

A

ON = 30 sec
Sequence = (S) 5min (S) 5 min (S) 30 min

  • Note = After a dry motoring run, only 1 (S) left
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29
Q

Pressurization
Max. diff

A

6.6 psi

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30
Q

Pneumatic pressure
green range

A

12-20 PSI

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31
Q

Gyro suction
SL up to ___ ‘? & Green range

A

SL-15,000’

4.3 - 5.9 ‘‘Hg

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32
Q

Gyro scution
____’ up to 35,000’ & Green range

A

15 000’ - 35,000’
2.8 - 4.9 ‘‘hg

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33
Q

AC Dimensions
Height

A

14’ 4’’

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34
Q

AC Dimensions
Width (wing span)

A

57’ 11’’

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35
Q

AC Dimensions
Length (nose to tail)

A

46’ 8’’

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36
Q

Wing dihedral angle

A

6°

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37
Q

AC Category

A

Commuter

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38
Q

AC Dimensions
Prop ground clearance

A

11.5’’

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39
Q

AC Dimensions
Turn radius

A

41’ 7’’

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40
Q

Engine
Compressor stages (4)

A

(3) Axial flow
(1) Centrifugal glow

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41
Q

Autopilot
Enroute limit

A

1000’ AGL

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42
Q

YD/AP -
Limit if inop

A

Flight limited to 5,000’
(as per Cargo Pod supp.)

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43
Q

Yaw Damper -
Requirement to use

A

Must be ON anytime > 5,000’

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44
Q

Rudder boost
System activation min & max torque differential

A

Activates = 30% Torque differential
Max effective = 80% torque differential

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45
Q

TAS
When to amend?

A

TAS +/- 5%

5% = TAS / 10 / 2

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46
Q

Flaps APP & DOWN
How many degrees?

A

App = 14°
Down = 35°

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47
Q

AIL RCAM
Max contaminant depth

A

0.5’’

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48
Q

Nose gear travel
- wt. pedals only
- wt. turn moment
- TOTAL

A

12° wt. pedals
36° wt turning moment
48° total

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49
Q

Brake deice
Timer duration

A

10 min

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50
Q

Wing light
Time limit on ground

A

6 sec

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51
Q

Boots
Manual inflation time limit

A

7-10 sec

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52
Q

Oxygen system
Nominal pressure

A

1000-1500 PSI

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53
Q

Oxygen system
Cubin capacity

A

77 ft/cu

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54
Q

Airframe - OAT limit

A

SL-FL250 = ISA + 37°C
FL250-FL350 = ISA + 31°C

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55
Q

Fuel nozzles
- How many of them?
- When does the 2nd stage activates?

A

14 nozzles, divided in 2 sets

N1 > 35%

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56
Q

Condition levers
LOW idle & HIGH idle N1% limit

A

LOW idle = 62% N1
HIGH idle = 70% N1

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57
Q

Anti-ice
When should it be ON (ground & filght)

A

GROUND = Anytime

FLIGHT = In visible moisture when the OAT is 5° and below

58
Q

Anti-ice
When should it be OFF (ground)

A

Takeoff above 10°

59
Q

AIL Min Oil temp before unfeathering

A

0°

60
Q

Max altitude for takeoff & landing

A

14,000’

61
Q

Oxygen system
Passengers mask auto-deployment altitude

A

12,500’

62
Q

AIL - Min Oil temp for takeoff
& why

A

55°
Oil to fuel heat exchanger

63
Q

Autopilot -
Enroute hard floor

A

Never use enroute < 1000’

64
Q

Autofeather -
When is it required?

A
  • Must be operative for all flights
  • Must be ARMED for take-off/ approach / landing
65
Q

On shutdown, wait until ____ before feathering props

A

500 RPM

66
Q

Cracked cabin window
- Limitations

A

Flight is prohibited

67
Q

On HOT or HUNG start, wait until ____ before releasing starter cranking

A

400° ITT

68
Q

Autofeather -
ARMING requirements (2)

A

BOTH ENGINES =

1) Power level position advanced to equivalent of N1 > 88%

2) TRQ > 17%

69
Q

Autofeather -
ACTIVATION sequence (2)

A

1) When failed engine TRQ < 17%
= Auto-feather disables on operating engine

2) When failed engine TRQ < 10%,
= Auto-feather feathers prop on failed side

70
Q

TEMP COMP must be applied to FRA when…

A

OAT <= -15

71
Q

As per AIL, A/P must be disconnected by _____ on an approach

A

100’ above minima

72
Q

How to help attain prop RPM > 1050
(3x)

A
  • PWR levers = GROUND FINE
  • Cond levers = HIGH IDLE
  • PWR levers = Increase
73
Q

ENVIR BLEED AIR switch position on takeoff

A

LOW when OAT > 10°

74
Q

Altitude limit (ceiling) with Gear (or) Flaps

A

20,000’

Supp. AC registered in Canada

75
Q

On shutdown, wait until ____ before GENs & BATT to OFF.
WHY?

A

N1<15%
Confirms starter relay is not engaged

76
Q

Min N1 required for A/C

A

62%

77
Q

Tire pressure = nose/main

A

Nose = 60 psi
Main = 95 psi

78
Q

Anti-ice OFF = resultant TRQ increase

A

6-8%

79
Q

Normal electrical system voltage

A

28.25 +/- .25 VDC

80
Q

What supplies VDC and VAC to the aicraft electrical system

A

VDC =
1x Battery
2x Generators

VAC =
2x Inverters

81
Q

Battery power is located to which buses?

A
  • Battery bus
  • Center bus
  • Triple fed bus
82
Q

What protects the (5) electrical buses?

A
  • All individually protected by current sensors, limiters, diodes and relays
    &
  • Load shedding isolates a faulty bus from those still functionnal
83
Q

If the Battery is switched ON, which relay closes?

A

Battery relay
&
Batt Bus Tie relay

84
Q

What is automatic load-shedding?

A

Genretors buses get automatically shed (isolated from the circuit) as necessary to reduse excess loads

85
Q

What is on the Dual Fed bus?

A

(L & R) Fire extinguishers

&

Cabin entry lights CB, incld. :
- Emergency instrument indirect lights
- Entry lights
- Door observation lights
- Aft baggage lifhts

86
Q

What is the main important system on the Center bus?

A
  • Landing gear motor

Others good to know :
- No. 1 inverter
- Electric heat
- Manual Prop Deice

87
Q

What is on the Battery bus?

A
  • Avionics
  • Ground Comm
  • Dual fed bus
  • Battery switch relay
88
Q

What are the (6) functions of the GCU?

A

1) Voltage regulation

2) Overvoltage or overexcitation protection

3) Paralleling (load sharing) within 10%

4) Reverse current protection

5) Current limiting during a cross-gen start

6) Isolation of failed / off Gen from its Bus

89
Q

AC Voltage & Hertz

A

115 VAC & 26 VAC
400 Hz

90
Q

(3) Functions of the inverters?

A

1) Convert VDC to VAC
2) Voltage regulation
3) Frequency regulation

91
Q

How are the starter-gens cooled on the ground?

A

By an internal shaft driven fan drawing outside air

92
Q

What happens when you RESET a generator?

A

It excites the generator’s field
Increase starter-gen output
Bring GEN back on line

93
Q

What is reverse current ?

A

If a generator field becomes underexcited, it would draw currect from the center bus

94
Q

What is the starter-gen overvoltage limit

A

32.5 VDC

95
Q

What happens when the GEN switch is switched to NORM

A

The bus tie PCD analyzes bus voltages and automatically close the genereator bus-tie relays when no fault exist

96
Q

What is the BUS SENSE switch function?

A

Controls the over-current sensing function of the Bus-Tie system.

97
Q

How is the battery cooled

A

Air cooled

98
Q

What happens when the BAT BUS is switched to EMER OFF

A

The battery bus is disconnected from the battery

99
Q

On which Bus is the Flap Motor ?

A

LEFT Gen

100
Q

On which Bus are the Fire Detect?
Will they light if the Battery switch is off?

A

Fire detect = Triple-fed bus

Will NOT light is the battery switch is off

101
Q

On which Bus are the Firewall Valves?
Will they close if the Battery switch is off?

A

Triple-fed Bus

NO, they won’t close if the battery switch is off

102
Q

On which Bus are the Engine Fire warnings?
Will if discharge if the Battery switch is off?

A

Dual-fed bus

YES, they will discharge if the battery switch is off

103
Q

What bus is powered by external power?

A

Center bus

104
Q

What does a FLASHING [EXT PWR] mean?

A

GPU is plugged-in, but is either :
- Faulty
- Not connected to the AC electrical system

105
Q

What does a STEADY [EXT PWR] mean?

A
  • GPU is plugged-in
  • External Power swithc is ON
  • External power is sufficient & connected to the AC electrical system
106
Q

When will GPU voltage power be locked OUT ?

A

If voltage exceeds 31 VDC

107
Q

What happens when the Avionics Switch is ON?

A

Voltage is REMOVED from each coil, then the contacts CLOSE to supply power to the avionics CB

108
Q

What happens if the Avionics Switch is failed in the OFF position?
How to get around it?

A

Current is provided to the coil, therefore the contacts are OPEN and no power is supplied to the Avionics CB.

By PULLING the Avionics CB, the avionics master swtich will be bypassed and the avionics powered.

109
Q

What lights are installed on the windtips?

A
  • Nav
  • Recog
  • Strobe
110
Q

What powers the emergency exit lights?

A

Self-illuminating phosphor coated tube

111
Q

White annunciator - Meaning?

A

Normal condition - Initiated automatically (or) by the flight crew

112
Q

Green annunciator - Meaning?

A

Confirms an operation initiated by the flight crew is occuring properly

113
Q

What are the (6) principal uses of P3 air

A
  • Fuel Manifold Purge system
  • Cockpit side window defog
  • Cabin window defrost
  • Inflating the door seal
  • Gear hydraulic precharge
  • Inflate the boots
114
Q

Igniters
- How many of them?
- How many required to start?

A

2 per engine

1 required to start

115
Q

When does the P2.5 valve fully closes?

A

90% N1 (then only P3 air is used)

116
Q

What happens during acceleration if the compression bleed air valve sticks ….
- OPEN ?
- CLOSED ?

A

OPEN =
High ITT & Low TRQ

CLOSED =
Compressor stalls

117
Q

When is the best time to check oil level?

A

Within 15 minutes of shutdown

118
Q

What is the function of the Low Pitch Stop?

A

Preventing the propeller from going too FLAT (coarse)

119
Q

What is the Prop Sync max authority?

A

20 RPM

120
Q

How many fire extinguishers spray tubes in each engine?

A

8

121
Q

Engire Fire Extinguisher - TESTS purpose :
- DET ?
- EXT ?

A

DET =
Checks the continuity of the detection loop

EXT =
Checks the continuity of wiring ti the squib and cartridge

122
Q

At which temperature is the bleed air cooled?

A

70F = 21C

123
Q

How is vaccum air obtained?

A

From the bleed-air going throug an ejector - Vaccum created from the air being accelerated

124
Q

What does it mean if the [WING DEICE] annuc. remains illuminated?

A

End of the cycle has not been reached : Deice boots have not pulled down properly

125
Q

Explain the propeller boots cycle - AUTO mode

A

A timer runs a 90 sec phase cycles

The 1st. 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the RH prop.

The 2nd 90 seconds heats ALL boots on the LH prop.

126
Q

Bleed air
- Where does it enters the cabin?
- What does it serve for?

A

Outlets in the LOWER cabin sidewalls
Pressurization & Heating

127
Q

What is used to heat the cabin on the ground?

A

Bleed air supplemented by the Electric Heat elements

128
Q

How does the Air Conditionning works?

A

Condensing coil & blower assembly in the nose.
Driven by the RH engine.
Recirculates cabin air.
Condensor removes excess heat from the high-pressure & high-temperature air.
Freon refrigerant

129
Q

Air Conditionning - Temp limit

A

Do NOT operate A/C when the ambient temp is below 10 C

130
Q

How can outside ambient air be distributed to the cabin?

A

Selecting the Cabin Press switch to DUMP allows the evaporator door to open and allow outside ambient air to the mixing plenum

131
Q

Can Electric Heat function in flight & on the ground?

A

Only on the ground

132
Q

Can the Air Conditionning work in flight & on the ground?

A

Yes, in flight & on the ground

133
Q

What important systems are on the WOW switches
- GEAR (3x)
- PRESSU (3x)
- PROP (1x)
- ENVIRO (2x)
- DEICE (1x)

A

GEAR (3x) =
- Gear selector valve UP solenoid (ground = hydraulic fluid is prevented to flow to the retraction side of the system

  • Gear Motor control relay (ground = pump in the gear motor is prevented to operate)
  • Gear Handle Lock solenoid (ground = J-hook prevents handle to move up)

PRESSU (3x) =
- Preset solenoid (ground = outflow valve closes)

  • Dump solenoid (ground = safety valve opens, and depressurize the aircraft)
  • Door seal solenoid (grouhnd = seal deflates)

PROP (1x) =
- Ground Low Pitch Stop system

ENVIRO (2x) =
- Electric Heat control (flight = power is removed from the circuit, making it unusable)

  • Ambient Air modulating valves (flight = ram air door closes)

DEICE (1x) =
- Stall Warning Heat control (ground = flow is limited to a lower voltage to prevent overheating)

134
Q

Auto-IGNITION
When does it activate?

A

When TRQ < 17%

135
Q

Rudder Boost -
When is it required?

A

Operative & ON for all flights

136
Q

Which systems will remain functionnal in case of a DUAL GEN failure, without manually closing the MAN TIES?

A

Switches & Toggles with a white circle

  • Note : In order to reduce electrical demand on the battery, unecessary systems with a white circle should be switched off
137
Q

Flight Idle -
Prop RPM range & blade angles

A

1700 - 1450 RPM
(1450 RPM = 12°)

138
Q

Ground Idle -
Prop RPM range & blade angles

A

1700 - 1050 RPM
(1050 = 2°)

139
Q

Ground Fine (Beta) -
Blade angles

A

2° to -3°

140
Q

Reverse -
Prop RPM range & blade angles

A

1050-1650 RPM
-3° to -14°

141
Q

What makes the annunc. [RVS NOT READY] illuminate?

A

Props are NOT Full FWD, wt. the Gear Down

142
Q

What makes the annunc. [L/R PROP PITCH] illuminate?

A

Props lever are in a position (microswitch in lever) below the Flight Idle range

  • Normal on the ground, tho not normal in flight!

BE30 (13 decks)

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