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BCE Flashcards

1
Q

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme is usually
A. a highly reactive compound
B. a metal ion such as Hg2+ or Pb2+
C. structurally similar to the substrate.
D. water insoluble

A

C

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2
Q

Linear inhibition is sometimes called as
A. complete inhibition
B. incomplete inhibition
C. partial inhibition
D. mixed inhibition

A

A

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3
Q

The types of inhibition pattern based on Michaelis Menten
equation are
A. competitive
B. non-competitive
C. uncompetitive
D. all of the above

A

D

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4
Q

The effect of non-competitive inhibition on a Lineweaver-Burk
Plot is that
A. it can move the entire curve to the right
B. it can change the y-intercept
C. it can change the x-intercept
D. all of these

A

B

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5
Q

The rate-determining step of Michaelis Menten kinetics is
A. the complex formation step
B. the complex dissociation step to produce product
C. the product formation step
D. Both (a)and(c)

A

B

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6
Q

In competitive inhibition a factor is obtained from the
measurement of
A. Vmax
B. KM
C. Y-intercept in Lineweaver-Burk Plot
D. None of these

A

B

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7
Q

Which of these proteases is not a cysteine active site protease?
A. Calpain
B. Cathepsin D
C. Papain
D. None of the above

A

B

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8
Q

Given an enzyme with a Km = 10m M and Vmax = 100 m
mol/min. If [S] = 100 m M, which of the following will be true?
A. A 10 fold increase in Vmax would increase velocity 10
fold y
B. A 10 fold decrease in Km would increase velocity
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. A 10 fold increase in Vmax would decrease velocity 20
fold

A

A

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9
Q

The conformational change in an enzyme after the substrate is
bound that allows the chemical reaction to proceed, can be
explained by
A. induced fit
B. transition
C. fit and fine
D. Pasteur

A

A

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10
Q

The active site of an enzyme remains
A. at the center of globular proteins
B. rigid and does not change shape
C. complementary to the rest of the molecule
D. none of the above

A

D

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11
Q

Non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
A. decreases Vmax
B. binds to Michaelis complex (ES)
C. both (a) and (b)
D. can actually increase reaction velocity in rare cases

A

C

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12
Q

An enzyme and a reactant molecule maintain relationship as
A. a temporary association
B. an association stabilized by a covalent bond
C. one in which the enzyme is changed permanently
D. non complementary binding

A

A

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13
Q

Which category of enzymes belongs to class two in the
international classification?
A. Hydrolases
B. Ligases
C. Transferases
D. Isomerase

A

C

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14
Q

The Woolf-Augusteinsson-Hofstee plot of ν versus ν/[S] and the
Eadie-Scatchard plot of ν/[S] versus ν do not involve reciprocals
of ν therefore are considered to be more reliable when the error
in v is
A. non-significant
B. significant
C. nothing to do with the reliability
D. non-significant in selected cases

A

B

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15
Q

The relationship between Keq, Km and Vmax is known as
A. Haldane equation
B. Michaelis Menten equation
C. Numerical solution approach
D. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation

A

A

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16
Q

The reciprocal equation for non-competitive inhibition can be
arranged to the equation for the
A. Dixon plot
B. Woolf-Augusteinsson-Hofstee plot
C. Eadie-Scatchard plot
D. Hanes-Woolf plot

A

A

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is true for enzymatically
catalyzed reaction?
A. The activation energy of the reaction is lowered so that
a larger proportion of the substrate qualifies to
overcome it
B. Additional substrate molecules are energized to
overcome the activation energy of the reaction
C. The activation energy of the reaction is increased, thus
decreasing the likelihood that any substrate molecules
will overcome it
D. The activation energy of the reaction is lowered so that
a fewer substrate molecules can overcome it

A

A

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18
Q

Which of the following common drugs is not a specific enzyme
inhibitor?
A. Iodine
B. Methotrexate
C. Sulfbnilamide
D. Penicillin

A

A

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19
Q

The enzyme inhibition can occur by
A. reversible inhibitors
B. irreversible inhibitors
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these

A

C

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20
Q

In a Lineweaver-Burk Plot, competitive inhibitor shows which of
the following effect?
A. It moves the entire curve to right
B. It moves the entire curve to left
C. It changes the x-intercept
D. It has no effect on the slope

A

C

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Enzymes are proteins that bind to specific substrates
and increase the velocity of reactions involving those
substrates
B. Enzymes function by overcoming the activation energy
barrier of a reaction
C. Enzymes make thermodynamically favorable reactions
to proceed; they cannot make unfavorable reactions to
occur
D. Enzymes only function when they are in intact cells

A

D

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22
Q

An enzyme is assayed at an initial substrate concentration of 2 x
10-5M. In 6 minutes, half of the substrate is used. The Km for the
substrate is 2 x 10-3M. The value of k in minute is
A. 0.115
B. 0.42
C. 0.093
D. 6.693

A

A

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23
Q

The plot commonly used for determining the value of Vmax is
A. Lineweaver Burk plot
B. Langmuir plot
C. Eadie Hofstee plot
D. all of these

A

D

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24
Q

Quasi steady state is also known as
A. Michaelis Menten approach
B. Briggs-Haldane approach
C. Pseudo steady state
D. all of the above

A

C

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25
Q

Which of these enzymes contains a Zinc (Zn) ion?
A. Carboxypeptidase A
B. Phosphorylase B kinase
C. Tyrosine hydroxylase
D. Phosphodiesterase

A

A

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26
Q

A noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction
A. increases KM and increases Vmax
B. increases KM and reduces Vmax
C. reduces KM and increases Vmax
D. reduces KM and reduces Vmax

A

B

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27
Q

An allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme usually
A. participates in feedback regulation
B. denatures the enzyme
C. is a hydrophobic compound
D. causes the enzyme to work faster

A

A

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28
Q

Which of the following activity is possible by transferases?
A. Transfer of methyl groups
B. Transfer of glycosyl group
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these

A

C

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29
Q

A classical uncompetitive inhibitor is a compound that binds
A. reversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an
inactive ESI complex
B. irreversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding
an inactive ESI complex
C. reversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding an
active ESI complex
D. irreversibly to the enzyme substrate complex yielding
an active ESI complex

A

A

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30
Q

Which graphical method is used to determine an enzyme
degree of cooperativity?
A. Hill plot
B. Koshland curve
C. Michaelis-Menten hyperbola
D. Can not be determined

A

A

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31
Q

The ratio of the amount of a protein present in a sample, which
is used as a measure of purification, is known as
A. specific activity
B. relative activity
C. purity ratio
D. all of these

A

A

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32
Q

If a reaction occurs in the absence of inhibitor with rate ν0 and in
the presence of inhibitor with rate νi, the degree of inhibition is
defined as
A. (ν0 - νi)/ν0
B. (ν0 + νi)/ν0
C. (ν0νi)/ν0
D. (ν0-νi)/νi

A

A

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33
Q

The rate equation in competitive inhibition based on Michaelis
Menten equation is given by
A. rmaxS/(Km (1+I/Ki)+S))
B. rmaxE/(Km (1+I/Ki)+S))
C. rmaxI/(Km (1+I/Ki)+S))
D. rmaxS/(Km (1+I/Ki))

A

A

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34
Q

Classical noncompetitive inhibition is obtained only under
A. slow equilibrium conditions
B. moderate equilibrium conditions
C. rapid equilibrium conditions
D. non-equilibrium conditions

A

C

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35
Q

In the steady state the material balance equation for any
component of a system is
A. rate of addition + rate of removal - rate of formation = 0
B. rate of addition - rate of removal + rate of formation = 0
C. rate of addition + rate of removal + rate of formation =
0
D. none of the above

A

B

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36
Q
A
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37
Q

For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the
reaction velocity (as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2
KM will be
A. 0.09
B. 0.33
C. 0.66
D. 0.91

A

C

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38
Q

Predominantly uncompetitive inhibition may be called when
A. competitive inhibition is greater than uncompetitive
inhibition
B. competitive inhibition is smaller than uncompetitive
inhibition
C. competitive inhibition is equal to uncompetitive
inhibition
D. none of the above

A

A

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39
Q

The rate equation in non-competitive inhibition based on
Michaelis Menten equation is given by
A. rmaxS/(Km + S)(1+I/Ki)
B. rmaxE/(Km (1+I/Ki)+S))
C. VmaxS/(Km + S)(1+I/Ki)
D. rmaxS/Km

A

A

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40
Q

Which of the following statement(s) regarding enzymes, is/are
false?
A. Enzymes are always proteins that function as catalysts
B. Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions
C. Enzyme activity can be regulated
D. Enzymes may be used many times for a specific
reaction

A

B

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41
Q

The slope of Lineweaver Burk plot for Michaelis Menten
equation is
A. Vmax/Km
B. Km/Vmax
C. 1/Km
D. Km.Vmax

A

B

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42
Q

The initial velocity, V0, of an enzyme catalyzed reaction reaches
Vmax as
A. [S] = KM
B. [S] = 10 * KM
C. 1/[S] = 1/KM
D. 1/[S] → 0

A

D

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43
Q

The usual method(s) to solve rate equation of simple enzyme
kinetics is/are
A. Michaelis Menten approach
B. Briggs-Haldane approach
C. Numerical solution approach
D. all of these

A

D

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44
Q

Michaelis Menten equation can also be written as
A. (-Cs)/r = (Cs/rmax)+(Km/rmax)
B. 1/r = (1/rmax)+(Km/(rmax.Cs))
C. r = rmax-(Km.r/Cs)
D. All of these

A

D

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45
Q

Which of the following step is assumed to be the slowest step in
the Michaelis Menten equation?
A. The substrate consuming step
B. The product releasing step
C. Formation of enzyme substrate complex
D. None of these

A

B

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46
Q

When substrate [S] = KM (Michaelis-Menten constant), the
velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is about
A. 0.1 * Vmax
B. 0.2 * Vmax
C. 0.5 * Vmax
D. 0.9 * Vmax

A

C

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47
Q

An enzyme has a Km of 4.7 x 10-5M. If the Vmax of the
preparation is 22m moles liter-1 min-1, what velocity would be
observed in the presence of 2.0 x 10-4M substrate and 5.0 x 10
5M of a competitive inhibitor?
A. 13.54μ moles liter-1min-1
B. 6.68μ moles liter-1min-1
C. 7.57μ moles liter-1min-1
D. 17.8μ moles liter-1min-1

A

A

48
Q

A classical noncompetitive inhibitor has
A. no effect on substrate binding
B. no effect on substrate binding and vice versa
C. significant effect on substrate binding
D. significant effect on substrate binding and vice versa

A

B

49
Q

The active site of an enzyme differs from an antibody-antigen
binding site in that the enzyme active site
A. contains modified amino acids
B. catalyzes a chemical reaction
C. is complementary to a specific ligand
D. contains amino acids without side chains

A

B

50
Q

Enzymes are basically
A. proteins
B. vitamins
C. fat
D. carbohydrates

A

A

51
Q

Which of the following refers to pseudo steady state ?
A. d(CE)/dt = 0
B. d(Cp)/dt = 0
C. d(CES)/dt = 0
D. d(Cs)/dt = d(CES)/dt

A

C

52
Q

Most enzymes work by
A. increasing energy of activation
B. decreasing energy of activation
C. not affecting energy of activation
D. none of the above

A

B

53
Q

Which category of enzymes belongs to class 5 in the
international classification?
A. Hydrolases
B. Isomerases
C. Oxido-reductases
D. Cyclase

A

B

54
Q

Lock and key theory is based on the compatibility of
A. enzyme and substrate
B. enzyme and product
C. enzyme and enzyme substrate complex
D. enzyme substrate complex and product

A

A

55
Q

When an enzyme is functioning at Vmax, the rate of the reaction
is limited by
A. the number of collisions between enzyme and
substrate
B. the number of substrate molecules in the reaction
C. the concentration of the substrate
D. the rate at which the enzyme can convert substrate to
product

A

D

56
Q

The equation for the rate of product formation for simple
enzyme reaction is given by (Where rmax, maximum reaction
rate, Cs substrate concentration, Cp product concentration ES,
CES enzyme-substrate concentration)
A. rp = rmax Cs/(Km+Cs)
B. rp= rmax CES/(Km+ CES)
C. rp = rmax Cs/(Km+CES)
D. rp = rmax Cs/(Km+Cp)

A

A

57
Q

Stationary phase is described as
A. no further increase in the cell population after a
maximum value
B. deceleration of growth and division rate after the
growth rate reaches a maximum
C. acceleration of growth and division rate after the
growth rate reaches a maximum
D. deceleration of growth and division rate after the
growth rate reaches a minimum

A

A

58
Q

When [S] = 0.1 *KM, the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed
reaction is about:
A. 0.1 * Vmax
B. 0.3 * Vmax
C. 0.5 * Vmax
D. 0.7 * Vmax

A

A

59
Q

β-amylase is
A. endoenzyme
B. exoenzyme
C. saccharifying enzyme
D. both (b) and (c)

A

D

60
Q

Juice clarification extraction is facilitated by using
A. cellulases
B. amylase
C. inulinase
D. lactase

A

A

61
Q

Lysozyme is naturally present in
A. egg white
B. bacteria
C. tears & milk
D. all of these

A

D

62
Q

Enzymes act as antimicrobials
A. by depriving an organism of a necessary metabolite
B. by generating a substances toxic to the organism
C. by attracting a cell wall component
D. all of the above

A

D

63
Q

Trichoderma β-glucanase is reported
A. to stabilize mashing
B. to convert taste fractions of dextrins to fermentable
sugars in beer
C. to convert starch to dextrin
D. all of the above

A

A

64
Q

The bitter taste of the high protein materials is reduced by using
A. invertase
B. dectinase
C. protease
D. none of these

A

C

65
Q

Sulphydryl oxidase is used for
A. discoloration
B. clarification of images
C. UHT milk off flavour removal
D. all of these

A

C

66
Q

α-amylase is an endo enzyme which requires
A. Ca
B. Cu
C. Mn
D. None of these

A

A

67
Q

Liquefaction of starch to dextrin is carried out by
A. α-amylase
B. cellulase
C. pectinase
D. all of these

A

A

68
Q

Which is true about rennet?
A. It is a mixture of protease chymosin and pepsin
B. It is a mixture of rennin and pepsin
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above

A

C

69
Q

Milk digestibility is improved by using
A. RNase
B. lactase
C. β-amylase
D. none of these

A

B

70
Q

Which of the following mainly serve to convert starch into high
fructose corn syrup (HFCS)?
A. α-amylase
B. Gluco-isomerase
C. Gluco-amylase
D. all of these

A

D

71
Q

Lysozyme
A. catalyses hydrolysis of β-1-4 linkages between N
acetyl muranic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine in
peptideoglycan
B. catalyses hydrolysis of α-1-4 linkages between N
acetyl muranic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine in
peptideoglycan
C. catalyses hydrolysis of α-1-4 linkages between N
diacetyl muranic acid and N-diacetyl glucosamine in
peptideoglycan
D. all of the above

A

A

72
Q

Hersperidinase is used for
A. juice clarification
B. juice debittering
C. off flavour reduction
D. RNA reduction in fish

A

A

73
Q

Which of the following metallic ion is there in ascorbic acid
oxidase?
A. Mg
B. Fe
C. Cu
D. Mn

A

C

74
Q

Which of the enzyme combination is commercially used for the
removal of oxygen?
A. Glucose oxidase-cellulase
B. Glucose oxidase-catalase
C. Glucose oxidase-lactase
D. All of these

A

B

75
Q

The enzyme used to reduce bitterness of grapes commonly
contains
A. α-L-rhamonosidase
B. β-d-glucosidase
C. β- galactosidase
D. both (a) and (b)

A

D

76
Q

Citrus juice debittering can be carried out using
A. limoninase
B. inulinase
C. anthocyanase
D. None of these

A

A

77
Q

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for causing
vitamin B deficiency disease beriberi?
A. Ascorbic acid oxidase
B. Thiaminase
C. Lipoxygenase
D. None of these

A

B

78
Q

Soya off flavour removal may be achieved using
A. di acetyl reductase
B. β- amylase
C. aldehyde oxidase
D. protease

A

C

79
Q

The reduction in off flavour of beer is practiced through
A. hersperidinase
B. rnase
C. invertase
D. diacetyl reductase

A

D

80
Q

Discoloration can be achieved by using
A. sulphloydryl oxidase
B. proteases
C. anthocyanase
D. all of these

A

C

81
Q

In the accelerated phase, cell starts to
A. increase and the division rate increases to reach a
maximum
B. decrease and the division rate increases to reach a
maximum
C. increase and the division rate decreases to reach a
maximum
D. increase and the division rate increases to reach a
minimum

A

A

82
Q

The prosthetic group present in phenolase enzyme is
A. Mg
B. Cu
C. Ca
D. Fe

A

B

83
Q

Enzymes degrade, alter or synthesize a food component
through
A. oxidation/reduction/isomerization
B. hydrolysis/synthesis
C. group transfer
D. all of the above

A

D

84
Q

The enzyme β-galactosidase is also known as
A. lactase
B. EC3.2.1.23
C. both (a) and (b)
D. isomerase

A

C

85
Q

Chymosin hydrolyses the bond between
A. Alanine and glycine
B. Phenyl alanine and methonine
C. Glutamic acid and alanine
D. Alanine and phenyl alanine

A

B

86
Q

The function of the disengagement zone in an airlift fermenter is
to
A. prevent CO2 rich bubbles from entering the downcomer
B. reduce the velocity of the bubbles
C. reduce liquid loss as aerosols
D. all of the above

A

D

87
Q

The monod model predicts that the specific growth rate
A. will increase with the concentration of the growth
limiting substrate until it reaches a maximum value
B. will decrease with the concentration of the growth
limiting substrate
C. will increase with the concentration of the growth
limiting substrate
D. does not depend on growth limiting substrate

A

A

88
Q

A mixed fermentation is one, which produces
A. both alcohol and carbon dioxide
B. both acid and carbon dioxide
C. both acid and alcohol
D. several different kinds of acid

A

C

89
Q

The function of a mechanical seal is to
A. prevent contaminants entering the reactor
B. prevent cells from leaving the reactor
C. both (a) and (b)
D. prevent air to enter

A

C

90
Q

The phenomenon in which substrates are used in a sequential
manner is known as
A. trans-substrate genesis
B. dialism
C. diauxie
D. multiplicity

A

C

91
Q

The dilution rate, D is defined as(where F = volumetric flow
rate, VR = total volume of culture in the reactor and μ specific
growth rate)
A. F/VR
B. VR/F
C. μ/F
D. F/μ

A

A

92
Q

Diauxie is
A. growth factors
B. microbiological die off
C. the simultaneous uptake of nutrients
D. the stagewise uptake of nutrients

A

D

93
Q

The maximum specific growth rate of an organism depends on
A. medium composition
B. temperature
C. pH
D. All of these

A

D

94
Q

An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by
adding a nutrient (present in limiting quantities) at the same rate
as that medium containing micro-organisms is removed is called
A. manostat
B. chemostat
C. turbidostat
D. culturostat

A

B

95
Q

In the death phase
A. nutrients available for the cells are depleted and begin
to die
B. the number of viable cells will increase
C. nutrients available for cells are replenished and start to
multiply
D. none of the above

A

A

96
Q

Which of the following is not correct for the Monod model and
the Michaelis Menten Model?
A. The Michaelis Menten Model was derived from a curve
fitting exercise
B. The Michaelis Menten model was derived from an
analysis of the mechanism of microbial growth
C. The Monod model was derived from an analysis of the
mechanism of microbial growth
D. All of the above

A

C

97
Q

Bubble column reactor has
A. large height to diameter ratio
B. small height to diameter ratio
C. large diameter to height ratio
D. small diameter to height ratio

A

A

98
Q

Why a T-flask used in small-scale cell culture is incubated in a
horizontal position?
A. To save space
B. To increase the surface area of the liquid-air interface
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. To increase the rate of oxygen transfer into the liquid

A

C

99
Q

An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by the
removal and addition of media at such a rate as to maintain a
constant cell density is called a
A. manostat
B. chemostat
C. turbidostat
D. culturostat

A

C

100
Q

Wash out in steady state fermentation occurs when
A. dilution rate is less than maximum specific growth rate
B. dilution rate is higher than the maximum specific
growth rate
C. cell concentration reaches the maximum
D. specific growth rate is maximum

A

B

101
Q

Fermentor should be filled with medium upto
A. 65-70%
B. 70-75%
C. 75-80%
D. 80-85%

A

C

102
Q

Bacterial growth curve is obtained by plotting
A. number of cells versus time
B. number fo spores versus time
C. log of number of cells versus time
D. log of number of cells survived versus time

A

C

103
Q

When intracellular enzymes of whole cells are to be used in a
bio-conversion process, it is often necessary
to____________the cells.
A. permeabilize
B. lyophilize
C. heat-kill
D. denature

A

A

104
Q

Heat transfer rates (per unit volume) will be lowest in
A. Stirred tank bioreactor with biomass recycle
B. Continuous air lift bioreactor
C. Continuous packed bed reactor
D. Continuous fluidized bed bioreactor

A

C

105
Q

The function(s) of the draft tube in an airlift bioreactor is
A. to reduce bubble coalescence
B. to improve circulation
C. to even out shear conditions throughout the reactor
D. all of the above

A

D

106
Q

The Monod Model relates
A. substrate utilized with the biomass consumption
B. specific growth rate to the substrate availability
C. yield with the biomass utilization
D. the biomass concentration with specific growth rate

A

B

107
Q

The height to diameter ratio (H/D) for the column fermenters is
A. <3
B. >3
C. <1.5
D. >1.5

A

B

108
Q

The high oxygen transfer efficiencies of airlift bioreactors is due
to
A. the large aspect ratio of the reactor, which leads to a
high gas hold-up
B. the large aspect ratio of the reactor, which leads to a
high oxygen solubility at the base of the reactor
C. the draft tube, which reduces bubble coalescence in
the reactor
D. all of the above

A

D

109
Q

The maximum specific growth rate (μm) of an organism in batch
culture is equal to slope of a plot of
A. In [biomass] against time for exponential phase data
only
B. In [biomass] against time
C. biomass against time
D. biomass against time for stationary phase data only

A

A

110
Q

The region of an airlift bioreactor in which the liquid travels in a
downward direction is called the
A. downcomer
B. disengagement zone
C. air riser
D. flotsam

A

A

111
Q

Population doubling time, td can be expressed as (where μ is
the specific growth rate.)
A. log2/μ
B. ln2/μ
C. μ/ln2
D. μ/log2

A

B

112
Q

A higher Ks value of Monod’s equation means
A. greater affinities to substrate
B. lower affinities to substrate
C. unaffected with the substrate bonding
D. lower dissociation constant value

A

A

113
Q

The increased air flow rate in bubble column fermenter can
cause excessive foaming and high retention of air bubbles in the
column which
A. decreases the productivity of the fermenter
B. increases the productivity of the fermenter
C. modestly increases the productivity of the fermenter
D. does not affect on the productivity

A

A

114
Q

Which of the following is correct for the prediction of time
requirement in a batch fermenter?
A. Carrying out experiments
B. Mathematical modelling of the fermentation process
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. It is impossible to predict the time required for
fermentation

A

C

115
Q

In an airlift bioreactor, the spent gases released from the liquid
are called
A. downcomer
B. disengagement zone
C. air riser
D. flotsam

A

B

h trfs (13 decks)

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