BC CLASS #7 - Week of 121618Comm Man. Chap#10, FFP–Taxpayers,AUC#266,268,274,276&285,Dunn Chap15&16,Regs Chap.#17,23,SB #56,BISP Merc Guide Ref.3.1, 3.2DC Pat Sheridan

Question 1

1. Although the term “Taxpayer” is not recognized in the building code, there are three broad categories of taxpayers. Which one is described correctly? (Sec. 2.2, 2.3.1, 2.3.2, 2.3.3)(A) The older type of taxpayers, built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s, are all of Class 3 construction and have masonry exteriors.(B) In the older type of taxpayer, a decorative metal cornice will be found in the front, and the supports will be weakened and fall if there is any fire in the cockloft.(C) Metal cornices found in the front of taxpayers constructed from the turn of the century until the 1920’s can be removed to provide access to the cockloft area.(D) The most prevalent type of taxpayer, built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s, may have cornices of the façade type or signs in the front of the building. Removing the cornice or sign will usually provide access to the cockloft area.(E) The newer type of taxpayer, built since the 1960’s, rely on increased combustible construction, mainly wooden I-beams used to support the roof.

Answer 1

1. C2.3.1 The older type built from the turn of the century until the 1920’s. This type is usually one story in height but there are some that have two stories. Some of theolder structures have partitions, girders, beams, and columns of wood and may be considered wood frame buildings although most have masonry exteriors.When there is a heavy fire in the front of the building, the supports of these cornices can be weakened and the cornice can fall to the ground unexpectedly.2.3.2 The most prevalent type built from the 1920’s into the 1960’s. Cornices, of the facade type, and signs are often attached to the front of the building outside off the brick walls. Removing the cornice or sign in most cases will not provide access to the cockloft area.2.3.3 The newer type construction built since the 1960’s. These contain the same type of occupancies and the structural features will be similar to the previous types except that the use of combustible construction material has been reduced. In many of these buildings the difference will be the steel bar joists that are used to support the floors and roof in place of wood beams.

Question 2

2. While responding at 0300 hours as the 1st Battalion Chief to a 10-75 for a fire in a taxpayer, you remark to your aide that you hope there are sprinklers present. You would not expect to find sprinkler protection if the fire building was found in which choice? (Sec. 2.5.1, Mercantile Guide p. 12-16)(A) Built in 1943 and the building is 75’x100’(B) Built in 1975 and the building is 80’x100’(C) Built in 2011 and the one story building dimensions are 125’x125’(D) Built in 2012 and the three story building dimensions are 125’x200’(E) Built in 2013 and the one story building dimensions are 80’x100 with the stock stored in high-piled racks.

Answer 2

2. ARules for sprinkler protection:1938 Code Area exceeding 10,000 square feet.1968 Code Area exceeding 7,500 square feet.2008 Code-Group M-Mercantile FULL BUILDING-Area exceeding 12,000 square feet OR the combined area on all floors including mezzanines exceeds 24,000square feet. (BC 903.2.6)Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racksor rack storage arrays (BC 903.2.6.1)OCCUPANCY WITHIN BUILDING-Areaexceeding 7,500 square feet OR area of anysize is located 3 stories above grade OR areaof any size is located in a High Rise buildingOR area of any size contains an unenclosedstair or escalator connecting two or morefloors. (BC 903.2.6.2)

Question 3

3. There are various types of roofs and roof support systems found in taxpayers. It is very important for the Incident Commander (IC) to obtain this information at a taxpayer fire. Which choice correctly describes these features? (Sec. 3.3.1, 3.3.3)(A) The most common type of roof on taxpayers is plywood supported by open web joist or steel bar joist. These joists are supported at approximately 20 foot intervals.(B) Updated calculations have revealed that the wooden bowstring truss may only support 60% of the load they were originally designed to hold.(C) Snow that drifts due to the wind can be significantly deeper in one area, especially behind raised parapet walls on bowstring truss roofs. This eccentric (off-center), unbalanced, concentrated load, can create an overload on the trusses.(D) In the older type of wooden bowstring trusses, the trusses may be spaced up to 60 feet apart.(E) Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have fire resistance ratings of 5 to 10 minutes.

Answer 3

3. C3.3.1 There are many types of roofs on taxpayers but the most common is constructed of wood joists covered with either tongue and groove boards or plywood. Theroof is then covered with combustible waterproofing material commonly called “tarpaper” or “built up roofing” which may be several layers thick. Sometimes a layer of tin is found under the tarpaper in old taxpayers. The roof joists may be supported at approximately 20-foot intervals, by exterior brick bearing walls, interior load bearing studded partitions, wood or steel girders supported by steel lally columns or wood columns. The roof may have skylights and scuttle openings, signs, air conditioners and heating units. (See Fig. 6)Updated calculations have revealed that bowstring truss roofs may only support 40% of the load they were originally designed to hold.I. In older type truss roof buildings, the trusses may be spaced 10 or 20 feet apart with roof beams installed between the trusses to support the roofcoverings.A. Open web steel joists, found in modern taxpayer construction, have no fire resistance rating. Fire rating depends upon the ceiling finish and finishNote: See section 5.5.26 for operational procedures in structures with open web steel joist roof support systems.roofing.

Question 4

4. While attending the BC Command Course, a newly promoted BC is listening to a presentation on construction features found in taxpayers. Which statement should be corrected? (Glossary, Sec. 3.5.1, 3.6.1, 3.6.2, 3.6.4, 3.7.1)(A) Canopies and marquees that are cantilevered over the sidewalk can act as a lever on the parapet wall pulling down a long section of it. Although a marquee is not supported by posts or columns, it is required to have drainage facilities.(B) Steel “I” beams are often built into side or rear masonry walls, of butt the front parapet wall, where they are supported by masonry piers or iron columns. An average 50 foot steel beam heated uniformly over its length to 970 degrees Fahrenheit will extend in length approximately 4 inches.(C) When steel “I” beams are heated from 1000 to 1500 degrees Fahrenheit, their yield strength drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. After 5 to 10 minutes at a fire, these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitation.(D) Cooling a steel member will cause it to regain its strength and load carrying ability. If a steel beam has already sagged under the weight of the floors or roof, cooling the steel will contract it to its original length.(E) Cast iron columns fail on the average in about 30 minutes in fire endurance tests.

Answer 4

4. C3.6.3 When these steel beams are heated from 1000 F to 1500 F, their yield strength drops dramatically and they start to soften and fail. This temperature can bereached in five to ten minutes at a fire and it is only a matter of time at an uncontrolled fire (thirty minutes for the smaller beam sections), until these beams can be heated beyond their strength limitations.

Question 5

5. Collapse is one of the major concerns of the IC at a fire in a taxpayer. The IC would consider all of the following with the exception of which choice as warning signs of impending collapse? (Sec. 3.9.4, 3.13.2, 4.2.5)(A) Collapse of the first floor due to the extensive cellars commonly found in the new type of taxpayers.(B) A heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 minutes or more, particularly in a large open floor area.(C) Sagging or bulging walls. One cubic foot of brickwork weighs about 100 pounds.(D) Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into the operation at the fire.

Answer 5

5. AAnswer A. Many of the newer type of taxpayers are built on a concrete slab foundation, which removes a major problem of cellar and basement fires.

Question 6

6. At 0400 hours, you respond to a reported fire in a 1 story taxpayer divided into five separate occupancies. You arrive on scene and see heavy black smoke pushing from underneath a roll down gate in a pizzeria, which is in the middle of the row of stores. There is no Engine Company on scene, and the first arriving Ladder Company is beginning to cut the roll down gates as the Roof FF is ascending a portable ladder placed to the roof. Which of the following would be an incorrect tactic to take? (Sec. 4.4.1, 4.5.2, 5.1.5, 5.4.2, 5.5.26)(A) You ordered the 1st Ladder Company to wait until the Roof FF cut the roof over the pizzeria before opening the door to the pizzeria.(B) You informed the 1st Ladder Company that performing vertical ventilation before an Engine Company is on scene will not increase the intensity of the fire, unless horizontal ventilation is also performed.(C) After the Roof FF informed you via HT that there was a skylight on the gypsum plank roof, you ordered the Roof FF to evacuate the roof immediately before breaking the skylight. You then ordered the 1st arriving Engine Company that was arriving at the Command Post to discharge their hoseline into the pizzeria as soon as forcible entry was performed.(D) You informed the 1st Ladder Company that if 25% of the pizzeria occupancy contains the mixture conducive to backdrafts, the entire pizzeria may explode if oxygen is introduced into the environment.

Answer 6

6. BNote: It must be understood that ventilation will increase the intensity of the fire if it is not carefully coordinated with engine hoseline operations.

Question 7

7. While supervising roof cutting operations, the Roof Sector Supervisor notifies you that the roof is an inverted roof, and requests additional companies. You would be incorrect in considering which point? (Sec. 5.3.3)(A) Although the inverted roof may be pitched from the front to the rear, front and rear to the center, or from the front rear and sides to the center, in most cases the high portion of the cockloft is at the front of the building.(B) If the fire enters the cockloft at the high point or front of the building, the fire problem is less severe than if it has entered into the cockloft at the rear.(C) Since most fires originate in the front of the cellar where stock is often stored near conveyor chutes, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft.(D) The standard (flat) roof may have little or no pitch. If it is pitched, it will be from the front to the rear.

Answer 7

7. CC. Since most fires originate in the rear of the first floor where utilities, storage, and services are located, this is the area from which the fire usually extends to the cockloft. Generally, this is the lowest portion of thecockloft. The pitch of the roof (front to rear) allows the fire to spread rapidly to the higher cockloft area.

Question 8

Answer Questions 8 - 10 based on the following:At 0100 hours, you are working in Battalion 30 and respond as the first BC to a fire in a taxpayer type building with 8 occupancies. Upon arrival, the Roof FF from Ladder 100 informs you via HT that the roof appears to be a plywood roof supported by wood joists, and there is heavy fire in the cockloft. You transmit a 2nd alarm, and begin your size-up.8. Due to the severity of the fire in the cockloft, you recognize the importance of roof operations and consider several points. Which one should be corrected? (Sec. 5.4.12, 5.4.13, 5.4.14, 5.5.20)(A) You assign the Rescue Company Officer as the Roof Sector Supervisor as soon as you arrive on scene.(B) The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof. The Roof Sector Supervisor must be a Battalion Chief when more than one power saw is working on the roof.(C) The 1st Arriving Engine Officer, a newly promoted Lt., was correct to call for two additional Ladder Companies immediately upon arrival.(D) After determining that roof cutting is critical, you order the 1st Battalion Chief assigned on the 2nd alarm to report to the roof to become the Roof Sector Supervisor.

Answer 8

8. B5.4.12 The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof. Additional staffing with properequipment should be assigned to this position as soon as possible. A Roof Sector Supervisor must supervise roof operations when more than one power saw is working on the roof.5.4.14 A Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could be a chief or company officer as designated by the IC.

Question 9

Answer Questions 8 - 10 based on the following:At 0100 hours, you are working in Battalion 30 and respond as the first BC to a fire in a taxpayer type building with 8 occupancies. Upon arrival, the Roof FF from Ladder 100 informs you via HT that the roof appears to be a plywood roof supported by wood joists, and there is heavy fire in the cockloft. You transmit a 2nd alarm, and begin your size-up.9. While considering the responsibilities of the Roof Sector Supervisor you have several thoughts. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 5.4.9, 5.6.4(A) At times, as the roof cut is made and pulled, members may be driven back by the heat or fire and be unable to complete the opening. If this occurs, additional openings must be started and completed. The Roof Sector Supervisor may choose the new locations based on their size-up without approval of the IC.(B) If the Roof Sector Supervisor determines that a trench cut is needed, they must make immediate notification to the IC and receive approval before the trench cut is started.(C) At times, as the roof cut is made and pulled, members may be driven back by the heat or fire and be unable to complete the opening. If this occurs, additional openings must be started and completed. The Roof Sector Supervisor may choose the new locations based on orders from the IC.(D) The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the IC is mandatory.

Answer 9

9. B5.6.4 The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the Incident Commander of the operation is mandatory.

Question 10

10. After the fire is successfully extinguished, you discuss tactics with the Fire Sector Supervisor. After stressing that nothing affects the outcome of an operation as much as ventilation at a taxpayer fire, you make several other statements. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 5.5.1, 5.5.14, 5.5.15,(A) The key to ventilation is the cutting and pulling procedures used to provide the necessary escape for the fire, heat, smoke and gases. Trenching is also an important factor, but in most cases not to the degree of the ventilation cuts.(B) It cannot be assumed, once an initial determination is made on the run of joists, that all joists throughout the same building run the same. In most cases joists will run in the same direction, but there are exceptions.(C) When rear extensions were added to taxpayers, it was not unusual to utilize a larger girder to tie the older sections in with the newer section. This at times makes the rear portion of the added roof higher than the older portion(D) At cellar fires, it is often necessary to cut the first floor to provide the necessary means of ventilation. The cut should be made as near to the windows and doorways as possible, and sometimes made in the aisles if it is under a skylight.(E) At times due to intense heat, smoke, or a lack of horizontal ventilation, the roof must be opened over the ventilation holes on the first floor. This tactic can be used if members are operating on the first floor or cellar.

Answer 10

10. DThe cut should be made as near to the windows as possible and away from doorways and aisles. When the run of the floor joists has been established, the cut should be extended at right angles to the joists. Thisprovides additional cellar ventilation, maximum ventilation of the bays between joists and access points for streams

Question 11

11. With increased knowledge regarding bowstring truss roof construction, a cautious approach must be adapted, regardless of the fire area. The IC may implement an interior attack after a risk assessment has been performed based on which one of the following factors? (Sec. 5.5.25)(A) Structural stability of the building determined at the last BI inspection.(B) Any known or suspected life hazard.(C) Size and location of the fire.(D) Potential of safe access to fire area.

Answer 11

11. C Current structural stability of the building. Any known life hazard. Size and location of the fire. Verification of safe access to fire area.Acronym: CAVS

Question 12

12. In which of the following choices are proper guidelines being followed? (Sec. 5.5.25)(A) Members are prohibited from operating on the roof of a content fire in a building with a metal bowstring truss.(B) Interior operations are prohibited at a fire in a vacant buildings with bowstring truss roof construction.(C) At a large fire where the timber truss is involved, interior operations are not permitted(D) At an advanced fire where the underside of the roof is involved, interior operations are prohibited.

Answer 12

12. ANote: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design.B. At vacant buildings with bowstring truss roof construction, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.C. At large and/or advanced fires, or where the timber trusses or the underside of the roof are involved in fire, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.

Question 13

13. In which scenario did a Battalion Chief not show full understanding of FDNY tactics? (Sec. 5.5.25)(A) Members were instructed to use a thermal imaging camera to check the ceiling from below upon entering a building with a bowstring truss in an attic area above the ceiling.(B) Members operating an a tower ladder bucket were instructed to make a triangular cut in the sloping hip section in the front of the roof to determine if fire entered the truss area in a building with a bowstring truss located in an attic area above the ceiling.(C) When members operating from a tower ladder bucket determined that a small fire was involving the truss space above a ceiling, interior operations were immediately discontinued in accordance with FDNY procedures.(D) Members were ordered to operate a hoseline from the roof of an uninvolved occupied building with a bowstring truss roof into an adjoining factory building that was involved in fire.

Answer 13

Answer C. When members operating in a tower ladder bucket make a triangular cut in the sloping hip sections of the FRONT or REAR of the roof and fire is found to involve the truss space, a collapse zone must be adhered to and exterior operations should be the PRIMARY tactical consideration.

Question 14

14. Units are operating at a fire at 123 Town Line Road. The CIDS for the building is as follows:COMMERCIAL – 1 STY 125’x 75’ – CL3LWLIGHTWEIGHT OPEN WEB STEEL ROOF JOIST-GYPSUM PLANK ROOF – TAXPAYER TYPE WITH8 OCCUPANCIESUpon arrival, you see an aerial ladder to the roof and receive several HT transmissions. In which one is a proper understanding of FDNY tactics displayed? (Sec. 5.5.26)(A) The Rescue Officer transmits “While cutting the roof we had a white powder emanating from the cut. Cutting operations have stopped and members are quickly venting the skylights and evacuating the roof.”(B) The Roof FF from Ladder 300 transmits “I am not cutting the roof due to the bar joists. I am breaking a window located near the roof line to provide horizontal ventilation and evacuating the roof.”(C) The Officer of Engine 200, the 1st arriving Engine Company transmits “We are making progress on knocking down the fire from the interior using the reach of the stream”.(D) The Officer of Engine 200, the 1st arriving Engine Company transmits “We are conducting operations from the exterior as required due to the presence of the gypsum plank roof covering”.

Answer 14

14. CH. Gypsum concrete decking is of lightweight construction, spans wide spaces and is vulnerable to moisture. These characteristics are conduciveto early collapse under fire conditions. Therefore, members shall not be committed to roof operations. Interior operations shall be conducted fromareas of safety due to the weight of such decking materials (17.5 lbs. per sq. ft.). The presence of a gypsum roof deck will be indicated by a white powdery residue during saw operations. Upon this observation, membersshould immediately notify the Roof Sector Supervisor and IC and evacuate the roof.

Question 15

15. All of the following situations would require the transmission of a 2nd alarm at a Taxpayer fire with the exception of which one? (Sec. 5.7.4)(A) When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store.(B) Extension to the cockloft(C) Extension to an adjoining occupancy.(D) An advanced fire in the cellar.

Answer 15

15. A5.7.4 When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, special call an extra engine and ladder. Transmit a second alarm for extension to the cockloft, adjoining occupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar. The need for additional ladder companies at these operations is great, anticipate such and special call asneeded.

Question 16

Answer Questions 16 - 20 based on the diagram below and the following information:You arrive at 1000 hours on a Wednesday to a medium fire condition in the cellar of the 99 Cent Store, which is one of four occupancies in a 150’x75’ one story Class 3 Taxpayer. The Taxpayer is fully sprinklered, and there is a Siamese on the front of the building. There is an “H type” multiple dwelling adjoining the Taxpayer, separated by a fire wall. The cockloft of the Taxpayer is undivided. Your original assignment on this Box has 3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder Companies, one of which is a Tower Ladder and one rear mount aerial ladder. When the 10-75 was transmitted, the FAST Truck assigned was a rear mount ladder company.

16. Upon arrival, you notice that there is one portable ladder placed to the roof on the exposure 1 side, exposure 2 side and exposure 3 side of the Taxpayer building, and the Tower Ladder is in front of the 99 Cent Store. The Aerial Ladder is set up in front of the Pizza occupancy. Which thought is incorrect? (Sec. 5.7.5, 5.7.6, 5.7.7, 5.7.8, 5.7.14, 8.1.19, 8.2.2)(A) You need at least one additional portable ladder placed in front of the Taxpayer building.(B) Any additional Tower Ladders shall be placed on an adjoining street due to the first two Ladder Companies attainment of proper positioning.(C) If the fire extends to the 1st floor, you should call for an additional Chief Officer to supervise operations on that level.(D) You should establish the Command Post near the front of the building but outside the collapse zone.

Answer 16

16. B8.1.19 Tower ladders should be positioned in front of the building in preference toconventional aerials. Heavy stream appliance is now in position if needed for thefire building or to protect exposures.

Question 17

Answer Questions 16 - 20 based on the diagram below and the following information:You arrive at 1000 hours on a Wednesday to a medium fire condition in the cellar of the 99 Cent Store, which is one of four occupancies in a 150’x75’ one story Class 3 Taxpayer. The Taxpayer is fully sprinklered, and there is a Siamese on the front of the building. There is an “H type” multiple dwelling adjoining the Taxpayer, separated by a fire wall. The cockloft of the Taxpayer is undivided. Your original assignment on this Box has 3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder Companies, one of which is a Tower Ladder and one rear mount aerial ladder. When the 10-75 was transmitted, the FAST Truck assigned was a rear mount ladder company.17. You hear a HT transmission stating that an interior cellar stair has been located, along with an exterior stair to the cellar in the front of the 99 Cent Store. You quickly size-up the Engine Company operations and determine if their tactics are correct. Which one action taken was incorrect? (Sec. 7.1.2, 7.2.2, 7.2.3, 8.1.20)(A) The initial hoselines stretched should be 2 ½”.(B) The first hoseline was stretched through the exterior stair to the cellar of the 99 Cent Store due to it being the quickest route to the fire.(C) The 1st and 2nd Engine Companies may supply the sprinkler system, but the 3rd Engine Company must ensure that the sprinkler system is supplied.(D) As a last resort, the first floor may be flooded with the Stang nozzle or the tower ladder pipe. The tower ladder basket can be positioned a foot or two above the street level.

Answer 17

17. BD. When there is an interior stair to the cellar, especially if it is an open stair, and conditions permit, the first line must be stretched to this point to prevent the spread of fire and to permit operations on the first floor.

Question 18

Answer Questions 16 - 20 based on the diagram below and the following information:You arrive at 1000 hours on a Wednesday to a medium fire condition in the cellar of the 99 Cent Store, which is one of four occupancies in a 150’x75’ one story Class 3 Taxpayer. The Taxpayer is fully sprinklered, and there is a Siamese on the front of the building. There is an “H type” multiple dwelling adjoining the Taxpayer, separated by a fire wall. The cockloft of the Taxpayer is undivided. Your original assignment on this Box has 3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder Companies, one of which is a Tower Ladder and one rear mount aerial ladder. When the 10-75 was transmitted, the FAST Truck assigned was a rear mount ladder company.18. Which Ladder Company operation taken at this fire was incorrect? (Sec. 5.6.5, 8.2.1, 8.2.2)(A) The 1st Ladder Company ventilated the store by taking out the store windows upon the orders of the 1st Ladder Company Officer without receiving permission from the IC.(B) The 2nd Ladder Company Forcible Entry team searched the 1st floor of the 99 Cent Store.(C) The 1st Ladder Company Officer ordered the Roof FF to perform vertical ventilation without consulting with the IC.(D) The Roof FF of the 1st Ladder Company, upon hearing HT transmissions that it appeared doubtful that the cellar fire would be successfully extinguished, notified the Roof Sector Supervisor that extension to the cockloft was possible, and it may be advisable to begin planning a trench cut.

Answer 18

18. BB. Second ladder company to arrive1. Forcible Entry Teama. To adjacent stores and cellar entrances.

Question 19

Answer Questions 16 - 20 based on the diagram below and the following information:You arrive at 1000 hours on a Wednesday to a medium fire condition in the cellar of the 99 Cent Store, which is one of four occupancies in a 150’x75’ one story Class 3 Taxpayer. The Taxpayer is fully sprinklered, and there is a Siamese on the front of the building. There is an “H type” multiple dwelling adjoining the Taxpayer, separated by a fire wall. The cockloft of the Taxpayer is undivided. Your original assignment on this Box has 3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder Companies, one of which is a Tower Ladder and one rear mount aerial ladder. When the 10-75 was transmitted, the FAST Truck assigned was a rear mount ladder company.19. While members are extinguishing the fire in the 99 Cent Store, you hear HT transmissions stating that there is a heavy smoke condition in the “H type” building and the Deli. What would be a proper way of identifying these buildings/occupancies? (Comm. Manual Ch. 10, Add. 2 Sec. 7.2, 7.3, 10, 10.1)(A) The Deli can be identified as Exposure 2-OA, and the “H type” building as Exposure 4.(B) The Deli can be identified as Exposure O-2A, the Deli Sector.(C) The Deli can be identified as Exposure 2, and the “H type” building as Exposure O4.(D) The Deli can be identified as Exposure 2-OA, the Deli Sector.

Answer 19

19. B

Question 20

Answer Questions 16 - 20 based on the diagram below and the following information:You arrive at 1000 hours on a Wednesday to a medium fire condition in the cellar of the 99 Cent Store, which is one of four occupancies in a 150’x75’ one story Class 3 Taxpayer. The Taxpayer is fully sprinklered, and there is a Siamese on the front of the building. There is an “H type” multiple dwelling adjoining the Taxpayer, separated by a fire wall. The cockloft of the Taxpayer is undivided. Your original assignment on this Box has 3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder Companies, one of which is a Tower Ladder and one rear mount aerial ladder. When the 10-75 was transmitted, the FAST Truck assigned was a rear mount ladder company.20. Using the same diagram from above, if the fire building was the “H type” building, how would the 99 Cent Store be designated using exposure identification? (Comm. Manual Ch. 10 Add 2 Sec. 8)(A) 2B(B) 2(C) 2-OA(D) O-2B

Answer 20

20. C8. Illustration #5 depicts a fire that originated in the “H” building and has extended to theleft into the taxpayer. It has advanced down the row of stores to the third store andthreatens the fourth store. The “H” type building is identified as “O”, the taxpayer isexposure “2” and the first store or subdivision of the taxpayer is identified as “2-0”. The”2” indicates the first building on the left; the “O” following a number indicates that weare now referring to a subdivision. The second store is “2-OA”, the third store is “2-OB”,the fourth is “2-OC”, the fifth is “2-OD”, the sixth is “2-OE”. The next building is aseparate building, not part of the taxpayer and is identified as exposure “2A”, then “2B”,etc. The buildings opposite the fire building represent exposure “1” because either theseparation is thirty feet or less or the intense fire creates an exposure problem.

Question 21

21. Which choice is correct concerning cockloft fires in a Taxpayer? (Sec. 3.2.1, 7.1.8, 7.3.3, 7.3.5)(A) The cockloft usually extends over all of the stores in the building and is 2-3 feet high.(B) Hoselines may not be operated directly into roof openings.(C) The IC shall order a handline with a cockloft nozzle into the interior to knockdown the fire in the cockloft.(D) A hoseline may not be operated into a trench cut.(E) The first Engine Company must always stretch the 1st hoseline into the store under the main body of fire.

Answer 21

21. C3.2.1 The cockloft is the space above the finished ceiling and the underside of the roof sheathing. It usually is a common area extending over all the stores in the structure and can vary in height from four inches to more than six feet.7.1.8 In many cases where entry is delayed or where the pulling of ceilings is impossible due to fire conditions or ceiling construction, a hoseline or lines operated properly into a trench cut may confine the fire. Before these lines are operated all members in the stores must be withdrawn. As soon as interior operations can be resumed these lines must be shut down before entry into the area below. Small holes should be made in the ceiling to check for accumulations of water above the ceiling before interior operations are commenced.Note: The Engine Company officer shall announce via the handi-talkie when the initial hoseline attack is to commence. Conditions in areas behind, adjoining or above the operating hoseline must be monitoredfor sudden possible deterioration due to the effects of hoseline advancement on the fire. All members must be alert to fireground communications concerning hoseline placement and the commencement of hoseline operations so that they may seek refuge if necessary.First engine company: - When fire has control of the cockloft and the need for exposure protection is critical, position the engine to utilize the deckpipe. In-line pumping will give good positioning and allow room forplacement of a tower ladder.1. Stretch a handline into the most seriously exposedoccupancy/building, depending on life hazard and the location and severity of the fire.2. Refer to Section 7.1.2 and 7.1.4 for hose sizes and operating procedures.3. When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the first line should be stretched into the store under the main body of fire and operated to extinguish the fire.First engine company: - When fire has control of the cockloft and the need for exposure protection is critical, position the engine to utilize the deckpipe. In-line pumping will give good positioning and allow room forplacement of a tower ladder.1. Stretch a handline into the most seriously exposedoccupancy/building, depending on life hazard and the location and severity of the fire.2. Refer to Section 7.1.2 and 7.1.4 for hose sizes and operating procedures.3. When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the first line should be stretched into the store under the main body of fire andoperated to extinguish the fire.

Question 22

1. The proper transmission of a Preliminary Report is a very important duty of the Incident Commander. Which choice is incorrect concerning Preliminary Reports? (Sec. 10.3.2, 10.4.1, Add. 1 Sec. 2.2)(A) Within 5 minutes of arrival, the IC shall transmit a Preliminary Report which includes the existing conditions, the number of companies operating, and status of all hoselines.(B) When reporting the status of hoselines in the Preliminary Report, the location of operating hoselines and hoselines that are being stretched shall be included. Any problems with water supply and corrective actions taken shall also be reported.(C) The Preliminary Report may be the final report provided that less than two engines and two ladder companies are at work, and all other units assigned on the alarm are in service.(D) A description of the exposures is never required in a Preliminary Report, rather a thorough description will be included in all Progress Reports.

Answer 22

1. DNote: When two engines and two ladder companies, or any combination of units above this amount are used, the preliminary report shall contain a complete descriptionof the exposures. The description of exposures need only be given once; however if a revision is necessary or the fire extends and exposes a new property, then anupdated description should be given.

Question 23

2. Which one of the following choices incorrectly describes when Progress Reports are required? (Sec. 10.3.2)(A) When two engine companies and two ladder companies are operating.(B) When all first alarm units are operating.(C) Within 5 minutes of the Preliminary Report, a Progress Report is required. Additional Progress Reports shall be transmitted every 15 minutes thereafter.(D) When a significant change has occurred.(E) When a greater alarm has been transmitted.

Answer 23

2. CF. Additional Progress Reports shall be transmitted every ten minutes for the first hour and every fifteen minutes thereafter. If a report of hoselines operating on the fire is not received during the preliminary report, the IC shall update the status of all hoselines on every progress report until a line is operating on the fire.

Question 24

3. Upon arrival at a fire in a Private Dwelling, BC Smith of B-333 transmitted the All-Hands signal followed by a Preliminary Report. In accordance with FDNY procedures, BC Smith transmitted several Progress Reports in a timely manner. Which Progress Report was correct? (Sec. 10.4.2, 10.5.3)(A) BC Smith included a description of the fire building only in the 1st Progress Report.(B) The status of all hoselines stretched shall be included in the Progress Reports.(C) The results of primary and secondary searches must be included in the 1st Progress Report.(D) The description of the exposures is required in all Progress Reports other than the 1st Progress Report

Answer 24

3. D10.5.3 The description of exposures only needs to be given once. If a revision is necessary or the fire extends and exposes a new property, an updated descriptionshould be given.

Question 25

4. A Battalion Chief would show an improper understanding of the terms used to describe the appraisal of probable results to control the situation in which choice? (Sec. 10.4.2, 10.4.3, 10.44, 10.4.5)(A) Doubtful indicates that a fluid, still developing situation exists. The term “Doubtful” shall be used on the first Progress Report only.(B) “Probably Will Hold” indicates that in the judgement of the Incident Commander there is enough apparatus, equipment and personnel to contain the fire or emergency. However, if an unknown, unusual or unpredictable condition develops, additional help may be required, but the fire will not develop to critical or uncontrollable proportions.(C) “Under Control” indicates that at that time, in the judgement of the Incident Commander, final extinguishment of the fire or control of the emergency will be accomplished by the apparatus, equipment and personnel on the scene.(D) All searches, including secondary searches, must be completed before the fire can be placed “Under Control”.

Answer 25

4. D

Question 26

5. A Battalion Chief conducting a drill would be incorrect in making which point? (Sec. 10.4.8, 10.4.9, 10.4.10, 10.4.11, 10.4.12)(A) A Light Fire Situation can be extinguished by one hoseline, hand extinguishers, or without extinguishing agents.(B) A Medium Fire Situation may be extinguished with the operation of two hoselines. The description of a Medium Fire Situation requires the location, volume and direction of travel of fire.(C) Precautionary hoselines may be stretched in Light, Medium, and Heavy fire situations, but are not required to be included in Progress Reports.(D) A Heavy Fire Situation indicates a fire that will require the operation of more than two hoselines or the use of hoselines in conjunction with the use of heavy appliances.

Answer 26

5. CPrecautionary hoselines may be stretched in Light and Medium Fire situations and shall be reported in Progress Reports.

Question 27

6. Which statement concerning conditions included in Progress Report is incorrect? (Sec. 10.4.12, 10.4.14, 10.5)(A) It is not mandatory to report smoke conditions. If the volume of smoke is unusual or the smoke is presenting a problem to the fire fighting force, it should be included.(B) Units that are performing activities that allow them to remain intact and available for duties as ordered by the IC shall be considered as “Standing Fast”.(C) Exposure Hazard is the probability that a building will be exposed to the danger of ignition from a fire in an adjoining property.(D) Auto Exposure is the extension of fire via the interior or exterior of a building from a fire originating in the same, adjoining, or nearby building.

Answer 27

6. D10.5.2 Auto Exposure: The extension of fire via the exterior of a building from a fire originating in the same building.

Question 28

1. DC Walker informs you that a member assigned to Ladder 100, a unit in your Battalion, is requesting Emergency Leave, and requests you to investigate. Which action taken was incorrect? (Sec. 17.4.1, 17.4.2)(A) You ensured that it was the spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of the member who had a serious illness requiring the Emergency Leave.(B) You called Ladder 100 via telephone to perform the investigation and order the member requesting the leave to obtain a written statement from the attending physician rather than visit Ladder 100 personally.(C) Upon completion of the investigation, you telephoned the pertinent information to DC Walker.(D) After calling DC Walker, you completed and forwarded the BP-603 Emergency Leave Request to the Bureau of Personnel.

Answer 28

1. DBattalion Chiefs investigating emergency leaves shall telephone all pertinent information to the Deputy Chiefgranting such leaves. Deputy Chiefs shall forward BP-603, Emergency Leave Request, with documentation to the Bureau of Personnel.

Question 29

2. Which choice is incorrect concerning Vacation Leave? (Sec. 17.1.6, 17.7.10, 17.7.11, 17.7.14, PA/ID 1-90 Sec. 8.10)(A) When a Firefighter who submitted a form BP-606 to request to carryover unused Vacation Leave returns to any form of duty, the Commanding Officer shall confer with the Battalion Chief and place the member on vacation leave as soon as practicable, if time remaining in the calendar year permits.(B) A member assigned Light Duty, as a result of a non-Line of Duty injury or illness, is not required to take assigned vacation while on such duty.(C) When Firefighters have had their vacation leave carried over to the succeeding year, and they return to full duty, the Company Commander shall confer with the Battalion Commander and place the member on vacation as soon as practicable.(D) Firefighters may submit mutual exchange of vacation leaves to their Battalion Commanders for approval.(E) Members, while on vacation leave, shall not be permitted to work extra tours or partial tours of duty, except RSOT tours under certain circumstances.

Answer 29

2. BMembers assigned Light Duty, as a result of a Line of Duty injury or illness, are not required to take assigned vacation while on such duty.

Question 30

3. Which choice illustrates an incorrect action to take when a member is absent without leave (AWOL)? (Sec. 17.11.2, 17.11.3)(A) If a member is unable to report for duty at the required time, the member shall notify the Officer on Duty in their unit by telephone. The Officer shall promptly notify the Battalion Chief.(B) If a member is AWOL and has not reported for duty or communicated with their Officer, Battalion Chiefs shall, after a period of 30 minutes, notify the BC of the administrative district where the member lives.(C) A BC tasked with investigating an AWOL member shall perform an investigation via telephone. If the BC is able to contact the member, and the member refuses to report for duty, the BC shall immediately contact the BC in the members assigned Battalion.(D) A BC tasked with investigating an AWOL member shall telephone the results of the investigation to the BC who caused the investigation, followed by reports to such Officer and the Bureau of Personnel.

Answer 30

3. CIn the event such member is unable or refuses to report for duty, the battalion chief shall notify the medical officer on emergency duty, and order member to remain at the location until arrival of such medical officer, unless immediate hospitalization is required.

Question 31

4. At a 2nd alarm in the Bronx, two workers are rescued from a cellar storage area by the Lt. and Extinguisher FF from L-200. It is decided that a Meritorious Act Recommendation will be forwarded for the Lt. and FF from L-200. Who is responsible for preparing the BP-166 Report of Meritorious Act? (Sec. 23.2.1)(A) The BC responsible for the fire report will prepare the BP-166 for the Lt. only. The Lt. in L-200 will prepare the BP-166 for the Extinguisher FF.(B) The DC who responded will prepare the BP-166 for both the Lt. and FF.(C) The BC responsible for the fire report will prepare the BP-166 for both the Lt. and FF.(D) The Fire Sector Supervisor who was supervising operations in the cellar storage area is responsible for preparing the BP-166 for the Lt. and FF.

Answer 31

4. AUpon return to quarters, reports of meritorious acts, embracing all pertinent information, shall be promptly prepared, signed and forwarded in accordance with the following:A. Meritorious acts performed by members below the rank of lieutenant: by the company officer on duty.B. Meritorious acts performed by company officers: by the battalion chief responsible for report of operations. (If no chief officer responded, report shall originate with officer in command).C. Meritorious acts by battalion chiefs: by the deputy chief on duty at scene of operations. (If no deputy chief present, report shall originate with officer in command.)

Question 32

AUC 2661. The primary consideration at PCB incidents is the safety of civilians and fire personnel. Which action taken at a PCB incident would be correct? (Sec. 6.4)(A) Members shall only deactivate transformers if they are accompanied by Con Edison Personnel or Engineering Personnel of the premises familiar with the procedure.(B) To extinguish a transformer fire, foam shall not be used because it conducts electricity.(C) Use of self-contained masks is mandatory in areas of medium and heavy smoke conditions. In areas of light smoke conditions, APRs may be used.(D) Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed (even if light haze of smoke exists) shall be given prime consideration.

Answer 32

1. DDeactivation of transformers shall be performed only by Con Edison Personnel or Engineering Personnel of the .premises familiar with procedure. No member of this department shall attempt deactivation by direction or upon instruction of engineering personnel.6.4.3 Proper extinguishing methods must be used according to the properties of theinvolved materials.A. Fog or foam for flammable liquids.B. Water for structural members.6.4.7 Use of self-contained masks is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. This applies to all personnel in the affected area.6.4.8 Breathing apparatus shall be used at all times until the Officer in Command confirms that the area is free of toxic gases (including overhauling operations).

Question 33

AUC 2662. Members responded to a smoke condition in the sub cellar of a New York City government building. After performing an investigation, it is determined that the smoke condition is coming from an overheated transformer room, which has a 6”x6” blue square decal on the door to the room. There is a box at the bottom of the decal that has 40 PPM and the name of the testing company in it. The 1st Ladder Company Officer states that he thinks his members were exposed to PCBs, and they require decontamination. As the IC, what would be a proper procedure to take? (Sec. 6.4.11, 8.1, 8.2, Add. 3 Sec 1.5.5)(A) Confine the members to a designated area.(B) Ensure that members are examined by an EMS Conditions Officer(C) Ensure that mandatory decontamination procedures are implemented due to the level of PCB’s that members have been exposed to.(D) Contact OEM via the battalion cell phone to assist you in making decisions regarding decontamination and other methods of controlling the possible spread of the materials.

Answer 33

2. A6.4.11 Members exposed or possibly exposed:A. Shall be confined to a designated area until decontaminated.B. Shall be decontaminated along with their equipment as outlined in HMO2.C. Shall be examined by a Medical Officer.8.1 Decontamination procedures outlined in the Emergency Response Plan: Hazardous Materials shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCB’s of 50 PPM or higher. Federal regulations consider transformers containing a PCBlevel of less than 50 PPM to be non-PCB transformers.8.2 Notification of the OSHA Unit8.2.1 The OSHA Unit is available to respond to PCB emergencies, as needed, to assist the Chief in Charge in making decisions regarding decontamination and other methods of controlling the possible spread of these materials. This is expected to establish consistent criteria for the use of the Decon Unit.8.2.2 The OSHA Unit is designated as Car 68.8.2.3 The OSHA Unit can be contacted at the following telephone numbers:

Question 34

AUC 2681. While commanding units at a heavy fire condition on the 5th floor that is extending to the 6th floor in a 6 story “H” type building, the superintendent approaches you and states that members stole sports memorabilia from his basement apartment. The responding Deputy Chief is seriously delayed. You would be correct to? (Sec. 2.1.10)(A) Return to the Battalion vehicle to obtain the cell phone to call the Inspector General directly.(B) Instruct the Battalion Aide to return to the Battalion vehicle and use the Battalion cell phone to call the Inspector General directly.(C) After the fire has been successfully extinguished and time permits, notify the Inspector General though the Fire Operations center via cell phone.(D) Notify the Bureau of Investigations and Trials directly via cell phone as soon as the fire operations permit.

Answer 34

1. C2.1.10 Any allegation concerning thefts by employees during fire and emergency operations, inspectional activities or from quarters, requires immediate (as soon as fire or emergency operations permit) notification to the Inspector General. This notification will be made by the Incident Commander at the scene via cellularphone to the Fire Operations Center at (718) 999-2094. The FOC will relay the information to the Inspector General’s Office

Question 35

AUC 2682. All of the following were reported correctly with the exception of which choice? (Sec. 2, 2.1.8, 3, 3.1.2, 4.1, 4.1.4)(A) At 1000 hours on a Tuesday, the Inspector General was notified directly via telephone that an Officer made a false statement concerning the loss of a Halligan on an FS-112 Lost Property Report.(B) The Bureau of Investigations and Trials was notified directly via telephone when you observed an FDNY Buildings vehicle run a red light and make an illegal U-turn before double parking in front of a deli on a Monday morning at 0900 hours.(C) The Bureau of Investigations and Trials on-call supervisor was notified directly via telephone when a member was arrested for driving with a suspended license at 2200 hours on a Friday.(D) The Bureau of Investigations and Trials was notified via a Letterhead Report charges were being preferred against a Firefighter for being AWOL.

Answer 35

2. C4.1 The following situations require written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials:4.1.1 Misconduct by a Department employee not falling within the jurisdiction of the Inspector General.4.1.2 Follow-up information regarding the arrest of a member.4.1.3 Any instance of incompetence (i.e., repeated negligent of unsatisfactory performance of duties) so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges arewarranted.4.1.4 Preference of charges against a mem

Question 36

AUC 2741. At a large warehouse fire located at an isolated site on the shore of the East River, the Command Chief special called Battalion 100 to operate as a Water Resource Officer. Battalion 100 would be incorrect to take which action? (Sec. 1.2.4, 3.4, 3.5, 3.8, 4.2, 4.4 Eng. Ops Ch. 6)(A) Battalion 100 recommended to the Incident Commander that a foam apparatus should be special called to supply the Satellites to control a fire that has extended to an adjoining fuel oil depot.(B) Handie-talkie communications were established between Battalion 100 and the IC, with priority given to going through the Marine Unit that was operating at the incident.(C) Battalion 100 notified an additional special called Satellite Unit to respond to an adjoining street that had two high pressure red hydrants.(D) Battalion 100 recommended to the IC the use of Marine 6 to supply any additional responding Satellite Units due to the limited hydrant system.(E) After the Marine Battalion notified Battalion 100 that low tide prevented Marine Units from getting close to shore, Battalion 100 considered the use of a drafting site to supply Satellite Units.

Answer 36

1. B3.5 The Water Resource Officer shall establish handi-talkie communications with the Incident Commander of the fire through established communication lines. Priority would be through the Field Communications Unit if on the scene.

Question 37

AUC 2761. Although CIMS requires that there be one Command Post at all incidents to facilitate information sharing, Agencies have the authority to direct operations related to their Core Competencies at incidents. In which choice would the FDNY not give tactical direction? (Sec. 2.2)(A) Search and Rescue at a Dirty Bomb explosion with radiation present.(B) Search and Rescue for several missing swimmers at Coney Island.(C) Evacuation of a building that DOB has declared unstable.(D) Performing decontamination of numerous civilians exposed to asbestos at a steam pipe explosion.

Answer 37

1. B2.2 If more than one agency is capable of performing the same tactical operations at an incident, the agency with the core competency will give tactical direction, by the ranking officer, to other agencies performing operations with that competency. (CIMS p.19)FDNY will give tactical direction for the following incidents:1. Directs operations connected with fire suppression.2. Directs search and rescue of victims at fires, emergencies, confined space, collapse, CBRN/hazardous material, aviation, railroad and auto incidents, utility emergencies, etc. (water/ice rescue is directed by NYPD.)3. Directs all pre-hospital emergency medical care.4. Directs the evacuation of any structure.5. Directs all life safety, patient care and decontamination operations at CBRN/Haz-Matincidents.6. Directs operations connected with arson investigations (cause and origin).

Question 38

AUC 2762. The Fire Department will be in Single Command in which of the following situations? (Sec. 5.1)(1) All auto extrications(2) All boats in distress(3) Confined Space Rescues(4) Downed Tree(5) Elevator Incidents or Emergencies(6) Entrapment/Impalement(7) Suspicious Package(8) Structural Collapse(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8(B) 3, 4, 5, 6, 8(C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8(D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6

Answer 38

2. BINCIDENT TYPE PRIMARY AGENCYAuto Extrication FDNY / NYPD (first to arrive)Boat in Distress FDNY / NYPD (first to arrive)Citywide Cyber Incident NYPD and/or DOITTCivil Disturbance NYPDConfined Space Rescue FDNYCorrectional Facility Disturbance DOCDowned Tree FDNY / DPRElevator Incident or Emergency FDNYEmotionally Disturbed Person NYPDEntrapment / Impalement FDNYExplosive Device, Bomb Threat NYPDFire FDNYHostage Incident NYPDSniper Incident NYPDSpecial Event NYPDStructural Collapse FDNYSuspicious Package NYPDWater / Ice Rescue NYPD

Question 39

AUC 2763. Which of the following is incorrect at a CBRN/Haz-Mat Incident where crime or terrorism is suspected or has occurred? (Sec. 6)(A) A Unified Operations Section will be implemented in all circumstances.(B) The FDNY is responsible for life safety and decontamination.(C) If a CBRN/Haz-Mat event where crime or terrorism is suspected or has occurred, and it includes more than one type of incident, a NYPD Single Command will be implemented, unless the other event is fire.(D) FDNY will not perform hazard assessment or technical rescue.

Answer 39

D 6.2 AtallCBRN/Haz-MatIncidents,crimerelatedornot,FDNYwillperformthefollowingtasks:

Hazard assessment for release and material identification including:

Use meters.

Use of analytic identification methods.

Use of test strips.

Life safety assessment

Protect the public and responders.

Establish life safety contamination zones. (Initial establishment of hot, warm

and cold.)

Delineate areas where personal protective equipment is required.

Question 40

AUC 285Answer Questions 1 - 3 based on the followingBC Smith of B-60 is the Community Board Coordinator for Community Board 1. BC Jones B-60 is the alternate Community Board Coordinator. On Friday, December 21, Community Board 1 has a scheduled District Service Cabinet (DSC) meeting at 1000 hours. BC James, the Battalion Commander of B-60, is scheduled to work the 9x6 tour on 12/21, and is planning on working straight day tours to help out BC Thomas, a Battalion Chief covering BC Smith’s vacation leave for the next two weeks.1. Which choice is correct concerning the attendance of the Community Board 1 DSC meeting by Battalion 60? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)1. BC Smith may attend the meeting in his work duty uniform.2. BC Jones may attend the meeting on compensatory time in her Class “A” uniform if she is not working the 9x6 tour on 12/21.3. BC James may attend the meeting in his Class “A” uniform on compensatory time if he is not working the 9x6 tour on 12/21.4. BC James may attend the meeting in his work duty uniform if he is working the 9x6 tour on 12/21.5. BC Thomas may attend the meeting in his work duty uniform if he is working the 9x6 tour on 12/21.6. BC Thomas may attend the meeting in his Class “A” uniform on compensatory time if he is not working the 9x6 tour on 12/21.(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6(B) 2, 4(C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6(D) 2, 3, 4

Answer 40

1. B3.1 DSC meetings are generally conducted in the morning or early afternoon, while most other public CB meetings are conducted in the evening. Division Commanders andBattalion Commanders should make every effort to have the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) attend the DSC meetings and any other CB meetings, as necessary.If available, the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) shall attend such meetings on a compensatory time basis.3.2 If the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have a regularly assigned BC attend such meetings while on-duty. For the purpose of this AUC, a regularly assigned BC is a Chief Officerworking in the Battalion for more than a vacation period.3.3 The attending BC is expected to remain present during the entire DSC meeting.3.4 Off-duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class “A” uniform. On-duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain out of service for the duration of such meetings unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that circumstances necessitate their response.

Question 41

AUC 285Answer Questions 1 - 3 based on the followingBC Smith of B-60 is the Community Board Coordinator for Community Board 1. BC Jones B-60 is the alternate Community Board Coordinator. On Friday, December 21, Community Board 1 has a scheduled District Service Cabinet (DSC) meeting at 1000 hours. BC James, the Battalion Commander of B-60, is scheduled to work the 9x6 tour on 12/21, and is planning on working straight day tours to help out BC Thomas, a Battalion Chief covering BC Smith’s vacation leave for the next two weeks.2. Which choice is incorrect if an on-duty BC from B-60 attends the Community Board 1 DSC meeting? (Sec. 3.4, 3.5)(A) Battalion 60 will be out of service for the entire DSC meeting unless a phone alarm for a structural fire is received.(B) The on-duty BC in Battalion 60 shall notify their Division at the start and conclusion of the DSC meeting.(C) The on-duty BC in Battalion 60 shall notify the Borough Dispatcher at the start and conclusion of the DSC meeting.(D) Battalion 60 will remain out of service for the duration of the DSC meeting unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that circumstances necessitate their response.

Answer 41

2. D3.4 Off-duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class “A” uniform. On-duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain out of service for the duration of such meetings unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that circumstances necessitate their response

Question 42

AUC 285Answer Questions 1 - 3 based on the followingBC Smith of B-60 is the Community Board Coordinator for Community Board 1. BC Jones B-60 is the alternate Community Board Coordinator. On Friday, December 21, Community Board 1 has a scheduled District Service Cabinet (DSC) meeting at 1000 hours. BC James, the Battalion Commander of B-60, is scheduled to work the 9x6 tour on 12/21, and is planning on working straight day tours to help out BC Thomas, a Battalion Chief covering BC Smith’s vacation leave for the next two weeks.3. If no BC is available to attend the DSC meeting, who should notify the District Manager by phone prior to the meeting if possible, and who shall ensure that a follow-up call is made following the meeting? (Sec. 3.7)(A) BC Smith only; BC James(B) BC Smith or BC Jones only; BC James(C) BC Smith, BC Jones, or BC James; BC Smith(D) BC Smith, BC Jones, or BC James; BC James(E) BC Smith, BC Jones, BC James, BC Thomas; BC Smith

Answer 42

3. D3.7 If no BC is available to attend a DSC or CB meeting, a regularly assigned BC should notify the DM by phone prior to the meeting, if possible. The Battalion Commander shall ensure a follow-up call is made following the meeting.

Question 43

AUC 2854. Following all meetings, the attending BC is required to forward a District Cabinet and Public Community Board Meeting Report form ________ to the ________. (Sec. 6.2)(A) Directly; Chief of Operations(B) Through the chain of command; Chief of Operations(C) Directly; Chief of Department(D) Through the chain of command; Chief of Department.

Answer 43

4. B

Question 44

AUC 2855. There are instances where questions from the public arise at Community Board meetings, and it is imperative that members are well prepared and follow up on the public’s concerns. Which choice is incorrect concerning this preparation and follow-up? (Sec. 6.2.2, 6.2.3, 6.2.4, 7.1, 7.2)(A) The Community Board Coordinator (or alternate) is responsible for matters that require additional research or further action.(B) The Community Affairs Unit will assist BCs in obtaining any required information, and will assign staff to attend the DSC meeting, when available.(C) If an issue is raised that requires the attention of another FDNY Bureau, the Battalion Commander shall research the issue and send a written answer to the individual who raised the issue.(D) Community Board Coordinators (or alternate) shall consult with their respective Borough Commanders, via the chain of command, regarding Department policy issues that may arise at DSC and CB meetings(E) Any procedural questions regarding Community Boards and Community Board Battalion Coordinators should be directed to the Community Affairs Unit.

Answer 44

5. C6.2.4 If an issue is raised that requires the attention of another FDNY Bureau, the BC shall make the appropriate referral. For example, EMS-related issues are forwarded, through the Borough Command, to the appropriate EMS Division; and inquiries regarding apparatus are referred to the Bureau of Fleet Services.

Question 45

PART 5 - SAFETY BULLETIN #561. Which of the following would an investigating BC not classify as a collision(s)? (Sec. 3.3, 4.2, 4.4, 4.5)(A) While responding, a Ladder Company strikes an Engine apparatus in the rear due to the Engine stopping abruptly to avoid hitting a car that dangerously pulled in front of the Engine.(B) A Ladder Company is struck from the rear by a livery cab while it is double-parked on Building Inspection.(C) A civilian visits quarters and states that they saw an Engine Company’s side mirror strike their mailbox, resulting in damage to the mailbox.(D) An Engine Company is struck by a cyclist, breaking the Engine’s tail light, while it is parked near the curb, connected to a hydrant at a 10-75. The bicycle and cyclist suffered no damage or injuries.

Answer 45

1. C 4.2 COLLISIONAn apparatus collision is when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object. -
2. 4 INCIDENT

A vehicle related occurrence that is not a collision such as:

 Apparatus fire.

 Damage to an apparatus caused by an unusual occurrence (i.e. a tree limb falls on an apparatus).

 Damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the vehicle.

 Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms, (i.e. a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked car) inspection activities, and Multi Unit Drill (MUD).

 A properly parked apparatus that was struck by another apparatus. (Incident for the apparatus that was struck).

 An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or property. If a Fire apparatus is involved, the officer on duty must make a journal entry of the allegations.

 Damage caused by vandalism.

Question 46

2. The determination if a collision is a Major Collision is a very important decision. Which choice concerning this classification is incorrect? (Sec. 4.3, 6.5.2, 7, 7.1)(A) The investigating BC shall consider classifying a collision as a Major Collision if it results in either significant damage to the Dept. or civilian vehicle, or to private property, or results in a life threatening injury or death to a civilian or member.(B) The determination if a collision is a Major Collision will be made by the investigating Battalion Chief at the scene.(C) In questionable cases (e.g. numerous injuries, unusual circumstances) the investigating BC shall consult with the Deputy/Division Chief and a Safety Battalion Chief prior to determining whether or not the collision is a Major Collision.(D) The administrative Deputy Chief is authorized to downgrade or upgrade a collision should information later come to light which makes such a change appropriate.

Answer 46

2. D7.1.1 The Safety Battalion Chief is authorized to downgrade or upgrade a collision should information later come to light which makes such a change appropriate.

Question 47

3. The Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) must be notified whenever a Fire Dept. apparatus is involved in a collision/incident. Which choice is correct concerning these notifications? (Sec. 8.1)(A) The investigating BC must contact FDOC from the scene of the collision/incident and give all relevant particulars.(B) As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the scene, the investigating BC shall email a completed FOC-1 report to FDOC followed by a phone call to FDOC.(C) As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the scene, the investigating BC shall email a completed FOC-1 report to FDOC. A phone call is not required.(D) As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the scene, the investigating BC shall call FDOC. No forms need to be completed until the Collision Package is forwarded.

Answer 47

3. B

Question 48

4. At the scene of a collision, the primary initial obligation is to prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude. Which action taken at the scene of a Major Collision is incorrect? (Sec. 9.1, 9.2, Fig. 1)(A) The IC determined that the involved vehicles should be moved due to the light fast moving traffic increasing the risk of another collision.(B) The location of the tires of moved vehicles were marked with “T” shaped marks. The outside edge of each tire and the center line of the axle of each wheel was marked, and only the outside tires were marked on a double wheeled vehicle.(C) Prior to moving an involved tractor trailer, the four corners of the trailer were marked.(D) Marks were made with lumber crayons and chalk. After determining that it was not a hazard to members, the IC ordered the marks renewed until the arrival of the Photo Unit.

Answer 48

4. DC. Marks shall be made with lumber crayon, chalk, or any other means at hand. Marks shall be made to withstand traffic wear after vehicles are removed, or shall be renewed as necessary, until the arrival of the Safety Battalion, unless such renewal would present a hazard to the members.

Question 49

5. An Engine Company returning from providing mutual aid at a brush fire in Suffolk County is involved in a collision on the Long Island Expressway in Nassau County. Which choice indicates a proper operation? (Sec. 5)(A) A Battalion Chief shall be assigned to the most appropriate Box on the City Line and the Dispatcher will advise the BC by phone or radio of all particulars.(B) A Battalion Chief will be assigned to Box 9999, which is a dummy box, and will proceed to the scene of the collision to perform an investigation.(C) A Battalion Chief will not receive a response ticket, but will be advised by the Dispatcher via phone of all particulars.(D) A Battalion Chief will not receive a response ticket, but will be advised by the Dispatcher via voice alarm of all particulars.

Answer 49

5. ANote: If the collision/incident occurred outside the city limits call 911 if appropriate. A telephone notification shall be made to the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) at (718) 999-7900 as soon as safety permits. Information from the first four sections of the CD-19 shall be provided to the FDOC member.In the event an on-duty EMS/Fire unit requests a Battalion Chief to investigate a collision outside the City Limits, Dispatch Personnel shall assign the Battalion to themost appropriate box on the City Line and advise the Battalion Chief by phone or radio of all particulars.

Question 50

6. An Apparatus Collision Investigation Report CD-19A is completed for all collisions and incidents. Which choice is incorrect concerning the CD-19A? (Sec. 11)(A) If the investigating Chief Officer is due to begin a leave, they would not be required to review the CD-19 from a unit in their administrative Battalion. However, the full particulars of the collision/incident must be included in the CD-19A.(B) Covering Chief Officers are not required to review the CD-19 from a unit involved in a collision/incident, but must include full particulars of the collision/incident in their CD-19A.(C) Chief Officers investigating apparatus collision/incidents involving units not of their command will not review the CD-19, but must include full particulars of the collision/incident in their CD-19A.(D) A Chief Officer/EMS Officer involved in an apparatus/collision incident may not investigate his/her own collision/incident.(E) When two or more FDNY apparatus are involved in a collision, a separate CD-19A is required for each unit involved in the collision.

Answer 50

6. ENote: When two or more FDNY apparatus are involved in a collision only one CD- 19A is required. The officer completing the CD-19A can add additional identifying information for all apparatus involved in the other comment section.

Question 51

7. In which choice was the CD-19A sent to the wrong location? (Sec. 11)(A) Chief Officers investigating apparatus collisions/incidents of units not of their command shall forward the CD-19A to the Safety Command.(B) Chief Officers investigating EMS apparatus collisions shall forward the CD-19A to the EMS Division Commander of the Division where the EMS unit is assigned.(C) CD-19As of apparatus collision/incidents involving units other than FIRE or EMS (i.e. HQ, Fleet Maintenance, and Communications) shall be forwarded to the Bureau responsible for that unit.(D) Chief Officers investigating apparatus collisions/incidents of units not of their command shall forward the CD-19A to the command initially responsible for reviewing the unit’s Apparatus Collision Report CD-19 (usually the Battalion and Division/Bureau to which the unit is assigned).

Answer 51

7. A11.2 Chief Officers investigating apparatus collisions/incidents involving units NOT of their command will NOT review the CD-19 but must include full particulars of the collision in their CD-19A investigation report. CD-19As shall be forwarded promptly to thecommand initially responsible for reviewing the unit’s Apparatus Collision Report (usually the Battalion and Division/Bureau to which unit is assigned).

Question 52

8. Which choice is incorrect concerning actions taken following a preventable collision? (Add. 4 Sec. 3)(A) An Officer involved in a first preventable collision will be interviewed and counseled by a Chief Officer from the Officer’s assigned battalion. A Post Collision Interview form shall be prepared by the interviewing Chief Officer.(B) An Officer involved in a second preventable collision in a 12 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference with a Chief Officer from the Officer’s assigned battalion.(C) An Officer involved in a third preventable collision will result in a Supervisory Conference between the Officer and a Chief Officer from the Office’s assigned battalion. A report shall be forwarded to the Division Commander recommending reassignment of the Officer for a 60 day period.(D) Any collision involving double parked cars while the unit is in a non-response mode will result in a Supervisory Conference.

Answer 52

8. C3.3 An officer involved in a third preventable collision in an 18 month period will result in a Supervisory Conference between the unit commander and a chief officer from the unit commander’s assigned battalion. (See attachment #2). A report shall be forwarded tothe Chief of Operations with recommendations for reassignment of the officer for a 60 day period.

Question 53

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 151. There are three ways that a wood-frame building can collapse during a fire: A 90 degree angle wall collapse, a lean-over collapse, or an inward/outward type collapse. Which choice accurately describes these types of collapses? (p. 200-202)(A) A 90 degree angle wall collapse is sudden and does not give any visible warning signs prior to failure.(B) The lean-over collapse usually involves the collapse of two, three, or four walls simultaneously.(C) A three-story braced frame structure frequently falls in an inward/outward collapse. The top two stories collapse inward, back on top of the pancaked floors: the lower story collapses outward on to the sidewalk.(D) An inward/outward collapse may not exhibit any structural warning at all – sometimes the only indication that a collapse is imminent is a serious fire burning for a long time on an upper floor.

Answer 53

1. C90 degree angle collapse is often signaled by the corners of a falling wall splitting apartThe lean-over collapse is often indicated by the structure starting to lean to one side.An inward/outward collapse may not exhibit any structural warning at all – sometimes the only indication that a collapse is imminent is a serious fire burning for a long time on an LOWER floor.

Question 54

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 152. While conducting a drill on wood-frame building collapses, BC James made several statements. Which one was incorrect? (p. 202, 208-209)(A) When a braced-frame wood building collapses, all four walls may collapse at one time. Anyone around the perimeter of the building will not survive this type of collapse.(B) Of the 3 major types of wood-frame construction, braced-frame wood constructed buildings present the greatest firefighting danger.(C) Three-story wood-frame buildings suffer global collapse more frequently than one or two story wood-frame buildings.(D) Wooden buildings located on a corner plot or standing alone are more susceptible to global collapse when exposed to fire than wood buildings in the center of a row of similar buildings.

Answer 54

2. AOnly FFs in corner safe zones will survive a collapse. The corner safe areas are the 4 flanking zones around a burning wood frame building - the 4 areas at the corner of a collapsed building that have fewer bricks ( Dunn means if it’s a brick and joist building)

Question 55

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 153. There are several types of wood-frame construction, each with their own peculiarities and hazards. Which choice is incorrect concerning wood-frame construction? (p. 204-205)(A) Braced-frame construction has vertical timbers called “posts” positioned at the four corners of the building, and horizontal timbers called “girts” found at each floor level.(B) In Balloon framed buildings, 2”x4” wood studs extend in one piece for the full height of the wall.(C) In Balloon Framed buildings, the only vertical void found is in the exterior walls.(D) In Balloon Framed buildings, the attic should be quickly examined for fire spread during the early stages of a fire.(E) From a fire protection standpoint, Platform construction is superior to Balloon and Braced-Frame construction, because there are no concealed voids that extend for more than one floor.

Answer 55

3. CIf an addition is added to the building an exterior wall will become an interior wall.

Question 56

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 154. Lightweight wood truss construction is becoming more common. Which choice is incorrect concerning this type of construction? (p. 205)(A) Lightweight wood truss construction commonly suffers wall or “global” (total) collapse of the entire structure, not floor or roof collapse, early in the operation.(B) The thin metal connections used to fasten truss floors and roof beams together only penetrate 3/8 to ½ inch into the wood.(C) Lightweight wood truss and sheet metal fasteners have failed in less than 10 minutes of fire exposure in Fire Tests.(D) When fire involves truss structures such as a concealed space of the floor or roof, it is recommended that occupants be removed and to fight the fire defensively from the outside.

Answer 56

4. ALight weight would trust construction suffers floor and roof collapse not wall or global collapse of the entire structure

Question 57

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 155. A contributing cause of wood-frame building collapse is fire destruction of bearing walls. Which point is wrong concerning bearing walls? (p. 205-207)(A) When the bearing walls of a wood frame building collapse, the floors will collapse. If the interior floors collapse, the bearing walls may collapse.(B) In private homes, condominiums, and row town houses, the front and rear walls are often load bearing and the two side walls are non-load bearing.(C) In peaked roof buildings, the bearing walls support the majority of the roof rafters that are perpendicular to the ridgepole.(D) In flat-roofed wood buildings, the bearing walls are usually the walls with the shortest dimension; the non-load bearing walls have the greatest dimension.

Answer 57

5. DBecause the load bearing interior walls are interconnected the interior floors will collapse if the bearing walls failed during a fire

Question 58

PART 6 - DUNN CHAPTER 156. The mortise and tenon joint of braced-frame buildings, and exterior wall overload are two additional causes of wood frame building collapse. Which example is described incorrectly? (p. 207-208)(A) The mortise and tenon connection can be destroyed by fire and is also susceptible to collapse by rotting.(B) A metal fire escape landing and ladder attached to an exterior wall of a wood-frame building can exert a slight pull on the wall studs, causing the wall studs to bow slightly outward, which creates an axial load.(C) A stucco coating spread on wire mesh may weigh as much as 8 pounds per square foot.(D) A brick veneer or stucco coating contain the heat and flame inside the building, which increases the destruction of the structural framework.

Answer 58

6. B A metal fire escape landing and ladder attached to an exterior wall of a wood-frame building can exert a slight pull on the wall studs, causing the wall studs to bow slightly outward, which creates an ECCENTRIC load.

Question 59

Dunn CHAPTER 167. The presence of cranes adds an additional element of danger to buildings being constructed or dismantled. Choose the incorrect point concerning cranes at these buildings. (p. 215)(A) Cranes collapse most often when they are overloaded, moved, assembled, or disassembled, not during fires.(B) If a fire in a building under construction is exposing a crane, a collapse zone equal to the width of the building should be set up.(C) If a worker is trapped in the cab of a crane above the fire, master streams should be used to protect the trapped crane operator.(D) If there is a fire in a building under construction where a craned is used, a secondary search of the crane may have to be conducted if the crane operator is unaccounted for

Answer 59

7. B If a fire in a building under construction is exposing a crane, a collapse zone equal to the HEIGH OF THE CRANE should be set up.

Question 60

Dunn CHAPTER 168. Reinforced concrete structures can be precast or cast in place concrete structures. Cast in place concrete structures present the most serious fire and collapse hazard and suffer the greatest number of major fires. Which choice is incorrect concerning cast in place concrete structures? (p. 216, 218-219)(A) Although it takes 27 days for concrete to reach its maximum strength, within 48 hours concrete floors have enough strength to enable the wood formwork below to be removed and reconstructed above.(B) When wood formwork is removed, bracing remains below the freshly poured concrete floors for support, and portable steel jacks or timber columns will continue to support several floors below.(C) Construction engineers state that within 24 hours of pouring, the entire concrete floor can collapse on Firefighters if the wood formwork below has been destroyed by fire.(D) If there is a small fire in the wooden formwork used to support the floors in a cast in place structure, it can be extinguished with a single hoseline attack from a wooden ladder through the elevator shaft.

Answer 60

8. D-Fire occurring he would inform local spread rapidly throughout the -a single hose line attack from A wooden access latter will be useless-Outside aerial master streams all recommended strategy to extinguish fires inform work supporting floors-All firefighters should be removed from the building during this operation

Question 61

Dunn CHAPTER 169. The IC at a fire in a building under construction must consider the operability of the standpipe system. Choose the incorrect choice concerning these operations. (p. 222-223)(A) When the threaded top of the standpipe riser is not fitted with a cap or seal to hold the water, the IC shall order the ECC supplying the system to increase pressure to provide an adequate hose stream.(B) If standpipe outlet valves are in the open position, the entire first alarm assignment may have to be diverted from firefighting to shut off the open valves on every floor.(C) If units report that all control valves are closed and no water is being pumped to the upper floor of the building, the cellar outlet valve shall be checked.(D) When water cannot be pumped to an upper floor hoseline and all outlet valves are confirmed closed, the pipe riser shall be examined for a closed OS&Y valve.Answer A. If the cap is left off and the top of the standpipe is open, there will NEVER be enough pressure for an effective firefighting hose stream. A hoseline must be stretched from the street.

Answer 61

9. Answer A. If the cap is left off and the top of the standpipe is open, there will NEVER be enough pressure for an effective firefighting hose stream. A hoseline must be stretched from the street.

Question 62

PART 7 - BISP - MERCANTILE GUIDE BI MANUAL CH.3 ADD 21. When egress requirements in Mercantile buildings or occupancies is substandard, the BISP Manual recommends that a BC be called to the scene for a possible vacate or a DOB High Priority Referral be forwarded. An improper understanding of egress requirements in Mercantile buildings/occupancies is shown in which choice?(A) Under the 1938 Building Code, any room with an occupant load more than 75 occupants requires two means of egress remote from each other leading to an exit or exits.(B) Under the 1938 Building Code, every floor requires at least two means of egress regardless of occupancy or square footage.(C) Under the 1968 Building Code, two exits or exit access doorways from any space shall be provided when the occupant load exceeds 75 occupants.(D) Under the 1968 Building Code, there shall be at least two independent exits, remote from each other, from every floor of a building.

Answer 62

1. B

Question 63

PART 7 - BISP - MERCANTILE GUIDE BI MANUAL CH.3 ADD 22. You are inspecting the second floor of a 2-story mixed building built in 2018, where you find three mercantile occupancies on the second floor. Store #1 holds 70 occupants, Store #2 holds 180 occupants, and Store #3 holds 300 occupants. Regarding the amount of exits required, it would be incorrect to state that?(A) Store #1 needs one exit from the store.(B) Store #2 needs two exits from the store.(C) Store #3 needs two exits from the store.(D) Two means of egress are required from the public areas on the second floor.

Answer 63

2. D

Question 64

PART 7 - BISP - MERCANTILE GUIDE BI MANUAL CH.3 ADD 23. You are now inspecting a new taxpayer like structure built in 2018 that is a one-story building with 4 stores. Store #1 is 4200 square feet, Store #2 is 7100 square feet, Store #3 is 8000 square feet, and Store #4 has an open staircase from the first floor to the cellar. In this situation, what needs to be sprinklered?(A) Store #3 only.(B) Store #4 only.(C) Stores #3 and #4 only(D) Stores #2, #3, and #4 only.(E) The entire taxpayer.

Answer 64

3. C

Question 65

PART 7 - BISP - MERCANTILE GUIDE BI MANUAL CH.3 ADD 24. One of your units requests you to respond to a building that they are inspecting during BI. The building is 3 stories high, with a commercial occupancy on the first floor, and has a one family apartment on the second and third floors. The building was built under the 1938 Building Code, and has one means of egress which is a stairway enclosed in one hour fire resistive partitions, without any opening to the commercial occupancy on the first floor. What would be the proper course of action?(A) After confirming that the structure does not require a combustible occupancy permit from the Fire Dept., you tell the company it is legal.(B) Contact the administrative Deputy Chief to begin vacate procedures.(C) Forward a DOB High Priority Referral Report for substandard egress.(D) If a combustible occupancy permit is required from the Fire Dept., and the commercial occupancy is separated from the residence occupancy by ceilings having a fire resistive rating of at least one hour, forward a DOB Referral Report.

Answer 65

4. A

Question 66

BISP Ch. 5 Ref. 3.1 – Smoke Detectors5. After transmitting a 10-26 at a 2 story Private Dwelling, you receive a HT transmission from the 1st Ladder Officer who states that he is attempting to locate a smoke detector that has activated. The Ladder Officer asks you the requirements for smoke detectors, and states that the building was built in 2014. You were incorrect in which choice?(A) A smoke detector is required on the ceiling or wall outside of each room used for sleeping purposes within 15 feet from the door to such room.(B) A smoke detector is required in each room used for sleeping purposes.(C) A smoke detector is required in each story of the building, but not crawl spaces and uninhabitable attics. Split level dwellings do not always require a detector on each level.(D) When a smoke detector alarms, only the smoke detector that originally sensed the smoke will alarm.(E) Other than smoke detectors with integral strobes, required smoke detectors shall receive their primary power from a branch circuit, and shall be equipped with a battery backup.

Answer 66

5. D

Question 67

BISP Ch. 5 Ref. 3.1 – Smoke Detectors6. While sitting in the office completing paperwork, a Captain from one of your units calls you and asks what is the proper procedure to take concerning smoke detector inspection during BI, or when a complaint is received. You were incorrect in which response?(A) In order to determine if a detector is present in an apartment, you must gain access and observe the detector in the apartment.(B) Written complaints notifying you of absent/defective smoke detectors shall be forwarded to the Bureau of Fire Prevention Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU).(C) If a verbal complaint is received concerning absent/defective smoke detectors, you shall refer the complainant to the Dept. of Housing Preservation and Development (HPD) by dialing 311.(D) For a verbal complaint concerning absent/defective smoke detectors, you may obtain further information by calling the Bureau of Fire Prevention Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU).

Answer 67

6. A

Question 68

Chapter 5 Ref. 3.2 – Carbon Monoxide Detectors7. Carbon Monoxide (CO) Detectors are required in Residential, Educational and most Institutional Occupancies that use fossil fuel burning equipment (excluding household cooking appliances and household gas clothes dryers). Which choices are correct concerning requirements for Carbon Monoxide Detectors in units in Multiple Dwellings, Private Dwellings and Assisted Living facilities built under the 2008/2014 Building Code?1. Units on the same story where CO producing equipment or enclosed parking is located.2. Units on the stories immediately above and below the floor where CO producing equipment or enclosed parking is located.3. Units in a building containing a CO producing furnace, boiler or water heater as part of a central system.4. Units in a building served by a CO producing furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system that is located in an adjoining or attached building.(A) 1,2,3 only(B) 2,3 only(C) 2,3,4 only(D) 1,2,3,4

Answer 68

7. D

Question 69

Chapter 5 Ref. 3.2 – Carbon Monoxide Detectors8. Under the 2008/2014 Building Code, requirements for CO alarms or detectors within dwelling units are properly stated with the exception of which choice?(A) If not combined with smoke detectors, they must be on or near the ceiling outside of any room used for sleeping purposes.(B) Within 15 feet of the entrance to any room used for sleeping purposes.(C) In any room used for sleeping purposes.(D) On any story within a dwelling unit, including below-grade stories and penthouses of any area, but not including crawl spaces and uninhabitable attics.

Answer 69

8. A

Question 70

Chapter 5 Ref. 3.2 – Carbon Monoxide Detectors9. Private Dwellings (One family, two family, and townhouses) built under the 2014 Building Code shall be provided with a means of exhausting CO from garages when such garages are attached to the occupancies. At what level of CO shall the exhaust system operate? (Sec. 5.4)(A) 9 PPM(B) 10 PPM(C) 35 PPM(D) 100 PPM

Answer 70

9. C

Question 71

10. Which choice is incorrect concerning the handling of complaints and enforcement concerning CO Detector requirements?(A) Complaints from the public regarding the installation and/or maintenance of CO Detectors in residential premises shall be investigated immediately and the results emailed to the BISP Unit.(B) Complaints with respect to the installation and/or maintenance of CO detectors in Educational Occupancies shall be referred to the Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) for inspection by appropriate Fire Dept. personnel.(C) Complaints with respect to the installation and/or maintenance of CO detectors in Institutional Occupancies shall be referred to the Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) for inspection by appropriate Fire Dept. personnel.(D) An immediate summons shall be served if it is determined that a required CO detector was intentionally disabled.

Answer 71

10. A