BB WRONG Flashcards

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1
Q

review all amino acids

A
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2
Q

Secondary structure

A

alpha helical & Beta sheets

hydrogen bonds

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3
Q

Kd

A
  • dissociation constant, measures the dissociation of the substrate from the ES complex.
  • Binding affinity is typically measured and reported by the equilibrium dissociation constant
  • MOST EFFECTIVE TO BIND::LOWEST Kd
    • ​larger Kd, the less affinity the enzyme has for the substrate
  • Km is a measure of affinity, and is the concentration of substrate that reaches 1/2 Vmax.
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4
Q

What should be assumed when said “amino acid cleaved”

A
  • hydrolytic cleavage—-> proteases
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5
Q

Ribonuclease

A

is a type of nuclease that catalyzes the degradation of RNA into smaller components

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6
Q

Entropy penalty

A
  • amino acid substituion from Leu to Thr at surface-exposed sites will result in DECREASED ENTROPY PENALTY
  • Because changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue elimates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups
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7
Q

Introns

A
  • occurs posttranscriptional
  • DNA to premRNA is transcription
  • premRNA to mRNA is posttranscriptional
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8
Q

mRNA processing in prokaryotes

A
  • mRNA processing doesn’t occur in prokaryotes
  • becuase transcription in prokaryotes occurs in cytoplasm, ribosomes are able to bind & begin translation even before transcription is complete, prokaryotic mRNA requires NO ADDITIONAL processing after transcription
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9
Q

PCR primer

A
  • CG
  • suitable primer have a high CG content and have a G or C base pairs at 5’ to 3’ ends
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10
Q

Endothelium Mutation

A
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11
Q

Inheritance patterns: AUTOSOMAL

recessive disorders

A
  • autosomal recessive inheritance: both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations.
    • The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition
    • normal son cannot have hemophillic (recesssive) mother & hemophilic daughter (recessive) cannot have normal father
  • autosomal dominant inheritance: is a pattern of inheritance characteristic of some genetic diseases. “Autosomal” means that the gene in question is located on one of the numbered, or non-sex, chromosomes. “Dominant” means that a single copy of the disease-associated mutation is enough to cause the disease.
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12
Q

in the hydrolysis reaction for GTP/GDP which is active/inactive?

A

active GTP——> inactive GDP

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13
Q

HA–><– H+ + A-

when HA dissociates fully in blood, what happens?

A

Due to La Chatlier’s principle, the equilibrium will favor products when the conc of the products is kept low, so here it will shift to the right

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14
Q

if we inc proinsulin, what happens to insulin and blood glucose levels?

A

increase in proinsulin—->increase insulin—>decrease blood glucose

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15
Q

Metabolic rate

A
  • will enable one to determine how long the stored energy reserves will last
  • an organism that has low metabolic rate & thus a larger-lasting energy reserves will be best suited to withstand periods of long term nutrient deprivation
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16
Q

Absence of O2 will result in what with Acetyl CoA

A
  • low amount of acetyl CoA is produced in the absence of O2, because krebs produces acetyl CoA in O2
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17
Q

Fermentation—>lactic acid—->no O2—–>???

Fermentation—>lactic acid—-> O2—>???

A
  • NO O2, thus lactic acid stays in cytoplasm
  • with O2, lactic acid goes to acetyl CoA
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18
Q

Protein transport

Retrograde protein transport

A
  • protein translation occurs in ER
  • protein then transported to golgi for post translational modification, processing, & packaging for proper localization
  • retrograde transport would reverse the motion and return protein to the ER
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19
Q

Individual cells making up a tissue different from single-celled organisms such as paracelium in that only the latter:

A
  • latter (paracelium) are capable of extended independent life

  • tissue cells are dvided by mitosis
  • tissue cells contain subcellular organellles
  • tissue cells can metabolize nutient molecules
  • tissue cells are not capable of extended life
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20
Q

when graph gives *, know it means significance

A

pay attetnion to those

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21
Q

Covalent & noncovalent bonds

A

peptides are covalent bonds

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22
Q

Adaptive Immune System

Antigens & antibodies

A
  • immune system recognizes the mouse antibody as a foreign antigen & generate an immune response towards it, which may include a mild to severe allergic response
  • the immune response will generate antibodies against the mouse, limiting its usefulness as an antibody treatment
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23
Q

Bicarb Buffer System

veins & arteries CO2 concentration

A
  • veins= INC CO2
    • Cl- will be higher in veins because HCO3- is higher in veins
  • arteries= DEC CO2
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24
Q

Surface area & RBC

A

max exposure of each RBC to diffusing gases will aid respiration by RBC by being in a single line

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25
Q

AAMC 3 starts here, # 25

A
26
Q

Q15: 1A: skill 2

Catalytic activity/Protease function

A
  • Passage: Caspases-8 is a protease, cFLIP is homolog of caspase-8 that lacks catalyztic activity
  • Me: I should infer that cFLIP is a protease and because it lacks that catalytic activity, I should come to a conclusion that hydrolase activity is missing (answer)
    • protease breaks down proteins/break down peptide bonds and this happens via hydrolysis, thus proteases is a type of hydrolase enzyme
27
Q
  1. breaking a peptide bond using water is ___________
  2. making a peptide bond by losing water _____________
A
  1. hydrolysis
  2. condensation dehydration
28
Q

Q 28: 1A: Skill 4: passage based

given this graph: what can we say about AcTubK40

A
  • look at the X & Y axis, we see that the protein acetylation level (fold) is constant, it stays at 1.
  • BHOB does not change the AcTubK40 acetylation level, but it does change the other 2
    • thus we can infer that BHOB is specific to the other two, thus it is not a general deacytalse inhibitor
  • Answer A is wrong: becuase the data/passage gave one potential non-histone target (tubulin)
  • Answer C is wrong: becuase BOHB was adminstered outside the cells (exogenous), which means it must diffuse through both the plasma membrane & the cytoplasm to get into the nucleus & affect HDACs; therefore it is unlikely that BOHB is only in the nucleus
29
Q

Q47: 1A: skill 2: discrete

rate of typical enzymatic reaction is increased how?

pay attention to the wording of the question, TYPICAL!!

A
  • Answer: increase in temperature from 20C to 37C
    • ​increasing temperature increases rate of reaction because more molecules possess enough energy to overcome the energetic barrier of a reaction (activation energy) at a higher temperature
      • for the sake of kinetics, unless explicity says in the passage, the only 2 things that can effect the rate of the reaction are temperature & enzymes.
      • Optimum pH value varies greatly from one enzyme to another, the optimum temp for enzymes is normally 37C

_____________________________________

what else increases reaction rate?

  • rate of reaction increases with inc substrate conc-think MM curve
  • increasing pH may or may not increase the reaction rate-becuase we don’t know if increasing the pH will denature the enzyme or not
  • decreasing Ea will inc reaction rate
30
Q

Q 18: 1B: skill 2

Operons/Promotors/Prokaryotes

Cgr1 & Cgr2 proteins are produced from?​

A
  • Passage said: operon containing two genes (cgr1 & cgr2) thus we must infer that Cgr1 & Cgr2 proteins are produced from: a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence upstream of the operon
    • an operon containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is trascribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene of the operon
      • cgr1 and cgr2 are on the same operon. Thus, they are transcribed together to form a polycistronic mRNA, an mRNA with multiple genes on it that will encode for multiple proteins. This is a common mechanism in prokaryotes.
      • 1 operon=1 promotor (cannot be seperate)

_________

  • prokaryotes do not modify RNA post-transcription
31
Q

Q40: 1B: skill 1

imprinted genes/regulation of gene expression

A
  • Imprinted genes are genes whose expression is determined by the parent that contributed it; expressed in a parent specific manner
  • In the passage, both parents have the mutant allele. so even though the mom does pass it down, it is not expressed; whereas, when the father passes down the mutant alllele it does get expressed. This is the definition of an imprinted gene b/c the allele is parent-specific and does not follow Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance.

http://www.biology-pages.info/I/Imprinting.html

_________________

  • cannot be Y-linked because the passage states that the allele is present in BOTH genders!!
  • cannot be X-linked dominant or recessive, both parents can pass down the allele but its only expressed when the dad passes it down, also-there is no indication in the passage about which offspring expressess it
32
Q

Q41: 1B: skill 1: passage based (go over it)

protein translation

Assuming that protein synthesis was under way when the radioactive amino acids were added, which of the following best describes how the radioactivity was distributed in one of the first molecules of Protein X that was completely translated?

A
  • becuase the stem says that translation (protein sysnthesis) was underway, we can assume that the first half of the protein will contain normall AA’s.
    • per passage: At time = 0 s, radiolabeled amino acids were added to a flask containing S. cerevisiae in a growth medium. After 50 s, a large excess of nonradioactive amino acids was added.
  • then the radioactive ones are added, which will be incorprated on the C-terminus end of the protein as it finishes being translated (aa are incorprated from the amino to the carboxy terminus); therefore they will only be found on one side of the protein
  • Thus the protein should look like:

NH2 END- NONRADIOACTIVE (Pre 0 seconds) l Radioactive (0-50 seconds) l Nonradioactive (50-X seconds, assume small) l Radioactive amino acids (50-300 seconds) - COOH END

33
Q

Q6: 1 C: Skill 2

Autosomal dominant & autosomal recessive

https: //ghr.nlm.nih.gov/primer/inheritance/inheritancepatterns
https: //blog.blueprintprep.com/mcat/mcat-genetics-a-quick-guide-to-recognizing-modes-of-inheritance/

A
  • the inheritance of HPRCC is autosomal dominant
    • ​we see that the offspring show a 3:1 inheritance pattern
    • there are also no skipped generations-which is a sign of dominant trait
      • because the allele must be inherited in a autosomal dominant pattern in order for individuals II-1 and II-2 to produce both affected and unaffected offspring.
      • The inheritance pattern for the offspring of these individuals is consistent with autosomal dominant if the parents are heterozygous. The rest of the pedigree is consistent with this mode of inheritance as well.
      • In addition, the offspring of individuals II-1 and II-2 rule out autosomal recessive (will show unaffected offspring), X-linked recessive, and Y-linked (if disease was a y-linked-only males would have this trait)
34
Q

Q 5: 1D: skill 2

Slow twtich fibers/fast twitch fibers

According to the passage, relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property?

https://www.mytutor.co.uk/answers/1891/A-Level/Biology/What-are-the-differences-between-fast-and-slow-twitch-skeletal-muscle-fibres/

A
  • per passage: slow-twitch fibers are adapted for aerobic exercise which suggests and I must infer that compared to fast-twitch fibers, slow-twitch fibers have increased capillary density (b/c it provides a large & continous supply of oxygen & glucose to the muslce), large numbers of mitochondria (because they rely mostly on aerobic metabolism), & higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins (myoglobin is the binding protein-to allow additional storage of oxygen in tissues due to the reliance on aerobic metabolism-this is what gives slow fibers their red appearance)
  • the names of the fibers themselves give insight to their relative rates of contraction (passage said that fast has enhanced contractile strength). Thus, it is unlikely that the slow-twitch fiber will have a greater Ca+2 pumping capacity
  • Answer: fast-twitch fibers have greater Ca+2-pumping capcity
35
Q

Fast-twitch fiber characteristics

A
  • anaerobic respiration
  • low capillary density
  • low myoglobin concentration
  • lower density of mitochondria, & larger glycogen stores
  • high Ca+ pumping capacity (greater contactile strength)
36
Q

Q 35: 1D: skill 2: passage based

A

read the graphs carefully, pay attention to astricks

37
Q

Q 39: 1D: skill 1

Citric acid cycle enzymes

Overexpression of which enzyme is likely to result increased levels of HIF?

A
  • per passage: “succinate modulates the level of HIF by inhibiting HIF hydrolase, an enzyme that induces HIF degradation” THUS an overexpression of succinyl-CoA synthetase (answer), whcih results in increased production of succinate, will enhance HIF levels
  • succinyl CoA synthetase catalyzes succinyl coA—>succinate
38
Q

Succinate dehydrogenase:

A
  • catalyzes succinate—-> fumarate + FADH2
  • succinate dehydrogenase will decrease succinate
39
Q

Q32: 2A : skill2: discrete

osmotic pressure

The average osmotic pressure of ocean water is 28 atm corresponding to a concentration of 0.50 M solutes (approximated as NaCl). What is the approximate concentration of solutes (also approximated as NaCl) present in blood with an osmotic pressure of 7 atm?

A
  • osmotic pressure is directly proportional to solute concentration
  • since the osmotic pressure of blood is 1/4 that of ocean water, the solute concentration is also one-fourth that of ocean water, or 0.25 * .50M=0.12 M
  • 28 atm/0.50M = 7 atm/x – solve for x; to save time, could have also used relationships and ratios: pressure and concentration are directly related, they need to change in the same way i.e. if the pressure goes down, the concentration needs to go down (right there you elim 2 answers (2.0 & 3.5)), then it’s just a matter of eliminating B because you know the value by which the pressure went down was by a factor of 4, not 2
40
Q

2A: Q54: skill 2

One consequence of advanced malnutrition is reduced amounts of plasma proteins in the blood. This condition would most likely cause the osmotic pressure of the blood to:

A
  • Answer: decrease, resulting in an increase of fluid in the body tissues.
  • dec in blood proteins =decrease in plasma osmolarity
    • to return to normal osmolarity, (to blood homeostasis), fluids needs to be removed from the plasma. this would bring osmolarity back up. the fluid being removed goes into the tissues

EXPLAINED: So your blood exerts hydrostatic pressure against your blood vessels, which tries to push fluid out of your circulatory system and into the tissues. However, solutes such as proteins (albumin) in the blood exert oncotic pressure that pulls water into the circulatory system and out of the tissues. So we could look at net filtration into the tissues as a balance between (Hydrostatic Pressure) - (Oncotic/Osmotic pressure). By decreasing albumin in the blood, we decrease that oncotic pressure so more fluid tends to leave the circulatory system and move into the tissues.

This is additional info, but this imbalance (increase in Hydrostatic pressure and/or decrease in oncotic pressure) can lead to edema.

41
Q

Q 14: 2C: skill 2: passage based

Overexpression of cFLIP in other cell types will most likely result in:

A
  • passage indicates that cFLIP, a structurally similar homolog of caspase-8 that lacks catalytic activity, regulates Fas signaling through binding to FADD at the same site as caspase-8. Therefore, overexpression of cFLIP reduces the interaction between FADD and caspase-8 and results in decreased apoptosis in response to Fas ligand
42
Q

Q50: 3A: skill 2: passage based

failing to respond the highest doses of SSRIs?

A
  • those who failed to respond: do not release enough serotonin into the synapse for the SSRIs to make a difference
  • based on figre 2, the mutation results in drastically lower serotonin synthesis compared to a wild-type control
43
Q

Q51: 3A: skill 2: passage based

A drug that inhibits the activity of which of the following enzymes would be most likely to relieve depression in some people, assuming the chemical reactions in Figure 1 are irreversible?

A
  • Answer: monoamine oxidase A
  • because based on the data in Figure 1, monoamine oxidase A is involved in oxidation and degradation of serotonin. Therefore, a drug that inhibits the activity of monoamine oxidase A would be most likely to relieve depression.
    • If you block the enzyme that degrades serotonin = more serotonin = less depressed

Fun fact but Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) are actually a class of anti-depressant medication

44
Q

Q55: 3B: Skill 3

constipation & diarrhea

Within the intestines, unabsorbed fats are broken down into fatty acids by intestinal bacteria. Given this, excess unabsorbed fats most likely have which of the following effects within the intestines?​

A
  • Answer: they increase the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to diarrhea
    • excess of unabsorbed fats in the intestines inhibits normal water and electrolyte absorption, resulting in increased osmotic pressure and diarrhea.
  • water follows solutes-since the fat is forced to stay in the intestines, the intestines is “hypertonic” to the outside enviroment & water flows in to dilute the solutes, causing water stool (diahrea)
45
Q

Q 19: 3B: skill 2

Which action(s) could contribute to the positive inotropic effect of digoxin on cardiac myocytes?

A
  • per passage: digoxin is a cardia glycoside, which has a positive ionotropic effect (increases the force of contraction) on heart muscle by inhibiting the Na+K+ ATPase
  • thus must choose the answer choices that will lead to an inc in intracellular calcium levels, resulting in enhancement of the contractile force of the heart
  • Answers: dec transport of Ca+2 to extracellular enviroment, increase availability of intracellular Ca+2 to bind to troponin, and increase overall Ca+2 stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    • More calcium stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscles increases the force of contraction. More calcium binding to troponin on the actin filament. Meaning that more tropomyosin can shift, therefore more myosin can bind (aka more muscle contraction)
46
Q

cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer image

A
  • image that displays a dimer of two pyrimidine residues.
  • silly mistake, I choose the 2 purines.
  • Dimer indicates that it is a molecular complex consisting of two identical parts (unless specifically mentioned as a heterodimer). Also remember that purines consist of 2 rings and pyrimidines consist of 1 ring.
47
Q

which aa contains Sulfhydryl groups?

A
  • CYS
  • sulfHYDRYLare also known as thiol groups.
  • SH
48
Q

ATP & glycolysis

what is a major pathwat for ATP production when ETC shuts down?

A
  • the data in the passage show that mitochondrial ATP production is decreased.
  • This indicates that the flux through glycolysis is increased, because this would be the major pathway for ATP production once the electron transport chain is shut down!
49
Q

The concentration of Cl ions in the pond is low, whereas the concentration in the algae is high (in cells cytoplasm).

what process will move Cl- into the cell?

A
  • Answer: active tranport
  • because in order to maintain a higher concentration of chlorine ions inside the cell, the ions must be moved into the cell against their concentration gradient, which requires energy. This process is active transport.
50
Q

blocking VG K+ channels will do what to an AP?

A
  • AP will be prolonged
  • because if potassium ion channels are blocked, the membrane would fail to repolarize, extending the length of the action potential and simulating excessive muscle contractions
51
Q

What is a Thiol group? What aa contains this?

A
  • thiol groups are R-SH
  • Cys!!
  • in oxidized (typically extracellullar conditions), you have S-S. In reducing (typically intracellular since the cell contains antioxidants) you has S-H H-S. When cystine bridges are reduced, you get cysteine moieties.
52
Q

what does fluoresece do?

A
  • it exposes the amino acids
  • in the presence of DPC, fluorescence of protein X increases greatly. this indicates that is has adopted a conformation that exposes hydrophobic residues on its surface; The graph shows measurement of ANS flouresecence and passage explains that ANS “exhibits increased flourescence upon binding hydrohobic surface residues of protein” so in order to observe increased fluorescence, the addition of DPC must do something the makes the binding of ANS to hydrophobic residues easier, such as exposing them.

phosporylation makes aa more polar

53
Q

Citric Acid Cycle location

A

matrix of mitochondria

54
Q

GIVEN A: 4.74 & A+B=7.03

B AMPLIFIED RESPONES TO A BY WHAT PERCENTAGE?

https://www.reddit.com/r/Mcat/comments/bs8z9c/fl2_bb_37/

A

7.03 / 4.74 = 1.48, so B amplified pituitary responses to A by 48%.

To solve: you want to know the % increase

So basically:

7 - 5 = 2

2/5 * 100 = 40% (this is the percent increase, in other words it increased by 40% of 5)

Since it is 4.74 not 5 (the difference will be bigger and the diversion would be bigger so closest is 48%)

55
Q

Endosomes & endocytosis

A

based on the passage, the entry of the virus into the host cell requires CatB and CatL proteases and involves endocytosis through the fusion of the viral membrane with the host cell membrane. Internalization of viral particles through endocytosis is mediated by endosomes

56
Q

pay attention to how they secribe things in the passages, like they mentioned that Cat B and Cat L are proteases, so what do proteases do?

A

break proteins into smaller protein fragments

57
Q

Frameshift mutations

A
  • random insertions into the open reading frame leads to framshift mutations are more likely to mess with the C-terminus more than the N-terminus!!
  • the addition of one nucleotide to the open reading frame of a protein, results in a frameshift mutation and an aberrant carboxy-terminal domain.
  • more exlplanations: Frameshift mutations will affect a lot of the protein, but if assuming which was more likely, consider that the protein is made N to C terminus. N is made first, and C is made last. The C terminus will definitely be affected; a frameshift anywhere will affect the sequence through to the end. On the other hand N is made first, and unless the nucleotide is added to the first part of the mRNA, it is super unlikely to be affected by a frameshift. (Also, even if it was, again, the C terminus will have to be affected as well.)
58
Q

production of ATP under anaerobic conditions and Avogadro’s number relating molecules to moles to scale the answer to the correct value and units:

Under anaerobic conditions, how many net molecules of ATP are produced by the consumption of 5 moles of glucose?

A

Under anaerobic conditions, 2 moles of ATP are produced from each mole of glucose

in aneorobic only consider glycolysis

Thus, 10 moles of ATP would be generated from 5 moles of glucose. Since there are 6 × 1023 molecules per mole, 10 moles of ATP is equal to 6 × 1024 molecules.

59
Q

motor proteins

A
  • myosin Va is a motor protein. Motor proteins such as myosin Va move along microfilaments through interaction with actin.
60
Q

cytotoxic T lymphocytes target virus-infected cells by recognizing the ___________

A

viral antigen presented on the cell surface

cytotoxic t cells are responsible for initiating apoptosis in cells that have been infected. they do this by detecting pathogenic material on the MHC1 receptor of an infected cell by using its CD8 protein

61
Q

variable region of antibody

A

regions 1 and 3 correspond to the variable portion of the light and heavy chains, respectively, of an antibody. The variable region of an antibody will enable recognition of a particular antigen, such as HER2, which typically has elevated expression in breast cancer tumors.

62
Q
A