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Blood Bank 1 > BB II Exam 1 > Flashcards

BB II Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Skin

A

Free of scars and needle marks

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2
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Eyes

A

Clear, no pupil dilation, no yellow sclera

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3
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Anemia (H/H) Allogeneic

A

Female: >12.5 g/dL OR 38%

Male: >13.0 g.dL

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4
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Anemia (H/H) Autologous

A

> 11.0 g/dL OR >33%

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5
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Temperature

A

Not to exceed 37.5C (99.5F)

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6
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Blood Pressure

A

<180/100 mmHg

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7
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Pulse

A

50-100 BPM

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8
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Weight

A

> 110 lbs

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9
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Age

A

> 16 y/o

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10
Q

Blood Collection Requirements

A
  • BP Cuff to 40-60mmHg
  • 16 g needle
  • cannot exceed 15 minutes for fill time
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11
Q

Allogeneic Donor

A

Genetical non-related donor

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12
Q

Directed Donor

A

Family and friends donate for specific recipient.

Used for specific instances such as rare genetic trait.

Lower risk for alloimmunization but higher risk of disease transmission and graft/host disease

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13
Q

Autologous Donor

A

Self donation

Used in specific circumstances such as a bloody surgery. A direct order from the physician is REQUIRED.

Lower risk of disease transmission, alloimmunization, and transfusion reaction. There is a risk for TACO, bacterial contamination, misidentification, storage lesion, and patient low HGB

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14
Q

What is TACO

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload. Too much fluid in the body which overwhelms the heart.

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15
Q

Temporary deferral

A

Donor is unable to donate for a limited period of time due to current health state or risk for infectious disease (Today - 3 years)

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16
Q

Indefinite deferral

A

Regulatory agencies have not determined when a deferred donor may be re-entered into the donor pool. This status could change but won’t until the regulation is changed

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17
Q

Permanent deferral

A

Donor will never be able to donate due to test results or answers to questions on the DHQ

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18
Q

Brachycardia is the primary sign of ___

A

Vasovagal Reaction

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19
Q

Treatment for a vasovagal reaction

A

Lean back the chair, elevate legs, and give bag to breathe in, monitor

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20
Q

Treatment for weakness, Sweating, dizziness, pallor, nausea / vomiting, syncope

A
  • Stop phlebotomy
  • Elevate legs above head
  • Cold compress forehead and neck
  • Aromatic spirits
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21
Q

Treatment for hyperventilation

A

A common reaction to phlebotomy. Lean back the chair, elevate legs, and give bag to breathe in, monitor

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22
Q

Tachycardia is a primary sign of ___

A

Hypotensive shock. An uncommon reaction to phlebotomy

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23
Q

Treatment for cardiac difficulties

A
  • Ensure airway is adequate
  • CPR
  • Call 911
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24
Q

Treatment for convulsions

A
  • Call 911
  • Prevent donor from falling or injuring self
  • Ensure airway is adequate
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25
Q

Treatment for tissue trauma/injury (hematoma)

A
  • Apply pressure 7-10 minutes
  • Apply ice
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26
Q

Treatment for muscle spasms/twitching

A

Voluntary coughing

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27
Q

What are the steps of component preparation from a whole blood donation?

A
  1. Collect
  2. Decide
  3. Centrifuge
  4. Separate
  5. Test
  6. Label
  7. Distribution
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28
Q

What donor RBC can a type A person receive

A

A
O

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29
Q

What donor plasma can a type A person receive

A

A
AB

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30
Q

What donor RBC can a type B person receive

A

B
O

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31
Q

What donor plasma can a type B person receive

A

B
ABW

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32
Q

What donor RBC can a type O person receive

A

O

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33
Q

What donor plasma can a type O person receive

A

O
A
B
AB

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34
Q

What donor RBC can a type AB person receive

A

AB
A
B
O

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35
Q

What donor plasma can a type AB person receive

A

AB

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36
Q

Causes of hemolysis in RBC products

A

Extreme temperatures, centrifigation, manufacturing force, bacterial contamination, INCOMPATIBLE solutions with product

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37
Q

Causes of lipemia in RBC products

A

Fatty meal before donation or chronic conditions such as hypercholesterolemia

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38
Q

Causes of bacterial contamination in RBC products

A

Normal flora from the colelctrion process, loss of sterility during the colelction process, asymptomatic bacteremia in donors

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39
Q

Causes of particualte matter in RBC products

A

Clots, fibrin strands (clotting was activates)

White non cellular matter that dissipates with temp change is okay for transfusion. If it persists after gentle agitation then DISCARD

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40
Q

Causes for color change in RBC products

A

Some color differentiation is normal and expected. Generally, the darker the blood appears, the less oxygen content there is within in the unit.

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41
Q

What is HBOC

A

Cell free hemoglobin (purified hgb dissociated from RBC)

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42
Q

What are pros of HBOC

A

It delivers oxygen quickly to smaller tissues and is chemically altered to change oxygen affinity

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43
Q

What are cons of HBOC

A

Vasocontriction, renal failure, short half life, increased chance of MI and coagulopathy

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44
Q

What does deglycerized product mean

A

Product has been washed and there are no proteins and no plasma = no allergens while still leaving red cells.

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45
Q

Why do we use LRBC

A

Lots of allergic reactions are linked to HLA reactions which are on WBC

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46
Q

Plasma must be ___ type matched

A

Reverse

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47
Q

RBC must be ___ type matched

A

Forward and reverse ABO

48
Q

What is the function of volume expanders?

A

To increase the volume of blood and replenish fluid loss

49
Q

What are the three types of volume expanders we are concerned with

A

Lactated Ringer’s Solution, Dextran, Hydroxyl Ethyl Starch

50
Q

Lactated Ringer’s Solution

A

Crystalloid containing Na, K, Cl, Ca, and Lactate. Mixing with red cell product it will clot. Replaces lost fluid and electrolytes

51
Q

Dextran

A

Colloid containing sugar solution. If mixed with red cell product, it will hemolyze. Plasma volume expander and increase osmotic pressure.

52
Q

What is the deferral time for risky behavior (whole blood transfusion, piercings, STDs)?

A

3 months

53
Q

Deferral period for syphilis (for this exam)?

A

3 months

54
Q

What is the confirmatory test for syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS

55
Q

What is the deferral period for HBV?

A

Permanent

56
Q

What is the confirmatory test for HBV?

A

NAT and neutralization

57
Q

What is the deferral period for HIV 1 and 2?

A

Permanent

58
Q

What is the confirmatory test for HIV 1 and 2?

A

NAT and ELISA

59
Q

What is the deferral period for HCV?

A

Indefinite

60
Q

What is the confirmatory test for HCV?

A

NAT and RIBA

61
Q

What is the deferral period for HTLV?

A

Indefinite/Permanent

62
Q

What is the confirmatory test for HTLV?

A

Western Blot and RIPA

63
Q

What is the deferral period for WNV?

A

120 days

64
Q

What is the confirmatory test for WNV?

A

None. Screen with RNA NAT

65
Q

What is the deferral period for T. cruzi?

A

Indefinite

66
Q

What is the confirmatory test for T. cruzi?

A

ESA and RIPA

67
Q

What is the deferral period for Tick Borne Bebesiosis?

A

2 years from reactive test

68
Q

What is the confirmatory test for Tick Borne Bebesiosis?

A

AFIA

69
Q

What is the deferral period for Zika?

A

4 weeks

70
Q

What is the confirmatory test for Zika?

A

NAT

71
Q

T/F: cryoprecipitate can be made from whole blood donation processed within 24 hours

A

FALSE

Cryoppt has factor 8 and 5 in it. These factors are at their full capacity in cryoppt. As it sits out for 24 hours, factor 5 and 8 decrease because they will. This product needs to be manufactures within 8 hours to have the most amount of coagulation.

You CAN make PLT, LRBC, and FP24 within 24 hours.

72
Q

What are the travel and storage requirements for platelet and granulocyte components?

A

5 days at 20-24C and with continuous agitation

73
Q

What causes platelets to lose the swirl?

A
  • no platelets (dead)
  • low/decreasing pH
  • Bacteria
74
Q

What is the clinical indication of platelet transfusion?

A

To increase the platelet count. May be prophylactically for oncology patients or if a patient’s platelets are not functioning (PFA test)

75
Q

What population is receiving granulocyte transfusions?

A

Neutropenic patient transfusions to fight infections. Must be irradiated, should NOT be leukoreduced. You need an ABO type match.

76
Q

Refractory means what regarding platelets?

A

The platelet is not working. They should maybe try HLA

77
Q

How long are platelets approved to be stored according to the FDA?

A

5 days at midnight

78
Q

What is the indication for receiving whole blood product?

A

Symptomatic anemia with low volume

79
Q

What is the dosage for whole blood product?

A

RBC and plasma

80
Q

When does whole blood expire?

A

21-42 days

81
Q

What is the indication for receiving RBC product?

A

Symptomatic anemia

82
Q

When do RBC expire?

A

21-42 days

83
Q

What is the indication for receiving RBC (WASHED) product?

A

Allergies/rare

84
Q

When do washed RBCs expire?

A

After 24 hours

85
Q

What is the indication for receiving RBC (LEUKOREDUCED) product?

A

Reduce CMV, febrile TRXN

86
Q

When do LRBC expire?

A

21-42 days

87
Q

What is the indication for receiving RBC (IRRADIATED) product?

A

Immunocompromised

88
Q

When do irradiated RBC expire?

A

21 days

89
Q

What is the indication for receiving platelet pheresis?

A

Bleeding due to inactive or low platelets

90
Q

What is the indication for receiving platelet pool products?

A

ITP, refractory

91
Q

When do platelets expire?

A

5 days

92
Q

What is the indication for receiving granulocytes?

A

Neutropenia and infection

93
Q

When do granulocytes expire?

A

24 hours

94
Q

What is the dosage for granulocyte products?

A

10-15mL/Kg

95
Q

What is the indication for receiving plasma?

A

TTP, factor deficiency

96
Q

When does plasma expire?

A

1 year frozen; 5 days thawed

97
Q

What is the dosage for plasma?

A

+15-20% factor

98
Q

What is the indication for receiving cryoprecipitate?

A

Hypofibrinogenemia, Factor 8 deficicency

99
Q

When does crytoprecipitate expire?

A

1 year frozen; 4-6 hours thawed

100
Q

What is the dosage for cryoppt?

A

+ 60-100mg/dL fibrinogen

101
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

Fibrinogen, VWF, VIII, XIII, V

102
Q

What is the deferral period for incarceration?

A

12 months

103
Q

What is the deferral period for pregnancy?

A

Not at all during pregnancy. 6 weeks after giving birth.

104
Q

What is the dosage for RBC?

A

10 - 15mL/kg + 3g/dL Hb

105
Q

What is the dosage for PLT?

A

+ 30,000 - 60,000/uL

106
Q

What is the deferral period for accutane?

A

1 month

107
Q

What is the deferral period for clopidogrel (plavix)?

A

14 days after last dose

108
Q

What is the deferral period for aspirin?

A

48 hours

109
Q

What is the deferral period for growth hormone?

A

Indefinite (mad cow)

110
Q

What is the deferral period for Hep B Ig?

A

3 months

111
Q

What is the deferral period for Tegison?

A

Permanent

112
Q

What chromosome is HLA on?

A

Chromosome 6

113
Q

What cells have HLA antigen on them?

A

WBC and PLT

114
Q

What are the clinical applications for HLA?

A

Paternity testing, Breast cancer risk, bone marrow matching

115
Q

HLA Testing

A

Cytotoxicity (best), Molecular, ELISA, flow

116
Q

Disease correlation for HLA

A

Ankylosing spondylitis (strongest), Celiac, narcolepsy, RA

Blood Bank 1 (9 decks)

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