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Blood Bank 1 > BB II Exam 1 > Flashcards

BB II Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Skin

A

Free of scars and needle marks

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2
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Eyes

A

Clear, no pupil dilation, no yellow sclera

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3
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Anemia (H/H) Allogeneic

A

Female: >12.5 g/dL OR 38%

Male: >13.0 g.dL

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4
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Anemia (H/H) Autologous

A

> 11.0 g/dL OR >33%

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5
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Temperature

A

Not to exceed 37.5C (99.5F)

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6
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Blood Pressure

A

<180/100 mmHg

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7
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Pulse

A

50-100 BPM

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8
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Weight

A

> 110 lbs

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9
Q

Donor Physical Exam: Age

A

> 16 y/o

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10
Q

Blood Collection Requirements

A
  • BP Cuff to 40-60mmHg
  • 16 g needle
  • cannot exceed 15 minutes for fill time
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11
Q

Allogeneic Donor

A

Genetical non-related donor

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12
Q

Directed Donor

A

Family and friends donate for specific recipient.

Used for specific instances such as rare genetic trait.

Lower risk for alloimmunization but higher risk of disease transmission and graft/host disease

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13
Q

Autologous Donor

A

Self donation

Used in specific circumstances such as a bloody surgery. A direct order from the physician is REQUIRED.

Lower risk of disease transmission, alloimmunization, and transfusion reaction. There is a risk for TACO, bacterial contamination, misidentification, storage lesion, and patient low HGB

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14
Q

What is TACO

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload. Too much fluid in the body which overwhelms the heart.

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15
Q

Temporary deferral

A

Donor is unable to donate for a limited period of time due to current health state or risk for infectious disease (Today - 3 years)

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16
Q

Indefinite deferral

A

Regulatory agencies have not determined when a deferred donor may be re-entered into the donor pool. This status could change but won’t until the regulation is changed

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17
Q

Permanent deferral

A

Donor will never be able to donate due to test results or answers to questions on the DHQ

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18
Q

Brachycardia is the primary sign of ___

A

Vasovagal Reaction

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19
Q

Treatment for a vasovagal reaction

A

Lean back the chair, elevate legs, and give bag to breathe in, monitor

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20
Q

Treatment for weakness, Sweating, dizziness, pallor, nausea / vomiting, syncope

A
  • Stop phlebotomy
  • Elevate legs above head
  • Cold compress forehead and neck
  • Aromatic spirits
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21
Q

Treatment for hyperventilation

A

A common reaction to phlebotomy. Lean back the chair, elevate legs, and give bag to breathe in, monitor

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22
Q

Tachycardia is a primary sign of ___

A

Hypotensive shock. An uncommon reaction to phlebotomy

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23
Q

Treatment for cardiac difficulties

A
  • Ensure airway is adequate
  • CPR
  • Call 911
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24
Q

Treatment for convulsions

A
  • Call 911
  • Prevent donor from falling or injuring self
  • Ensure airway is adequate
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25
Treatment for tissue trauma/injury (hematoma)
- Apply pressure 7-10 minutes - Apply ice
26
Treatment for muscle spasms/twitching
Voluntary coughing
27
What are the steps of component preparation from a whole blood donation?
1. Collect 2. Decide 3. Centrifuge 4. Separate 5. Test 6. Label 7. Distribution
28
What donor RBC can a type A person receive
A O
29
What donor plasma can a type A person receive
A AB
30
What donor RBC can a type B person receive
B O
31
What donor plasma can a type B person receive
B ABW
32
What donor RBC can a type O person receive
O
33
What donor plasma can a type O person receive
O A B AB
34
What donor RBC can a type AB person receive
AB A B O
35
What donor plasma can a type AB person receive
AB
36
Causes of hemolysis in RBC products
Extreme temperatures, centrifigation, manufacturing force, bacterial contamination, INCOMPATIBLE solutions with product
37
Causes of lipemia in RBC products
Fatty meal before donation or chronic conditions such as hypercholesterolemia
38
Causes of bacterial contamination in RBC products
Normal flora from the colelctrion process, loss of sterility during the colelction process, asymptomatic bacteremia in donors
39
Causes of particualte matter in RBC products
Clots, fibrin strands (clotting was activates) White non cellular matter that dissipates with temp change is okay for transfusion. If it persists after gentle agitation then DISCARD
40
Causes for color change in RBC products
Some color differentiation is normal and expected. Generally, the darker the blood appears, the less oxygen content there is within in the unit.
41
What is HBOC
Cell free hemoglobin (purified hgb dissociated from RBC)
42
What are pros of HBOC
It delivers oxygen quickly to smaller tissues and is chemically altered to change oxygen affinity
43
What are cons of HBOC
Vasocontriction, renal failure, short half life, increased chance of MI and coagulopathy
44
What does deglycerized product mean
Product has been washed and there are no proteins and no plasma = no allergens while still leaving red cells.
45
Why do we use LRBC
Lots of allergic reactions are linked to HLA reactions which are on WBC
46
Plasma must be ___ type matched
Reverse
47
RBC must be ___ type matched
Forward and reverse ABO
48
What is the function of volume expanders?
To increase the volume of blood and replenish fluid loss
49
What are the three types of volume expanders we are concerned with
Lactated Ringer's Solution, Dextran, Hydroxyl Ethyl Starch
50
Lactated Ringer's Solution
Crystalloid containing Na, K, Cl, Ca, and Lactate. Mixing with red cell product it will clot. Replaces lost fluid and electrolytes
51
Dextran
Colloid containing sugar solution. If mixed with red cell product, it will hemolyze. Plasma volume expander and increase osmotic pressure.
52
What is the deferral time for risky behavior (whole blood transfusion, piercings, STDs)?
3 months
53
Deferral period for syphilis (for this exam)?
3 months
54
What is the confirmatory test for syphilis?
FTA-ABS
55
What is the deferral period for HBV?
Permanent
56
What is the confirmatory test for HBV?
NAT and neutralization
57
What is the deferral period for HIV 1 and 2?
Permanent
58
What is the confirmatory test for HIV 1 and 2?
NAT and ELISA
59
What is the deferral period for HCV?
Indefinite
60
What is the confirmatory test for HCV?
NAT and RIBA
61
What is the deferral period for HTLV?
Indefinite/Permanent
62
What is the confirmatory test for HTLV?
Western Blot and RIPA
63
What is the deferral period for WNV?
120 days
64
What is the confirmatory test for WNV?
None. Screen with RNA NAT
65
What is the deferral period for T. cruzi?
Indefinite
66
What is the confirmatory test for T. cruzi?
ESA and RIPA
67
What is the deferral period for Tick Borne Bebesiosis?
2 years from reactive test
68
What is the confirmatory test for Tick Borne Bebesiosis?
AFIA
69
What is the deferral period for Zika?
4 weeks
70
What is the confirmatory test for Zika?
NAT
71
T/F: cryoprecipitate can be made from whole blood donation processed within 24 hours
FALSE Cryoppt has factor 8 and 5 in it. These factors are at their full capacity in cryoppt. As it sits out for 24 hours, factor 5 and 8 decrease because they will. This product needs to be manufactures within 8 hours to have the most amount of coagulation. You CAN make PLT, LRBC, and FP24 within 24 hours.
72
What are the travel and storage requirements for platelet and granulocyte components?
5 days at 20-24C and with continuous agitation
73
What causes platelets to lose the swirl?
- no platelets (dead) - low/decreasing pH - Bacteria
74
What is the clinical indication of platelet transfusion?
To increase the platelet count. May be prophylactically for oncology patients or if a patient's platelets are not functioning (PFA test)
75
What population is receiving granulocyte transfusions?
Neutropenic patient transfusions to fight infections. Must be irradiated, should NOT be leukoreduced. You need an ABO type match.
76
Refractory means what regarding platelets?
The platelet is not working. They should maybe try HLA
77
How long are platelets approved to be stored according to the FDA?
5 days at midnight
78
What is the indication for receiving whole blood product?
Symptomatic anemia with low volume
79
What is the dosage for whole blood product?
RBC and plasma
80
When does whole blood expire?
21-42 days
81
What is the indication for receiving RBC product?
Symptomatic anemia
82
When do RBC expire?
21-42 days
83
What is the indication for receiving RBC (WASHED) product?
Allergies/rare
84
When do washed RBCs expire?
After 24 hours
85
What is the indication for receiving RBC (LEUKOREDUCED) product?
Reduce CMV, febrile TRXN
86
When do LRBC expire?
21-42 days
87
What is the indication for receiving RBC (IRRADIATED) product?
Immunocompromised
88
When do irradiated RBC expire?
21 days
89
What is the indication for receiving platelet pheresis?
Bleeding due to inactive or low platelets
90
What is the indication for receiving platelet pool products?
ITP, refractory
91
When do platelets expire?
5 days
92
What is the indication for receiving granulocytes?
Neutropenia and infection
93
When do granulocytes expire?
24 hours
94
What is the dosage for granulocyte products?
10-15mL/Kg
95
What is the indication for receiving plasma?
TTP, factor deficiency
96
When does plasma expire?
1 year frozen; 5 days thawed
97
What is the dosage for plasma?
+15-20% factor
98
What is the indication for receiving cryoprecipitate?
Hypofibrinogenemia, Factor 8 deficicency
99
When does crytoprecipitate expire?
1 year frozen; 4-6 hours thawed
100
What is the dosage for cryoppt?
+ 60-100mg/dL fibrinogen
101
What does cryoprecipitate contain?
Fibrinogen, VWF, VIII, XIII, V
102
What is the deferral period for incarceration?
12 months
103
What is the deferral period for pregnancy?
Not at all during pregnancy. 6 weeks after giving birth.
104
What is the dosage for RBC?
10 - 15mL/kg + 3g/dL Hb
105
What is the dosage for PLT?
+ 30,000 - 60,000/uL
106
What is the deferral period for accutane?
1 month
107
What is the deferral period for clopidogrel (plavix)?
14 days after last dose
108
What is the deferral period for aspirin?
48 hours
109
What is the deferral period for growth hormone?
Indefinite (mad cow)
110
What is the deferral period for Hep B Ig?
3 months
111
What is the deferral period for Tegison?
Permanent
112
What chromosome is HLA on?
Chromosome 6
113
What cells have HLA antigen on them?
WBC and PLT
114
What are the clinical applications for HLA?
Paternity testing, Breast cancer risk, bone marrow matching
115
HLA Testing
Cytotoxicity (best), Molecular, ELISA, flow
116
Disease correlation for HLA
Ankylosing spondylitis (strongest), Celiac, narcolepsy, RA

Blood Bank 1 (9 decks)

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