BB Exam 4 Practicum Flashcards

1
Q

What is complete antibody? What type of antibody is usually responsible for it?

A

Can bind to corresponding antigen and directly agglutinate RBCs suspended in saline. IgM’s are usually suspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe incomplete antibody. What type of antibody is usually responsible for it?

A

Nonagglutinating because their monomer structure is too small to directly agglutinate. They need sensitized RBCs to agglutinate. IgG is usually suspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is associated with anti- big i?

A

Cold agglutinin syndrome or cold hemagglutinin disease (CHD)
The bacteria associated with this antibody is M. pneumoniae
Patients can present with peripheral vascular occlusion (acrocyanosis) or hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is associated with anti - little i?

A

Infectious mononucleosis
Epstein barr virus
CMV
Lymphoproliferative disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Big i and little i antigens are involved in what kind of condition or diseases?

A

Cold agglutinins
Acquired hemolytic anemia
chronc dyserythropoietic anemia type II
Hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity (HEMPAS)
Congenital cataracts (commonly in asians)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is associated with anti - P?

A

PCH
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)
Parasitic infection (Anti- P1) - Echinococcus granulosus
Facioliasis aka bovine liver fluke disease - Anti-P1
Habitual early abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Duffy null or Fy(a=b=) is associated with

A

Resistance to P. knowlesi and P. vivax (malaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anti- Kell is associated with

A

McLeod Syndrome (anti-K, anti-k) - CGD
vulnerable to bacterial infection
Fetal anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kell antibodies are associated with…

A

Immediate / delayed HTR
HDFN
Streptococcus faecium (not sure why)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are circumstances a person might exhibit unexpected antibodies?

A

Transfusion
Transplantation
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an antibody screen?

A

Its a method to detect clinically significant antibodies ( and insignificant) in both blood donor and recipient as part of pretransfusion compatibility testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the RBC reagent used in antibody screen.

A

Mandated by the FDA, type O RBCs express

Type O RBCs that have the most common and significant antigens. Group O is used to avoid agglutination from Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies. This will allow other antibodies to bind. Each different O type RBCs used usually have R1R1, R2R2, or/and rr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a cell panel?

A

A method used for antibody ID. Its a collection of 11 to 20 group O RBCs with various antigen expressed. Diverse antigen expressions are used to help rule out antibodies. They include homozygous expression of Rh, Duffy, Kidd, and MNSs antigens.

Profile sheet can indicate presence of rare cells (low prevalence antigens).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would an antibody screen react in the presence of multiple antibodies?

A

The multiple antibodies would present as multiple strengths of agglutination in the same phase or different phases.

Certain antibodies can be enhanced or destroyed by enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of antibodies would react in RT phase?

A

Usually IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What kind of antibodies would react in 4C phase?

A

IgM or Cryoagglutinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What antibodies would react at 37C or AHG phase?

A

IgG would react

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What enzymes are found in papaya?

A

Papain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What enzymes are found in pineapple?

A

Bromelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What enzymes are found in figs?

21
Q

What enzymes are found in a pig’s stomach?

22
Q

What is zeta potential?

23
Q

How does albumin enhance agglutinaiton?

A

Increases dielectric constant leading to a reduced zeta potential

24
Q

What blood groups show dosage?

A

Kidd, Duffy, Rh, and MNSs

25
What blood groups are complement dependent?
Kidd, Lewis, and Big i
26
What blood groups are enhanced by enzymes?
Rh, Kidd, Lewis, Big i, and P1
27
What blood groups are destroyed by enzymes?
Duffy and MNSs
28
What blood groups are hemolytic?
Lewis Anti-Vel ( low frequency) P1 Kidd ABO
29
What blood groups react best in RT with saline?
Lewis Big I and little i P1 M ABH N Anti-Lua
30
What blood groups react
31
What does chloroquine do in antibody studies?
Strips IgG from DAT+ RBCs and removes Bg (HLA antigens) antigens from RBCs
32
DTT, dithiothreitol in antibody studies?
denatures RBC antigens of mutliple groups including Kell, Lutheran, Dombrock, Yt, and LW. It can also remove IgM antibody activity from serum.
33
ZZAP in antibody studies
Combination of DTT and proteolytic enzymes. Removes IgM antigens on RBCs
34
What kind of antibodies react best at 4C?
Anti - I Anti - i Anti - M Anti - N Anti - P1
35
What kind of antibodies react best during LISS / Albumin, or AHG phase?
Rh group antibodies Anti - S Anti - s
36
What kind of antibodies best react during AHG phase only?
Rh Kell Ss Duffy Kidd Anti-Lub
37
What antibodies are crossmatch compatible?
Anti-Lea Anti-Leb Anti-P1 Anti-M Anti - N
38
What blood groups are destroyed by sulfhydryl compounds?
Lutheran Kell Dombrock Cartwright LW
39
What antibody can be undetectable, clinically significant, and may required multiple techniques to identify conclusively?
Kidd, Jka & Jkb
40
What antibodies can be neutralized?
Lewis, Big I, P, and Sda
41
What antibody prefers an acidic environment?
Anti-M
42
Why do weak reactions sometimes occur between RBCs and their corresponding antibodies?
Occurs b/c of dosage effect4. Its a phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with an RBC carrying a double dose (homozygous) than with a RBC carrying a single dose (heterozygous) of an antigen.
43
When are elutions of value?
When an antibody or complement is bound to the surface of the RBC. Eluate may be tested against an RBC panel to identify antibody. It is usually done after a positive DAT.
44
What is a total elution?
A method of elution that releases antibodies and RBC antigen. The RBC is destroyed in the process. Useful in antibody identification
45
What is a partial elution?
Antibody is released from the RBC without destroying it. The pH method uses glycine acid solution (pH 3) to release antibody into acidic supernatant. After harvesting supernatant the supernatant low pH is neutralized with buffer.
46
What is adsorption?
Used to remove antibody from serum by adding target antigen and allowing the antibody to bind to the antigen during incubation. It is useful in removing autoantibody that may be masking an alloantibody. There can only be a maximum number of 4 adsorptions.
47
When are adsorptions of value?
Used to... Detect autoimmune disorders Separate multiple antibodies Remove autoantibody Confirm antigen existence on RBC Confirm antibody specificity Detect weakly expressed antigens Detect weakly reactive antibodies
48
What is auto-adsorption and when is it used?
Auto-adsorption removes autoantibodies from plasma, leaving behind alloantibodies. The procedure uses patient's cells + patient's serum. The technique is used in patients that have no been transfused and to eliminate suspicion of an autoimmune disorder.