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BLOOD BANKING > BB D-2 > Flashcards

BB D-2 Flashcards

1
Q

A description of the antiglobulin test is

A

AHG reacts with human globulin molecules bound to RBCs.

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2
Q

AHG reacts with human globulin molecules bound to RBCs.

A

Remove traces of free serum globulins.

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3
Q

Which of the following best describes MN antigens and antibodies?

A

Well developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, generally saline reactive

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4
Q

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?

A

ANTI-K

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5
Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to Plasmodium vivax malaria?

A

DUFFY

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6
Q

Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in whites?

A

Fy (a- b-)

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7
Q

Antibodies to antigens in which of the following blood groups are known for showing dosage?

A

KIDD

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8
Q

Which antibody is most commonly associated with DELAYED hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

ANTI-JK

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9
Q

A patient with an Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection will most likely develop a cold autoantibody with specificity to which antigen?

A

I

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10
Q

Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A

FY

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11
Q

A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is neutralized by plasma. Which of the following could be the specificity?

A

ANTI-Ch

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12
Q

How many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires?

A

3 days

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13
Q

How many days must a pretransfusion specimen and donor unit segments be retained post-transfusion?

A

7 days

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14
Q

If a blood type cannot be resolved, what ABO group should be selected for a red blood cell transfusion?

A

GROUP 0

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15
Q

Which is NOT true of rouleaux formation?

A

Can be seen in the antiglobulin test

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16
Q

An antigen-antibody reaction alone does not cause hemolysis. Which of the following is required for red blood cell lysis?

A

COMPLEMENT

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17
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Xg blood group system?

A

The Xg antigen has a higher frequency in women than in men.

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18
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies?

A

Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb?

A

React well with enzyme-treated panel cells

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20
Q

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized with pooled human plasma?

A

Anti-Ch and anti-Rg

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about anti-U?

A

Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

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22
Q

To demonstrate whether the antibody(ies) has/have become attached this patient’s red blood cells IN VIVO, which of the following tests would be most useful?

A

Direct antiglobulin test

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23
Q

Which antibody is typically considered to be an autoantibody if found in the serum of an adult?

A

ANTI-I

24
Q

Which of the following antibodies is classified as “biphasic” and an autoantibody?

A

ANTI-P

25
Q

How can IgG antibodies be removed from red cells?

A

ELUTION

26
Q

Check (Coombs control) cells are:

A

Added to every negative antiglobulin test

27
Q

Anticoagulant used to collect blood samples for the direct AHG test (DAT) to avoid in vitro complement attachment associated with refrigerated, clotted specimens:

A

EDTA

28
Q

Enhancement media for AHG testing

A

ALBUMIN, POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL, LISS

29
Q

The prevalence of___ in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population.

A

Sc2

30
Q

Leach phenotypes may have weak expression of ___ blood group antigens.

A

KELL

31
Q

Excluding ABO, the ___ antigen is rated second only to D antigen in immunogenicity.

A

KELL

32
Q

Carla expresses the blood group antigens Fya, Fyb,and Xg a. James shows expressions of none of these antigens. What factor(s) may account for the absence of these antigens in James?

A

GENDER AND RACE

33
Q

Which of the following enhancement media decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together?

A

LISS

34
Q

Which antibodies to a component of complement are contained in the rabbit polyspecific AHG reagent for detection of in vivo sensitization?

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

35
Q

A technologist is having great difficulty resolving an antibody mixture. One of the antibodies is anti-Lea. This antibody is not clinically significant in this situation, but it needs to be removed to reveal the possible presence of an underlying antibody of clinical significance. What can be done?

A

NEUTRALIZE THE SERUM WITH SALIVA

36
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the MN genotype?

A

Dosage effect may be seen for both M and N antigens

37
Q

A patient is suspected of having paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH). Which pattern of reactivity is characteristic of the Donath–Landsteiner antibody, which causes this condition?

A

The antibody attaches to RBCs at 4°C and causes hemolysis at 37°C

38
Q

How can interfering anti-P1 antibody be removed from a mixture of antibodies?

A

Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid

39
Q

What does a minor crossmatch consist of?

A

Recipient plasma and donor red cells

40
Q

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?

A

O NEGATIVE

41
Q

What type(s) of red cells is (are) acceptable to transfuse to an O-negative patient?

A

O NEGATIVE

42
Q

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?

A

Perform a saline replacement technique

43
Q

A patient types as AB positive. Two units of blood have been ordered by the physician. Currently, the inventory shows no AB units, 10 A-positive units, 1 A-negative unit, 5 B-positive units, and 20 O-positive units. Which should be set up for the major crossmatch?

A

A POSITIVE UNITS

44
Q

When may an immediate-spin (IS) crossmatch be performed?

A

When there is no history of antibodies and the current antibody screen is negative

45
Q

A patient’s serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka or anti-Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(s)?

A

Enzyme panel; select cell panel

46
Q

An anti-M reacts strongly through all phases of testing. Which of the following techniques would NOT contribute to removing this reactivity so that more clinically significant antibodies may be revealed?

A

Acidifying the serum

47
Q

Red cells from a recently transfused patient were DAT positive when tested with anti-IgG. Screen cells and a panel performed on a patient’s serum showed very weak reactions with inconclusive results. What procedure could help to identify the antibody?

A

Elution followed by a panel on the eluate

48
Q

If a group A patient was crossmatched with an O donor, the result would be:

A

Minor side incompatible

49
Q

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?

A

ABO

50
Q

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause PRODUCTION OF AUTOANTIBODIES?

A

METHYLDOPA

51
Q

Polyagglutinable cells are agglutinated by the majority of adult human sera, irrespective of:

A

BLOOD GROUP

52
Q

T activation is a form of polyagglutination that is caused by microorganisms that produce ___ as a metabolic byproduct.

A

NEURAMINDASE

53
Q

HEMPAS red blood cells are characterized by:

A

Increased amount of i antigen

54
Q

Patients with in vivo polyagglutination should be give transfusions of:

A

WASHED RED BLOOD CELLS

55
Q

From the following list, select a form of polyagglutination that is genetically INHERITED:

A

CAD

BLOOD BANKING (4 decks)

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