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1
Q

Ubiquinone

A

is the fully oxidized form of coenzyme Q, which participates in the electron transport chain in the mitochondrial membrane. Complex 2, takes e to C3

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2
Q

In genetic leakage, the hybrid offspring of two diff parental species must be ______

A

Fertile

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3
Q

Independent variable is _______ by scientists

A

manipulated

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4
Q

slope of a Lineweaver-Burk plot is equal to

A

the Km/Vmax ratio,

a decreased value for Km (decreased numerator) and an increased Vmax value (increased denominator) both contribute to a decreased slope.

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5
Q

DNA polymerase role in DNA repair

A

DNA polymerase helps the correct base to pair with the opposite strand, and a ligase enzyme catalyzes formation of new phosphodiester bonds

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6
Q

Endonuclease vs Exonuclease

A

the DNA backbone is cleaved by exonucleases (end of chain)

endonucleases cleave phosphodiester bonds within a strand (mid chain somewhere)

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7
Q

To assess how nitrogen base pairs match:

A

Hydrogen bond donors and acceptors must be aligned
A,T make two bonds
G,C make three

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8
Q

Proteins with ubiquitin tags are typically ___

A

targeted to the proteasome for destruction.

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9
Q

Gibbs is characterized by ____ actions, free energy decreases with each __ action

A

spontaneous

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10
Q

Competitive inhibitors bind ___ only
Uncompetitive inhibitors bind ___ only
Mixed inhibitors bind _____, though they may have a higher affinity for ____, or vice versa
Noncompetitive inhibitors are a special case of mixed inhibitor in which the affinities for E and ES are _____

A

Competitive inhibitors bind E only
Uncompetitive inhibitors bind ES only
Mixed inhibitors bind both E and ES, though they may have a higher affinity for E than for ES, or vice versa
Noncompetitive inhibitors are a special case of mixed inhibitor in which the affinities for E and ES are exactly equal

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11
Q

Chaperone proteins help in __

A

folding

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12
Q

What is a signal sequence and where is it never found?

A

tells mRNA where to go (like transmembrane protein to ER) usually to secretory pathway, never on functional proteins

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13
Q

DNA dispersive model of replication?

A

in which bases segregate randomly to daughter strands.

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14
Q

DNA made 5–>3 , What attaches to what?

A

1st nucleotide 3C hydroxyl attaches to 2nd nucleotide 5C phosphate hydroxyl

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15
Q

5’ UTR is _____ of promotor so it is _____

A

upstream

transcribed just not translated

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16
Q

A mature mRNA consists of ____

A 
a 5’-cap (one base pair)
the 5' UTR
coding regions
3' UTR
Poly(A) tail
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17
Q

Most compact structure in chromatin?

A

Nucleosomes more compact than any chromatin structure

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18
Q

Acetylation of histones involves the transfer of an ____, increasing gene expression by disrupting _____ between histones and DNA.

A

acetyl group to positively charged amino groups on lysine or arginine residues
Salt bridges

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19
Q

Why does GC have more pi stacking?

A

G-C has 3 bonds so less rotation, more stability, more pi stacking

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20
Q

DNA coding strand will always be ____ mRNA except with U instead of T

A

Same as, U instead of T

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21
Q

Describe Thymine and Uracil similarity and difference

A

both have 2 carbonyls and an amine group

T has a methyl as well

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22
Q

The molecular weight of dNMPs in decreasing order is dine (dCMP).

A

deoxyguanosine (dGMP), deoxyadenosine (dAMP), deoxythymidine (dTMP), and deoxycytidine (dCMP).

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23
Q

siRNA?

A

siRNAs are highly specific

synthesized to reduce the translation of specific messenger RNAs (mRNAs)–> reduce the synthesis of particular proteins

form from double-stranded RNA transcribed and then cut to size in the nucleus before releasing into the cytoplasm.

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24
Q

For nucleotides, Tm is ____

A

is temp at which 50% of dsDNA unfolded to ssDNA

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25
Q

Transcription factor?

A

has a DNA-binding domain that allows it to bind to regulatory nucleic acid sequences in a gene to alter transcription

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26
Q

How does drop in pH affect DNA?

A

protonation of hydrogen-bond acceptors 🡪 loss in base-pairing interactions.

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27
Q

Presence of positive ions does what to DNA?

A

presence of positive ions in solution (particularly Mg2+) 🡪 stabilization of the DNA fold via shielding of the repulsion between phosphate groups within the DNA backbone

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28
Q

Lipid raft is membrane region with high ____concentration

A

Cholesterol

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29
Q

Enzymes cannot alter _____ structure of protein but can alter _____ conditions

A

Enzymes cannot alter primary structure of protein but can alter local pH conditions

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30
Q

uncompetitive inhibitor will work most effectively when the substrate concentration is the ____

Why?

A

uncompetitive inhibitors bind their target enzymes only when the substrate is first bound to the enzyme. Since at higher substrate concentrations, the substrate–enzyme complex are more abundant, the uncompetitive inhibitor will work most effectively when the substrate concentration is the highest

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31
Q

What is Kd?

Eqn?

relation to strength of substrate binding?

A

Kd is the dissociation constant. It tells you how well a specific substrate will bind to the enzyme.

Kd= [E][S]/[ES]

The smaller the Kd, the stronger the Substrate is bound to the Enzyme.

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32
Q

kcat is used to describe the ______ of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate

A

rate limiting

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33
Q

traditional Michaelis–Menten kinetics describes a _____ dependence of Vo on substrate concentration

A

hyperbolic

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34
Q

Kinase action and naming?

A

kinase transfers a phosphate group to the substrate, it makes sense that it would transfer the one at the very end (with the free end). Naming nomenclature goes alpha, beta, gamma, delta… It’s the third phosphate group so gamma-phosphate

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35
Q

Ternary enzyme complex?

A

– 1 enzymes, 2 subs

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36
Q

Michaelis Menten - enzymes conc always has to be ____ to find vmax

A

Michaelis Menten - enzymes conc always has to be limiting to find vmax , S»E

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37
Q

Hill coefficient?

A

Hill coefficient measures cooperativity (i.e. hemoglobin, you see sigmoidal kinetic curves, not following michaelis menten) n>1 = cooperativity, n=1 no cooperativity n<1 = negative cooperativity

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38
Q

How do glucocorticoids affect muscle strength?

A

glucocorticoids increase gluconeogenesis and amino acid breakdown from muscles, causing long term muscle weakness

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39
Q

Non reducing sugar?

A

non reducing - no free anomeric carbons

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40
Q

Non reducing sugars (_____) cannot undergo mutarotation. The process of mutarotation requires ____

A

No hemiacetal groups

ring opening, which occurs at a hemiacetal group

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41
Q

Which C is anomeric in fructose?

A

anomeric carbon is C2, not C1

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42
Q

L and D sugar configuration

A

Sugars are classified as L or D based on the configuration of the highest numbered chiral carbon (the anomeric carbon is assigned the lowest number possible)

R config – D
S config – L

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43
Q

alpha and beta sugars?

A

Sugars classified as a or B due to anomeric config

B is cis / equatorial
A is trans / axial

cis and trans to CH2OH group

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44
Q

Commensalism

A

When one species benefits but the other species is neither helped nor harmed, that is commensalism

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45
Q

Which amino acids disrupt alpha helices?

A

Proline and glycine disrupt α-helices and are not commonly found within them

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46
Q

pull down term definition

A

A pull down for a protein is a generic term for pulling out a protein from a cell lysate (or from a particular fraction of a cell like the nuclear fraction) with the help of another protein that binds to it.

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47
Q

Avg weight of amino acid is

A

110 Da

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48
Q

Salt bridges in proteins are bonds between

A

oppositely charged residues

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49
Q

Dimerization occurs where and why?

A

in cytosol , hydrophobic side chains conjoin

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50
Q

At pH 7 histidine charge?

A

neutral, bc pka is 6

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51
Q

unfolding of proteins is a _____ process. Cooperative processes are marked by _____

A

unfolding of proteins is a cooperative process. Cooperative processes are marked by sigmoidal curves

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52
Q

Urea affect on protein?

A

Urea induces the unfolding and denaturation of proteins by exposing hydrophobic groups and interfering with hydrogen bonding in the amino acid backbone.

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53
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation in which processes is it used?

A

aerobic glycolysis
generation of ATP from β-oxidation
ETC

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54
Q

Where is water used in Krebs?

A

there’s only one reaction in the TCA that involves the addition of water which is the fumarase-catalyzed step to form malate

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55
Q

Stereospecific products in Krebs?

A

citric acid cycle makes two stereospecific things, L malate and D isocitrate

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56
Q

The fluidity of a cell membrane is largely dependent on ____

A

lengths of the fatty acyl tails in the bilayer + number of double bonds in each tail.

Short chains with double bonds yield the highest fluidity because they participate in the fewest hydrophobic interactions with neighboring lipids

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57
Q

Myoglobin?

A

Myoglobin is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organs

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58
Q

Vasoconstriction affect of velocity and BP?

A

Vasoconstriction 🡪 increased velocity and decreased pressure of blood, blood diverted from certain organs, helps during times of hemorrhage

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59
Q

Is atp synthase in bacteria

A

yer

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60
Q

How does dehydration deteriorate kidney?

A

Dehydration 🡪 less blood to kidney 🡪 kidney failure (not bc of salt buildup)

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61
Q

Increase heat transfer from organism to environment by

A

increase superficial blood flow or increase respiration

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62
Q

Southern blot (DNA) and restriction sites?

A

Southern blot uses a restriction digest to differentiate between mutant and wild-type alleles. In order for a Southern blot to be useful, the mutation should either create or eliminate a restriction site, most of which are palindromes and 4 to 6 base pairs long

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63
Q

Pellet vs supernatant

A

when you centrifuge a given sample, the higher density portion settles to the bottom and forms a pellet and the other stuff is the supernatant

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64
Q

Reverse transcriptase?

A

Makes DNA from RNA, used to make cDNA from mRNA

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65
Q

In the context of a kinetics experiment it is perfectly logical to assume that albumin is added to ______ and prevent the enzyme from _______

A

In the context of a kinetics experiment it is perfectly logical to assume that albumin is added to maintain homogeneity and prevent the enzyme from adhering to walls and other surfaces which would inhibit its activity

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66
Q

Indep variable vs dep variable?

A

Indep variable is manipulated to assess dep variable

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67
Q

If in one sample 2/3 ppl are white, and you want to see their pairing results with whites again, ____

A

multiply by 2/3 = 4/9 chances whites will mate

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68
Q

Genetic drift refers to random genetic changes in allele frequency that are due to ______. Low-frequency alleles have an ______ of being lost by genetic drift compared to those present at _____

A

Genetic drift refers to random genetic changes in allele frequency that are due to chance events (not natural selection). Low-frequency alleles have an increased probability of being lost by genetic drift compared to those present at higher frequencies

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69
Q

Genetic leakage happens when hybrid offspring is ____

A

fertile

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70
Q

The ovary is a _____, all _____ are made of epithelial cells

A

The ovary is a gland, all glands are made of epithelial cells

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71
Q

Bacteria conduct oxidative phosphorylation via ____

A

Bacteria conduct oxidative phosphorylation via plasma membrane

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72
Q

Epithelial vs endothelial cells

A

Epithelial cells are packed together tightly into sheets that make up the outer layer of the skin (the epidermis), the secretory components of glands, and the lining of the inner cavities of the body (eg, the lumen of hollow organs). Endothelial cells are a specialized type of epithelial cell that line the inside of blood vessels and lymph vessels specifically

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73
Q

Glut 2 used in

A

hepatocytes and pancreatic cells

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74
Q

Glut 4 used in

A

adipose and muscle

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75
Q

Insulin impact in glycolysis?

A

activates PKF2 which makes Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate which activates PFK 1
allows to override ATP inhibition

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76
Q

RBC in anaerobic glycolysis affect on O affinity

A

mutase makes 2,3BPG from 1,3BPG which binds allosterically to hbA and decreases O2 affinity

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77
Q

DHAP converted to what and used where?

A

Glycerol3P by G3P dehydrogenase

  • TGL synthesis in hepatic/adispose
  • Electron transport shuttle
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78
Q

is NADH or NAD used for lactate dehydrogenase in glycoysis

A

NADH

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79
Q

In glycolysis how to identify a SLP

A

ATP is made
Kinase involved
step 6 and 9

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80
Q

Fate of galactose

A

glucose

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81
Q

fate of fructose

A

DHAP and glyceraldehyde-3-P

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82
Q

Products of pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

Acetyl coA
CO2
NADH

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83
Q

Pyruvate fate?

A

Acetyl CoA (pyruvate dehydrogenase)
lactate (lactate dehydrogenase)
oxaloacetate (pyruvate carboxylase)

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84
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of glycogenesis

A

Glycogen synthase

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85
Q

Glycogen synthase creates ___ branches

Branching enzyme creates __ branches

A

a-1,4-glycosidic

a-1,6-glycosidic

86
Q

Glycogenolysis rate limiting enzyme

A

glycogen phosphorylase

87
Q

gluconeogenesis substrates

A

glycerol 3 phosphate
lactate
gluconeogenic amino acids

88
Q

Ketogenic amino acids

A

Lys, Leu

89
Q

both keto and glucogenic aa

A

WIFTY

90
Q

FA with odd numbered carbon atoms

A

can make glucose via propionyl coA

91
Q

opposite of kinase

A

phosphatase

92
Q

how are lactate and gluconeogenic amino acids entered into gluconeogenesis?

A

converted to pyruvate

93
Q

How does pyruvate go into gluconeogenesis?

A

goes into mitochondria
converted to OAA by pyruvate carboxylase
OAA leaves mitochondria (reduced to malate, back to OAA)
OAA converted to PEP by PEP carboxykinase

94
Q

energy molecules needed in gluconeogenesis

A

ATP for pyruvate carboxylase

GTP for PEP carboxykinase

95
Q

rate limiting enzyme in PPP

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

96
Q

Products of PPP

A 
2x NADPH (using dehydrogenase enzymes)
ribulose 5 phosphate
97
Q

NADPH used for

A

cholesterol
FA synthesis
reduction of glutathione (ROS protection)

98
Q

KREBS mnemonic

A

Citrate Is krebs starting substrate for making oxaloacetate

99
Q

Krebs control points

A

citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-keto dehydrogenase
FIRST 3 STEPS

100
Q

name 4 ETC complexes

A

NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase
Succinate-CoQ oxidoreductase
Cytochrome oxidoreductase
Cytochrome oxidase

101
Q

fructose is a __oxe

A

hexose

102
Q

is sucrose reducing

A

no

103
Q

ketoses in basic conditions make

A

aldoses

104
Q

Deoxy sugar?

A

C2 sugar deprotonates

105
Q

Glycogen, amylopectin, amylose, cellulose branches

A

a 1, 6
a 1, 6
a 1, 4
B 1, 4

106
Q

amylose branched or unbranched

A

unbranched

107
Q

steroid shape

A

4 cycloalkane rings
3 hex
1 pent

108
Q

how are prostaglandins made?

A

from arachidonic acid catalyzed by COX

109
Q

nucleotide is nucleoside with

A

phosphate

110
Q

phosphodiester bond releases

A

PPi

111
Q

Telomere sequence

A

TTAGGG

112
Q

DNA synthesis enzymes in euk and prok

A

euk - DNA polymerase alpha, delta, etc

prok - DNA polymerase 3

113
Q

in replication, which enzymes remove RAN in euk and prok

A

euk - RNAse H

prok- DNA polymerase 1

114
Q

ddATP

A

no OH on C3, nothing can be added

115
Q

protein assembled from ____ to ____ (think animo acids)

A

amino to carboxyl end

116
Q

Transcription enzyme in euk

A

RNA polymerase 2

117
Q

where do ribosomes bind on RNA

A

5 cap

118
Q

P–>A site in elongation needs what enzyme

A

peptidyl transferase

119
Q

phrenylation

A

adding lipid to protein

120
Q

FA synthesis steps

A

citrate –> acetyl coA –> malonyl coA –> FA palmitate

121
Q

TGL made in what and stored where

A

liver, in adipose as VLDL

122
Q

B oxidation products

A

FA –> acetyl Coa (+ NADH + FADH2)

acetyl coA can go to TCA or ketones

123
Q

B oxidation steps

A

oxidation, hydration, oxidation, splitting

124
Q

even # FA vs odd # FA fate in B oxidation

A

even makes 2 acetyl coA

odd makes 1 acetyl coA and 1 propionyl coa

125
Q

Which amino acids are ionizable?

A

7 Amino acids with ionizable side groups (R, K, Y, C, H, E, and D) have three pKa values
tyrosine, cysteine + 3 basic ones and 2 acidic ones

126
Q

cytoplasmically inherited disorder is transmitted to offspring how?

A

it will be transmitted through cytoplasmic components, of which mitochondria are examples.

127
Q

In a fertilized egg, the mitochondria of ova predominate over sperm’s due to ____

A

their much larger numbers compared to the mitochondria of sperm.

128
Q

Double crossover event?

A

A double-crossover event is one in which chromosomal arms of homologous chromosomes cross over in two different places along the arm.  This results in a section in the middle of each chromosome being exchanged

129
Q

In electrophoresis, anode is

A

positive

130
Q

Which muscle types use sarcomeres? (i.e. use troponin)

A

Skeletal and cardiac

131
Q

Major reason for peptide bond stability

A

Partial double bond character from N-C resonance

132
Q

alkene formation, reduction or oxidation?

A

oxidation possibly, bc H is lost but make sure from passage details

133
Q

Going from alkene to OH, is this reduction or oxidation

A

Neither, OH adds two protons and an Oxygen - no net reduction or oxidation

134
Q

Cholesterol effect on membrane fluidity

A

cholesterol acts as a buffer, increasing fluidity at low temperatures and decreasing fluidity at high temperatures.

135
Q

Homologous vs analogous features?

A

Analogous structures are those structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function. Thus, the wing of a bee and the wing of a bird are analogous structures.

Homologous structures are those that have a similar evolutionary history, arising from the same source, even if they now have different functions. The forelimbs of mammals (human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing) would all be homologous despite their different functions.

136
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids require isomerization reactions to convert __to ___ whereas saturated fatty acids do not.

A

Unsaturated fatty acids require isomerization reactions to convert cis-bonds to trans-bonds whereas saturated fatty acids do not.

137
Q

Cholesterol has a characteristic ____ backbone, which is synthesized from five-carbon subunits called ____

A

Cholesterol has a characteristic four-ring backbone, which is synthesized from five-carbon subunits called isoprenes.

138
Q

Bottleneck Effect

A
  • sudden reduction in population of species
  • no species is protected, occurs randomly
  • reduces genetic diversity
139
Q

Sign based attraction is always __ than polarity based

A

greater than

140
Q

Mendellian genetics like recessivity and dominance not in _____ gene transmission

A

mitochondrial

141
Q

In cDNA cloning, reverse transcriptase generates a ____ from a target ___ sequence.

A

In cDNA cloning, reverse transcriptase generates a single strand of cDNA from a target mRNA sequence. DNA polymerase synthesizes the second complementary DNA strand and amplifies the target cDNA sequence. The target cDNA can then be inserted into a plasmid vector via the actions of a restriction enzyme (cuts both plasmid and vector) and DNA ligase (joins the cDNA to the vector)

142
Q

In general, the perceived color of a substance is complementary to the color of the wavelength that is ______ by that substance.

A

In general, the perceived color of a substance is complementary to the color of the wavelength that is maximally absorbed by that substance.

Red Green
Blue Orange
Violet Yellow

143
Q

How does FA enter mitochondria? (3 molecules used)

A

FA activated by CoA into acylcoa that enters 1st mitochondrial membrane (ATP used)
acylcoA and carnitine enter matrix
carnitine dissociates

144
Q

Clotting factors (mainly synthesized in the ____) are specialized proteins that become activated in response to platelet aggregation and signaling factors outside the vessel.

A

liver

145
Q

An open reading frame (ORF) is____

A

An open reading frame (ORF) is a set of codons within a strand of mRNA that can be translated by a ribosome

146
Q

cholesterol is made from ______ which has _ isoprene units

A

squalene

6 isoprene makes 1 triterpene

147
Q

Cori cycle

A

During anaerobic exercise, pyruvate is reduced to lactate to regenerate NAD+. Lactate that builds up in muscles is sent to the liver, where it is converted back to glucose and returned to muscles. This process is called the Cori cycle.

148
Q

Glycerophospholipids contain two hydrolyzable fatty acyl chains, but sphingolipids contain __

A

1

149
Q

NADH carries___electrons in the form of a ____ ion, and these electrons enter Complex I of the ETC to reduce ubiquinone (UQ) to ubiquinol (UQH2).

A

NADH carries two electrons in the form of a hydride H− ion, and these electrons enter Complex I of the ETC to reduce ubiquinone (UQ) to ubiquinol (UQH2).

150
Q

Catalytic turnover

A

Catalytic turnover refers to the rate at which an enzyme-bound substrate is converted to product. It is given by the rate constantkcat and is proportional to the maximum reaction rateVmax.

151
Q

in uncompetitive inhibition, Km and Vmax decreased by ___ factor

A

the same factor

152
Q

km

A

0 order

153
Q

Fatty acid synthesis occurs where and needs what 3 things

A

Cytosol

acetyl coA, NADPH, ATP

154
Q

How do medium and short chain FA enter mitochondria

A

simple diffusion, no needs for transporters

155
Q

acetyl coa carboxylase used where

A

acetyl coa –> malonlyl coA –> FA

156
Q

Trans amination in protein catabolism

A

NH3 from aa backbone transferred to a-ketoglutarate making glutamate
glutamate is deaminated to NH3 which makes urea

157
Q

ketogenic amino acids can become what

A

carbon skeleton –> acetyl coA

then can go either

  • ketone bodies/ FA synthesis
  • Krebs cycle
158
Q

TGL during prolonged starvation

A

FA goes to ketone bodies
glycerol –> glyceraldehyde3 P –> pyruvate –> acetyl coA –> ketone bodies
ketone bodies used by brain during starvation

159
Q

Gap junctions in which muscles?

A

cardiac and smooth

160
Q

Osteocytes are mature and _____ inactive bone cells that maintain bone structure. These cells release signals via ____- to other bone cells to regulate bone remodeling

A

mitotically inactive

canaliculi

161
Q

vasoconstriction effect on BP

A

BP rises

162
Q

Virioid

A

Viroids are subviral infectious particles consisting of a

  • short circular single strand of RNA
  • not surrounded by a protein coat

When infecting cells, viroids can bind host cellular RNA sequences, resulting in gene silencing that prevents synthesis of necessary proteins.

163
Q

Antigen-presenting MHC proteins are expressed on the surface of all ___ cells (ie, except red blood cells)

A

Antigen-presenting MHC proteins are expressed on the surface of all nucleated cells (ie, except red blood cells)

164
Q

Aldosterone also increases excretion of ____ in the urine.

A

Aldosterone also increases excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions in the urine.

165
Q

Rapid actin polymerization near the edge of the cellular membrane is responsible for ____ in complex eukaryotic cells

A

Rapid actin polymerization near the edge of the cellular membrane is responsible for cellular motility in complex eukaryotic cells

166
Q

However, stop codons are recognized by release factors, not tRNA molecules. Therefore, the last tRNA brought into the ribosome binds the codon directly ______ of the stop codon

A

However, stop codons are recognized by release factors, not tRNA molecules. Therefore, the last tRNA brought into the ribosome binds the codon directly upstream of the stop codon

167
Q

mRNA read what direction

A

5–>3

168
Q

The brain is the main consumer of ____ in the body.
The brain cells contain glucose transporters that are insulin _____
Brain cells are unable to use_____ for energy.

A

The brain is the main consumer of glucose in the body.
The brain cells contain glucose transporters that are insulin independent.
Brain cells are unable to use fatty acids for energy.

169
Q

blood pressure in ___ does not change

A

capillaries

170
Q

Cation exchange column

A

wall is neg charged

171
Q

Kinases do not transfer inorganic phosphate to molecules. The phosphate must come from a ____

A

Kinases do not transfer inorganic phosphate to molecules. The phosphate must come from a high-energy nucleotide triphosphate such as ATP or GTP.

172
Q

Like glucagon, the hormone __ increases blood glucose levels in individuals

A

Like glucagon, the hormone epinephrine increases blood glucose levels in individuals

173
Q

non reducing sds page does what two things to a protein

A

Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is a detergent that coats proteins with a negative charge and denatures proteins by disrupting noncovalent interactions.

174
Q

During sympathetic response, blood flow to brain vs muscle?

A

muscles need lots of blood so vessels will vasodilate there

brain needs blood but not at that pressure so vessels will be moderated to maintain blood flow (i.e will not vasodilate)

175
Q

RNA/DNA polymerase reads DNA in which direction?

A

3–>5

176
Q

what mode of metabolism used at start vs sustained fasting

A

start: gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
sustained: fatty acid oxidation and ketogenesis

177
Q

adrenal medulla part of which branch of autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic only

178
Q

Transcription factors do what

A

make sure the right genes are expressed in the right cell at the right time in the right concentration

179
Q

Lipoic acid is a co factor in which metabolic pathway

A

pyruvate to acetyl-coA

180
Q

Rate limiting enzyme of PPP

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

makes G6P into 6-Phosphoglucolactone

181
Q

Apoptosis is induced when ____ is allowed to leave the mitochondria and enter the cytosol, where it activates ______.

A

cytochrome c

caspase

182
Q

Energy source in translation

A

GTP

183
Q

Test cross

A

Often called back crosses since they are used to determine the genotype of the parent based on the phenotype of its offspring
Organism with an unknown genotype is crossed with an organism known to be homozygous recessive

184
Q

For dihybrid cross genes must be

A

unlinked

185
Q

Recombination Frequency:

A

likelihood of two alleles being separated from each other during crossing over.

186
Q

what must happen for evolution to occur

A

change in allele frequency

187
Q

Differential Reproduction:

A

The traits passed on by the more successful organisms will become wide-spread

188
Q

Adaptive Radiation:

A

rapid rise of a number of different species from a common ancestor.

189
Q

Where to ketones go

A

brain, muscle and renal cortex NOT liver

190
Q

• Nervous tissue, kidney tubules, intestinal mucosa, RBCs, Pancreatic -cells have a glucose uptake that is not affected by_____

A

• Nervous tissue, kidney tubules, intestinal mucosa, RBCs, Pancreatic B-cells

191
Q

Smooth muscle has which cell junction

A

gap

192
Q

cardiac muscle has what cell junctions

A

desmosomes and gap

193
Q

What hormone is known as prolactin inhibiting factor PIF

A

Dopamine

194
Q

oxytocin feedback loop

A

positive

195
Q

Which cells make calcitonin

A

C cells or parafollicular cells

196
Q

High temp does what to hemoglobin oxygen affinity

A

decreases it

197
Q

Negative selection

A

Negative Selection: B or T-cells that react to self-antigens are eliminated before they leave the bone marrow.

198
Q

Enteropeptidase made where and does what

A

Enteropeptidase, which is produced in the duodenum, activates other peptidases like trypsinogen to trypsin

199
Q

White fibers are

A

fast twitch

less mitochondria

200
Q

Ghrelin secreted by _____, obese ppl have ____ stores of energy thus need less ghrelin

A

Ghrelin secreted by stomach, obese ppl have more stores of energy thus need less ghrelin

201
Q

When choosing an antigen for vaccine production, there are two aspects to consider: ____

A

immunogenicity and toxicity.

202
Q

RT-PCR is a molecular technique that measures

A

mRNA levels of specific protein.

203
Q

GABA does what

A

inhibitory, causes cl- to enter cell

204
Q

The number of different possible gametes that can be formed by diploid organisms as a result of independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis can be calculated using the formula

A

2n where n is the haploid number of chromosomes.

205
Q

Synthesis of antibody proteins in eukaryotic cells is associated with what organelle?

A

Rough ER

206
Q

The inorganic component of bone consists of

A

calcium phosphate similar to hydroxyapatite (Ca10[PO4]6[OH]2), so it would be expected to contain calcium, phosphate and hydroxyl groups.

207
Q

does necrosis or apoptosis damage nearby cells?

A

nec mf crosis

208
Q

Arg or Lys more basic

A

Arg,,,,,resonance?

209
Q

Specific activity is a measure of

A

amount of enzyme per mg of total protein

This provides a measure of the purity of an enzymatic mixture

210
Q

Cytosine to uracil, what changes occur to its structure

A

deamination of cytosine, the amine group of cytosine is replaced with a carbonyl group, resulting in the structure of uracil.

MCAT (4 decks)

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