Basic Science Flashcards

1
Q

osteoblast derived from:

A

undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mesenchymal cells become osteoblasts under what factors

A
  1. low strain and increased O2 tension
  2. Transcription factors RUNX2
  3. BMP
  4. Core binding factor Alpha 1 and beta-Catenin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mesenchymal cells become cartilage under what conditions

A

Intermediate strain and low O2 tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pulsatile PTH

A

stimulate osteoblast ativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteoblasts secrete

A
Alk Phos
RankL
Type 1 Collagen
Bone sialoprotein
Osteocalcin (stim by Vit D)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteoblasts inhibited by

A

TNF Alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

WNT’s causes

A

osteoblast proliferation and survival

=increased WNT=increased bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Molecules that sequester wnt

A

Sclerostin and Dickkopf
these inhibit wnt and cause dec bone mass
Inhibiting these will allow WNT to work and cause increased bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

former osteoblasts surrounded by mature bone

A

osteocytes- from mesenchymal lineage
90% of cells in mature bone
control Ca and PO4 homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PTH function

A

stimulates clast activity

activates adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1,25 Vit D3 function on Blasts

A

increases matrix and alk phos synthesis, and production of bone specific proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glucocorticoid effect on blasts

A

inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen, and protein production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prostglandins effect on blasts

A

stimulates bone resorption via activation of Adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Estrogen on blasts

A

anabolic and anticatabolic

inhibits adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

calcitonin on CLASTS

A

inhibits clasts and dec bone resoprtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lineage of osteoclasts

A

hematopoietic stem cells of macrophage lineage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mature osteoclasts bind surfaces by

A

integrin (AlphaVbeta3) or vitronectin receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

howship lacunae mechanisms

A
seal space below clast
make tartrate resistant acid phosphatase
carbonic anyhydrase=hydrogen ions
lower pH
increase solubility of hydroxyapatite crystals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Released by clasts after HA removed to degrade the organic matrix

A

cathepsin K-lysosomal enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IL1 and IL 10 function

A

IL 1= potent stimulator of clast differentiation and bone resoprtion

  • inhibited by anakinra which inhibits clasts and resorption
  • found in TJA osteolysis scenarios

IL 10= suppresses osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

predominant collagen in bone

A

TYPE bONE collagen

provides the tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most abundant non collagen protein in bone

A

osteocalcin
*inhib by PTH
Measure of bone turnonver in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

60 % dry weight of bone is inorganics

Ca hydroxyapatite

A

Ca10(PO4)6(OH2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

attracts osteoclasts, direct regulation of bone density

A

osteocalcin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

secreted by platelets, regulates calcium and organizes matric

A

osteonectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

similar to an integrin and is a cell binding protein

A

osteopontin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Arterial flow in mature bone is in which direction

A

centrifugal- inside to out, which is the net effect of the high pressure nutrient artery haversian canal system and low pressure periosteal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

with fracture how does blood flow in the bone

A

with fx, the centrifugal system is disrupted, the low pressure periosteal system predominates and the flow is out to in centripetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

flow in immature bone

A

out to in, due to high vasc periosteum, ceintripetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Venous flow in mature bone direction

A

out to in centripetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bone replaces a cartilage model

A

enchondral bone formation
LongBones
Fracture Callus
bone made with DBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

aggregate of undifferentiated mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts which form bone

A

intramembranous-
flat bones
Distraction osteogenesis
Blastema bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

osteoblasts lay down new bone on existing bone

A

appositional bone formation
bone formation phase of bone remodeling
Periosteal bone enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Disorder of enchondral bone formation

A

achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

disorder of intramembranous bone formation

A

cleidocranial dysostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Disorder of appositional growth

A

paget’s
melorheostosis
infantile hyperostosis Caffey Dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when do bones begin to form in utero

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

primary ossification centers formed when at gestation

A

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

differentiation stimulated in part by binding of what to what

A

WNT binds to LRP5 and LRP6-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

zones of enchondral bone formation

A

reserve zone
proliferative zone
hypertophic zone
metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lysosomal storage dz causes dysfunction in what zone

A

reserve zone (gaucher’s dz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

decreased O2 tension occurs in what zone

A

reserve zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

stores lipids glycogen and proteoglycans

A

reserve zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

achondroplasia affects which zone

A

proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

growth hormone acts on what zone

A

proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

in this zone, growth is longitudinal, with stacked chrondocytes, cell proliferation and matrix production, O2 tension increases and proteoglycans inhibit calcification

A

proliferative zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

SCFE affect what zone

A

hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3 sub zones of hypertrophic zone

A

maturation
degeneration
provisional calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

matrix mineralization occurs in

A

hypertrophic zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

PTHrP effect on chrondrocytes

A

inhibits chrondocyte maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

IHH produced by chrondocytes and does what

A

regulated (dec) expression of PTHrP
Thus increases chondocytme maturation
and increases matrix mineralization/bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which zone widens in Rickets with little to now provisional calcification

A

Hypertrophic Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

diastrophic dwarfism zone

A

reserve- TYPE II collagen synthesis defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

psueoachondroplasia zone

A

reserve, defect in processing PG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Kneist syndrom zone

A

reserve, PG defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Giganstism zone

A

proliferative zone- increased GH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

achon zone

A

proliferative - FGFr23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

malnutrition, irradtiation and steroid excess zone

A

proliferative- dec prolif or matrix synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mucopolysacharidoses affect what zone

A

maturationa and degeneration zones of hypertrophic zones- deficicnecy in lysosomal acid hydrolases and storage of mucopoly’s- cells cannot prepare matrix for calcification properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

rickets and osteomalacia zone

A

zone of provisional calcification zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

acute hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

primary spongiosa of metaphysis-sluggis circulation and, reticuloendothelial deficiency, low PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

osteopetrosis zone

A

Secondary spongiosa- abnormal clasts (cannot remodel internally)

63
Q

function of secondary spongiosa

A

remodeling zone

64
Q

scurvy zone

A

2ndary spongiosa-inadequate collagen formation

65
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta zone

A

2ndary Spongiosa abnormal blasts and collagen synthesis

66
Q

metaphyseal displasia (Pyle dz) zone

A

secondary spiongiosa

67
Q

SCFE zone in renal osteodystrophy

A

metaphyseal spongiosa

68
Q

inheritence pattern for X linked Hypophosphatemic Rickets

A

X linked Dominant- one X allele hey have the trait,

69
Q

branches of axillary artery

A
Screw the lawyer, save a patient!
S: superior thoracic artery
T: thoracoacromial artery
L: lateral thoracic artery
S: subscapular artery
A: anterior humeral circumflex artery
P: posterior humeral circumflex artery
70
Q

study needed and tumor associated with Bekwith Wideman

A
need afp levels 3-4 times ayear until 8 yo
abdominal and pelvic usg
r/o wilms tumor
hemihypertrophy and large tongue
10% risk of wilms tumor
71
Q

extensor compartments of wrist

A
1- EPL and APB
2. ECRL/ECRB
*Listers*
3. EPL
4, EDC, EIP
5, EDM
6 EDCU
72
Q

What is an isotropic material

A

it has similar mechanical properties regardless of the orientation of the material. Examples of isotropic materials include metals, plastics, and methacrylate. Most biologic tissues are anisotropic, meaning their mechanical properties alter depending on the materials’ orientation to the applied stress.

73
Q

spots for anatomic biopsy

o Wrist

A

dorsal 2nd compartment

74
Q

site for biopsy distal humerus

A

o Distal Humerus = lateral triceps, brachialis muscle

75
Q

biopsy spot proximal humerus

A

o Proximal Humerus = anterior deltoid muscle

76
Q

illiac biopsy spot

A

o Iliac = thru superior abductor muscles

77
Q

supraceteabular region biopsy spot

A

o Supracetabular = Smith-Peterson approach through TFL and rectus femoris muscle

78
Q

femoral neck and head biopsy spot

A

o Femoral Neck and Head = transtrochantlric osseous approach

79
Q

distal femur biopsy spot

A

o Distal Femur = posteromedial or posterolateral border of vastus medialis/lateralis muscle

80
Q

tibia biopsy spot

A

o Tibia = subcutaneous border of tibia

81
Q

patellar problem when converting HTO to total knee arthroplasty

A

patella baja

82
Q

o Tibia = subcutaneous border of tibia

A

bone placed in longitudinal tension will tend to stimulate longitudinal growth, and that compressive longitudinal forces inhibit longitudinal growth
(think Dr. Dan’s thethering proecuderes0

83
Q

Wolff’s law

A

bone remodels in response to mechanical stress, with the correlate that increased stress causes increased growth, and decreased stress leads to bone loss.

84
Q

bone remodels in response to mechanical stress, with the correlate that increased stress causes increased growth, and decreased stress leads to bone loss.

A

affects bacterial protein synthesis through a unique inhibition of the bacterial ribosome. Linezolid binds to a site on the 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit, preventing formation of the 70S initiation complex and interrupting the translational process

85
Q

penicillin abx inhibit what

A

bacterial cell wall synthesis

86
Q

florquinonlones MOA

A

-cipro- DNA gyrase

87
Q

rifampin MOA

A

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is inhibited

88
Q

Bacterial cell membrane depolarization interrupting DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis is the mechanism of action of

A

Daptomycin

89
Q

glucagon is catabolic or anabolic in skeletal muscle

A

catabolic-hormone of starvation-mobilized stored energy

90
Q

insulin is catabolic or anabolic in skeletal muscle

A

anabolic-hormone of plenty

91
Q

lactate level for DCO

A

should be less than 2.5, if greater then consider DCO

92
Q

fibrinogen level for DCO

A

should be greater than one, if less consider DCO

93
Q

base deficit for DCO

A

should be between -2 to =2=if not consider DCO

94
Q

platelet level for DCO

A

should be 70,000 or greater, if not consider DCO

95
Q

myxoid liposarcoma translocation

96
Q

synovial sarcoma translocation

97
Q

alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma translocation

98
Q

ewing sarcoma translocation

99
Q

clear cell sarcoma translocation

100
Q

innervation of teres minor

A

axillary nerve

101
Q

innervation of supraspinatus

A

suprscapular nerve

102
Q

innervation of infraspinatus

A

suprascapular nerve

103
Q

innervation of teres major

A

lower subscapular nerve and thoracodorsal

104
Q

innervation of suscapularis

A

upper and lower subscapular nerve

105
Q

mutation in FGFR-3

A

Achondroplasia

106
Q

mutation in glucoceribrosidase

A

Gaucher’s dz

107
Q

GNAS mutation

A

Fibrous displasia (shepherds crook proximal femur)

108
Q

SLC26A2 gene which affects a sulfate transporter.

A

Diastrophic Displasia

109
Q

mucopolysaccharidosis
due to accumulation of keratan sulfate and presents around 2 years of age with waddling gait, genu valgum, thoracic kyphosis, cloudy corneas, and normal intelligence. C1–C2 instability (due to odontoid hypoplasia) can be seen

A

Morquio’s syndrome

110
Q

slowly adapting skin receptors that detect pressure, texture, and low frequency vibration and can be appropriately evaluated by static two-point discrimination.

A

Merkel’s

111
Q

rapidly adapting sensory receptor, is very sensitive to touch

A

meissner’s corpuscle

112
Q

ovoid in shape, measuring approximately 1 mm in length. They respond to high-frequency vibration and rapid indentations of the skin

A

pascinian corpuscle

113
Q

slowly adapting receptors that detect stretching of the skin.

114
Q

This method is used to compare the difference between two observed means.

A

Student’s T test

115
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is caused by a deficiency in

A

survival motor neuron protein

116
Q

synovial sarcoma translocation

117
Q

myxoid liposarcoma translocation

118
Q

ewings translocation

119
Q

clear cell sarcoma translocation

120
Q

myxoid chondrosarcoma

A

9,22- BCR/ABL?

121
Q

antibiotic that can precipitate serotonin syndrome

A

Linezolid, and benzo’s reverse it

122
Q

CA- MRSA with and w/o + D test what do you prescribe

A

IF D test is += this implies inducible resistance to clinda-and you must give oral doxy

if d test is negative- it is susceptible to clinda and you give clinda

If systemic signs of illness-give IV vanc
If superficial and mild infection-give Orals

123
Q

level of study

“include randomized controlled studies with follow-up>80% and systematic review of Level-I RTC studies (homogenous studies)

124
Q

this study level includes

evidence include case control studies, retrospective cohort studies and systematic review

125
Q

vidence include case control studies, retrospective cohort studies and systematic review

126
Q

evidence include case series with no control group (or compare to a historical control group)

127
Q

level of evidence including expert opinion

128
Q

Rett Syndrome gene and ionhertience pattern

Affects Grey matter of brain

A

X linked Dominant
C shaped Curve
Seizures
MECP2 gene mutation

129
Q

type of collagen increased in OA

A

Type X collagen is seen in articular cartilage in the region of the interface with subchondral bone in most OA patients.

130
Q

What is the role of the homeobox gene in the axial skeleton

A

regulate somitogenesis

131
Q

Low serum phosphate and normal calcium levels are found in

A

X linked hypophosphatemic rickets
linked to the PHEX gene
ow serum phosphate, normal serum calcium and 25 hydroxycholecalciferol levels, and inappropriately low 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3.
*cannot activate the inactive form or Vit D

132
Q

defect in mineralization of osteoid matrix caused by inadequate calcium and phosphate that occurs prior to closure of the physes

A

Rickets

*osteomalacia after physis closes

133
Q

deficient bone Quantity and Not quality of bone mineralizetion in adults

A

Osteoporosis

  • disruption in mirco-arcitecture
  • they have less total amount of normal appearing bone
134
Q

NON nitrogen containing bisphosphonates
etidronate
clodronate
tiludronate

*mechanism of action

A

produce toxic atp analog

135
Q
NITROGEN CONTAINING bisphosphonates
pamidronate
alendronate- fosomax
risderonate actonel
zoledronate reclast
ibandronate boniva
A

inhibit farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase

136
Q

xray findings in peds rickets

A

increased physeal width and cortical thinning/bowing

rachitic rosary on ribs

137
Q

Vitamin D resistant (familial hyphophosphatemic rickets)

3 types?

A

X linked- most common
Autosomal Dominant-
Autosomal recessive

138
Q

Cause of X linked vitamin D resistant Familial Hypho-phosphatemic rickets

A

PHEX gen
leads to increased levels of FGF23, which decreases renal phosphate absorption and suppresses renal 25-(OH)-1α-hydroxylase activity

139
Q

Characteristic of Familial Hypophosphatemic rickets

A

caused by inability of renal tubules to absorb phosphate
GFR is normal
vitamin D3 response is impaired

140
Q

AD familial hyphophosphatemic rickets

A

results from mutation in FGF23

leads to decreased FGF23 degradation

141
Q

AR familial hypophosphatemic rickets

A

results from mutation in dentin matrix protein 1 (DMP1) gene

leads to impaired osteocyte maturation and bone mineralization, and increased levels of FGF23

142
Q

VIT D deficient (nutritional rickets) pathophysiology

A

low Vitamin D levels form diet lead to decreased intestinal absorption of calcium
low calcium levels leads to a compensatory increase in PTH and bone resorption
bone resorption leads to increased alkaline phosphatase levels

143
Q

Only rickets with normal calcium

A

X linked hypophosphatemic rickets

144
Q

renal osteodystrophy lab findings

A

Low calcium
High PTH
HIGH PHOSPHATE!! kidney suck and cant get rid of it

145
Q

Hyperparathyroidism lab findingds

A

90% due to adenoma

very low phosphate

146
Q

Hypophosphatasia inheritance

A

auto recessive

147
Q

Hypophosphatasia labs

A

high calcium
hi phosphate
very low Alk phosphate

148
Q

caused by a mutation in the tissue-nonspecific isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP)

A

hypophosphatasia

149
Q

phosphoethanolamine in the urine diagnostic for

A

hypophosphatasia

150
Q

COMP is associated with

A

Multiple Epiphyseal Displasia type I

Double patella

151
Q

fibrillin is associated with

A

Marfan’s syndrome

152
Q

COL2A1 is associated with

A

SED tarda and SED congenita

153
Q

RUNX2/CBFA is associated with

A

cleidocranial displasia