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MRCPsych Part A - Al-Rashid Hospital > Basic Psychology > Flashcards

Basic Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Non-associative learning

A

Simple form of learning where only a single event is used

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2
Q

Types of non-associative learning

A

Habituation
Sensitization
Pseudo-conditioning

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3
Q

What is habituation?

A

Repeated stimulation leads to reduction in response over time

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4
Q

What is sensitization?

A

Increase in response to stimulus due to repeated presentations of that stimulus

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5
Q

What is pseudoconditiong/cross-sensitization?

A

Emergence of a response to a previously neutral stimulus due to exposure to a different but more powerful stimulus

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6
Q

What type of learning is cross-sensitization?

A

Non-associative learning

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7
Q

What is associative learning?

A

Learning through the association of two events

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8
Q

Types of associative learning

A

Classic conditioning
Operant conditioning
Social learning theory

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9
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Learning through repeated pairing of a neutral conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus which evokes an unconditioned response. Eventually, the neutral stimulus will evoke the desired response; the conditioned response.

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10
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Learning from the consequence of ones actions.

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11
Q

In which type of associative learning is the organism instrumental?

A

Operant conditioning

Social learning theory

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12
Q

What is social learning theory?

A

Combination of classic and operant conditioning, as well as cognitive processes and social interactions

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13
Q

What is the conditioned response in classical conditioning?

A

The desired response once it is evoked by the neutral stimulus.

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14
Q

What is the name of the association between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned response?

A

Acquisition

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15
Q

What is acquisition in classical conditioning?

A

The association between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned response.

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16
Q

What is trace conditioning?

A

When the conditioned stimulus is presented and removed before the unconditioned stimulus is presented.

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17
Q

What is the optimum delay for trace conditioning?

A

0.5ms

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18
Q

What is temporal contiguity in classical conditioning?

A

The time between stimulus and response.

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19
Q

What is counter conditioning?

A

When a previously conditioned response is replaced by a new, more desirable response.

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20
Q

What is latent inhibition in classical conditioning?

A

Where there is a delay in learning the association between the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus due to previous exposure of an isolated presentation of the conditioned stimulus

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21
Q

What is Premack’s principle?

A

That high-frequency behaviour can be used to reinforce low-frequency behaviour.

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22
Q

What is aversive conditioning?

A

Where punishment is used to reduce the frequency of target behaviour

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23
Q

What type of conditioning is this:

The use of disulfram to reduce alcohol intake

A

Operant conditioning
Punishment
Aversive conditioning

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24
Q

What is covert reinforcement?

A

Using an imagined positive event to reinforce behaviour.

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25
Q

What is covert sensitization?

A

Using an imagined negative event to reduce the frequency of undesired behaviour.

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26
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

When a stimulus with a desired response and a stimulus with an undesired response are presented together repeatedly, this results in a reduction in the frequency of the undesired response.

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27
Q

What is Bandura’s social learning theory?

A

That people can learn behaviour by observing others behaviours and their outcomes.

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28
Q

What are the cognitive processes during social learning?

A
  1. Attention to observed behaviour
  2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory
  3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal
  4. Motor copying of behaviour and imitative reproduction
  5. Motivation to act
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29
Q

What is Gagne’s hierarchy of learning?

A
  1. Classical conditioning
  2. Operant conditioning
  3. Chaining
  4. Verbal association
  5. Discrimination learning
  6. Concept learning
  7. Rule learning
  8. Problem learning
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30
Q

What does Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation include?

A 
Proximity
Closure
Continuity
Similarity
Common fate
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31
Q

What does proximity mean in Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation?

A

Objects close to each other are perceived as one

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32
Q

What does closure mean in Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation?

A

Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed

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33
Q

What does continuity mean in Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation?

A

Continuous items are perceived as one

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34
Q

What does similarity mean in Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation?

A

Similar items are grouped together based on shape, colour etc.

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35
Q

What does common fate mean in Gestalt’s law of perceptual organisation?

A

Things moving together are perceived as one

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36
Q

What type of cues does depth perception depend upon?

A

Pictorial

Non-pictorial

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37
Q

What are non-pictorial cues for depth perception?

A

Retinal image disparity
Stereopsis
Accommodation (monocular)
Convergence

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38
Q

What are pictorial cues for depth perception?

A 
Size
Brightness
Superimposition
Texture
Linear perspective
Aerial perspective
Motion parallax
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39
Q

What is autokiniesis?

A

The phenomenon that if light is shown from a small, dim and fixed light source for an extended period of time in a dark room it will appear as if the light is moving.

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40
Q

What is the phi phenomenon?

A

When a false perception of motion is produced by a succession of still images shown with fixed time interval rapidly.

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41
Q

What type of theory is Gestalt’s theory?

A

Bottom-up theory

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42
Q

What do bottom-up theories in visual & auditory perception suggest?

A

That perception is purely data driven and directly starts with the optic array. Piercing together of basic elements of this data leads to more complex systems.

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43
Q

What does a top-down theory suggest?

A

That retinal images cannot explain complex and fully formed perceptions, and that perception is defined as a process of using information known already to formulate/test a hypothesis.

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44
Q

What is a perceptual set?

A

The readiness to perceive selected features as an object (related to motivation, hunger, emotion etc)

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45
Q

Define an illusion

A

When a physical object is perceived but appears different from what it really is

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46
Q

Define a hallucination

A

When an object is perceived in the absence of any corresponding object in the real world.

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47
Q

List some learnt visual processes

A

Size constancy
Shape constancy
Depth perception
Shape discrimination

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48
Q

List some innate visual processes

A

Visual scanning
Tracking
Fixating
Figure-ground discrimination

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49
Q

By what age is 6:6 acuity achieved?

A

6 months

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50
Q

By what age is accommodation and colour vision achieved?

A

4 months

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51
Q

By what age is depth perception achieved?

A

2-4 months

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52
Q

What is capacity/divided attention?

A

The upper limit of the amount of processing that can be performed on incoming information at any on time.

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53
Q

What is dichotic listening?

A

Feeding one message into the left ear and another into the right, and asking the person to repeat only one of the messages.

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54
Q

What does Broadbent’s early selection filter theory suggest?

A
  1. Our ability to process information is capacity limited
  2. A temporary buffer system receives all information and passes it to a selective filter.
  3. Selection is based on physical characteristics of information - one source is selected and others are rejected.
  4. Processing two different pieces of information will take longer and will be less efficient.
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55
Q

What does Triesman’s attenuation theory suggest?

A

That physical characteristics and semantic relevance and used to select one message for full processing while others are given partial processing.

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56
Q

What does Deutsch-Norman late selection filter model/pertinence model suggest?

A

That filtering only occurs once all inputs are analysed at a higher level.

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57
Q

What is pigeon-holding?

A

When filtering is done based on categorization rather than physical characteristics.

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58
Q

What is open loop control?

A

Process that is controlled by automatic motor processes.

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59
Q

What is closed loop control?

A

Learning a task under conscious attention.

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60
Q

What is the highest level of attention?

A

Divided attention

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61
Q

What is divided attention?

A

The ability to respond simultaneously to multiple tasks.

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62
Q

How long does iconic/visual memory last?

A

0.5 seconds

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63
Q

How long does echoic/auditory memory last?

A

2 seconds

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64
Q

What is the capacity of short-term memory?

A

7+/-2 items

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65
Q

How long does short-term memory last, unaided?

A

15-30 seconds

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66
Q

How is information lost from short-term memory?

A

Displacement

Decay

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67
Q

How do items move from short-term to long-term memory?

A

Elaborative encoding

Rehearsal

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68
Q

What is the main type of coding in short-term memory?

A

Visual

Acoustic

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69
Q

What is the main type of memory in long-term memory?

A

Semantic

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70
Q

What is elaborative rehearsal?

A

Where encoding is semantically elaborated or changed

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71
Q

How can rehearsal be processed?

A

Shallow (surface features only)
Phonemic (sound is rehearsed)
Semantic (meaning is processed)

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72
Q

What is remote memory?

A

Events in distant past (weeks to years)

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73
Q

What is Tulving’s multistore model?

A

Long-term memory is divided into declarative (explicit - semantic and episodic) and non-declarative memory.

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74
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

Procedural memory such as classical conditioning and non-associative learning

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75
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Autobiographical, spatio-temporal

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76
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Factual knowledge of the world.

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77
Q

Who proposed the working memory model?

A

Baddley & Hitch

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78
Q

What are the components of the working memory model?

A

One central executive and two arms - the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.
One episodic buffer

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79
Q

What is the phonological loop in the working memory model?

A

It consists of auditory rehearsal loops

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80
Q

What does the visuospatial sketchpad in the working memory model consist of?

A

Pattern recognition and movement perception components.

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81
Q

What is the episodic buffer in the working memory model?

A

This integrates information from slave systems into long-term memory - important for chunking.

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82
Q

What is the serial position effect?

A

When recalling a list of words, the first word (due to LTM) and the last word (due to STM) will be remembered better.

Due to latency and primacy

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83
Q

In what type of amnesia are the last words recalled better than the first in a list?

A

Organic anterograde amnesia

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84
Q

What is the problem in organic anterograde amnesia?

A

Difficulty in transferring information from STM to LTM, and retrieval from LTM

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85
Q

What is reconstruction?

A

Recollection of past experiences based on certain cues

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86
Q

What is the decay theory?

A

That neural engrams breakdown with time, thereby disuse with time causes forgetting.

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87
Q

What is retrieval failure?

A

When we forget things due to lack of proper cues.

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88
Q

What is retroactive interference?

A

When newly learnt material interferes with old material leading to forgetting

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89
Q

What is the encoding specificity principle?

A

The more similar the retrieval situation is to the encoding situation, the better the retrieval.

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90
Q

Define amnesia

A

Marked impairment in episodic memory.

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91
Q

Define anterograde amnesia

A

Loss of the ability to form or retain new episodic memories after injury/event/lesion

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92
Q

What type of amnesia would hippocampal damage lead to?

A

Anterograde amnesia

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93
Q

Define retrograde amnesia

A

Loss of episodic memories that were stored before damage had occred.

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94
Q

What causes transient global amnesia?

A

Transient cerebral ischaemia which results in temporary lack of blood supply to regions of the brain concerned with memory functions.

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95
Q

Symptoms of transient global amnesia

A

Sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia

Retrograde amnesia for preceding days or weeks

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96
Q

What is fugue?

A

Sudden loss of all autobiographical memories and period of wandering, with amnesic gap on recovery.

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97
Q

Type of memory loss in Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Retrograde: autobiographical (sparing of distant memories)

Anterograde

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98
Q

Which types of memories are kept intact in Korsakoffs?

A

Working memory

Procedural memory

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99
Q

Define post-traumatic amnesia

A

The time between injury and recovery of normal continuous memory

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100
Q

Give an example of a test for anterograde memory

A

Three words learning task - apple, table, penny

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101
Q

What is the Rey-osterrieth complex figure test?

A

Non-verbal memory test:

participant is asked to copy a complex geometric figure and to redraw it from memory after 30 minutes.

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102
Q

Average age of earliest retrieved memory?

A

3.5 years

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103
Q

What is the mood-congruent effect?

A

The ability to more easily recall information if it is congruent with ones current mood.

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104
Q

What is it called when one is able to retrieve information easier if the emotional state at the time is the same as the state at the time of encoding?

A

Mood-state dependent retrieval

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105
Q

What is a schema?

A

Organized set of facts, to help elaborate and reconstruct memory at test.

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106
Q

What is inference?

A

When known, easily accessible information is used to piece together retrieval information, resulting in biased recall.

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107
Q

Which areas of the brain mediate STM?

A

Pre-frontal lobes

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108
Q

Which area of the brain mediates the phonological STM?

A

Left hemisphere regions of Broca’s area and prefrontal cortex

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109
Q

Which area of the brain mediates the visuospatial STM?

A

Parietal and prefrontal areas of the right hemisphere

110
Q

Which areas of the brain mediate the LTM?

A

Limbic system - hippocampus and entorhinal cortex of the medial temporal lobe

111
Q

What is Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?

A

That the grammatical structure of ones mother tongue influences how we perceive the world (e.g. a language that does not have a word for a specific colour means that colour is less likely to be remembered)

112
Q

What is the behavioural economics theory of language?

A

People are more likely to believe events that are verbally described more vividely

113
Q

What is the prospect theory in language?

A

That people make different economic choices based on how something is gramed.

114
Q

What is the cognitive distortions theory in language?

A

That challenging our internal dialogue can change our cognitive distortions.

115
Q

What is the neuro-linguistics programming theory of language?

A

That language patterns can affect behaviour

116
Q

What is a constituent of thought called?

A

Concept

117
Q

What is the protype theory of language?

A

That we can conceptualize that something will fall under a concept if sufficient number of constituent features are recognised.

118
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

Starting with a theory from which a hypothesis is formed, leading to a collection of observations to confirm or dispute this hypothesis.

119
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

Starting with observations and formulating a hypothesis which is then explored to form a theory.

120
Q

In which type of reasoning do we start with a theory?

A

Deductive

121
Q

What types of problem-solving are there?

A

Algorithmic

Heuristic

122
Q

What is the algorithmic method os problem-solving?

A

Step-by-step search which guarantees solutions but is time-consuming

123
Q

What is the heuristic method of problem-solving?

A

Using rule of thumb; more likely solutions are trialled. Therefore this solution is not guaranteed but is quicker.

124
Q

What is availability heuristics?

A

Decision based on readily available information without systematic search

125
Q

What is representativeness bias?

A

Fitting a problem into a well-known category to solve it in a similar fashion

126
Q

What is the gambler’s fallacy?

A

The thought that an outcome is due as it hasn’t happened for some time.

127
Q

What is the base rate fallacy?

A

When one ignores the relative frequency of occurrence of events but sticks to stereotypes.

128
Q

What is the sunk cost bias/entrapment?

A

The belief that one has no choice but to continue with a decision as withdrawl would not justify the cost incurred.

129
Q

What is the nomoethic theory of personality?

A

That traits are shared and comparable

130
Q

What is the name of the theory that describes personality as unique to individuals and therefore not comparable?

A

Idiographic

131
Q

What is the dispositional theory of personality?

A

That personality is enduring and consistent

132
Q

Define a personality trait

A

Enduring disposition viewed as a continuous dimension

133
Q

Name the three types of personality traits

A

Cardinal (influential, core)
Central (5-10, less general)
Secondary (least important, least consistent -only close friends notice)

134
Q

Which personality theory refers to personality traits?

A

Allport’s theory

135
Q

What does Cattell’s approach divide personality into?

A

Surface traits; correlated to each other but not important in understanding personality
Source traits: basic building blocks of 16 dimensions of personality

136
Q

Who believed that there is a difference (categorical) between normal and abnormal personality?

A

Catell

137
Q

What did Eysenck’s approach to personality suggest?

A

Three dimensions:

Neuroticism, psychoticism and extraversion.

138
Q

Which part of the body is neuroticism supposedly related to?

A

Sympathetic system reactivity

139
Q

What type of arousal state do extraverts have?

A

Low

140
Q

Are intraverts easily conditionable?

A

Yes

141
Q

Who believed in the dimensional view of personality?

A

Eyseneck

142
Q

What are the four temperamental dimensions of personality according to Cloninger?

A

Novelty-seeking
Harm-avoidance
Reward-dependence
Persistence

143
Q

What are the character dimensions of Cloninger’s theory of personality?

A

Self-directedness
Cooperativeness
Self-transcendence

144
Q

Which personality theory is a single trait theory?

A

Rotter’s - internal and external loci are used to measure personality attributes

145
Q

What are the five personality traits?

A 
Openness
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeablness
Neuroticism
146
Q

Which personality traits increase with age?

A

Agreeableness

Conscientiousness

147
Q

Who believed that personality could only be understood through ones interpersonal relationships?

A

Kelly’s personal construct theory

148
Q

Which model of personality views personality as dynamic?

A

Humanistic/phenenological

149
Q

What does the interactionism theory suggest?

A

Personality and environment interact with each other to form the observed behaviour

150
Q

What is typology in personality theory?

A

That body shape describes associated personality types

151
Q

What are the three body types in Typology according to Kretschmer?

A

Asthenic - thin, aloof
Pyknic - plump, childish
Athletic - well-built, steady temperament

152
Q

Which Typology body type is linked to schizoprhrenia according to Kretschmer?

A

Asthenic

153
Q

What are the three body types according to Sheldon?

A

Endomorphic - plump
Mesopmorphic - strong
Ectomorphic - tall, thing

154
Q

Which body type is associated with schizophrenia according to Sheldon?

A

Ectomorphic

155
Q

Which body type is associated with assertiveness according to Sheldon?

A

Mesomorphic

156
Q

Who introduced Type A/Type B personality?

A

Friedman & Rosenman

157
Q

What is a projective test in personality?

A

Individually administered to obtain information about emotional functioning.

158
Q

What is the principle underlying projective tests in personality?

A

That an unstructured and open-ended situation will stimulate projection of a persons emotional internal world onto the environment.

159
Q

Name examples of projective tests re personality

A

Thematic Apperception test (Murray)
Draw-a-person test
Sentence completion tests

160
Q

Most commonly used Projective test

A

Rorsarch

161
Q

E.g. of a Rosarsch test re projective test

A

Association inducing; verbalizing response pertaining to a stimuli

162
Q

What are the scales in the Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory?

A 
Hypochonriasis
Depression
Hysteria
Psychopathic deviance
Masculinity-femininity
Paranoia
Psychasthenia
Schizophrenia
Hyponamia
Social introversion
163
Q

Which personality test allows the individual to sort cards with descriptive statements about themselves into ‘self’ and ‘ideal’?

A

Q-sort technique

164
Q

What is the International Personality Disorder Examination?

A

77 self-reported questions

Semi-structured

165
Q

What type of diagnoses does the International Personality Disorder Examination allow?

A

> 5 years of age
Definite, probable or negative diagnosis
Allows past personality disorder in past 12 months
Allows late onset diagnosis if criteria met after 25 years of age

166
Q

What are D motives according to Maslow?

A

Deficiency needs

167
Q

What is at the top of Maslows pyramid of needs?

A

Self-Actualization

168
Q

What is the aim of the drive in drive-reduction theory re motivation?

A

Homeostasis

169
Q

What are secondary drives in drive-reduction theory?

A

Psychological and learned from primary drives

170
Q

What is Yerkes-Dodson Law?

A

Motivation: Optimum arousal (moderate) is needed for best performance

171
Q

What is the strongest type of curiosity?

A

Optimal discrepancy - when information appears different from what we know but is not so dissimilar to be strange/irrelevant

172
Q

what are the emotions that Ekman identified?

A 
Surprise
Fear
Sadness
Anger
Happiness
Disgust
173
Q

What are the three components of an emotion?

A

Subjective ‘cortical’ experience
Physiological ‘visceral’ changes
Associated behavioural ‘skeletal’ changes

174
Q

What does the James-Lange theory of emotions suggest?

A

Perception of stimulus leads fo skeletal and visceral change.
Peripheral response sends feedback to thalamus to cortex leading to perception of emotion.

175
Q

Which emotions are associated with the drop in temperature?

A

Fear

Disgust

176
Q

Which emotion produces the greatest increase in heart rate?

A

Sadness

177
Q

What is Cannon-Bard’s theory on emotions?

A

Once an emotion is perceived, the thalamus coordinates signals to the cortex leading to a conscious experience and sends signals to the hypothalamus leading to physiological changes.

178
Q

What is Schachter-Singer labelling theory re emotion?

A

When an emotion is perceived, both physiological and conscious changes take place. This is then interpreted as either positive or negative and labelled according to situational cues.

179
Q

What is the jukebox/two-factor theory re emotion?

A

Schachter-Singer labelling theory

180
Q

What happens if there is no appropriate label in the jukebox theory?

A

By default, negative appreciation of arousal occurs

181
Q

What is Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory re emotion?

A

An individual first appraises a situation (evaluates the situation to see how they experience it) before reacting to it with emotion.

182
Q

Which theory suggests that we first appraise a situation before reacting to it emotionally?

A

Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory

183
Q

Categories of stress

A

Crises/catastrophes
Major life events
Daily hassles/microstressors
Ambient stressors

184
Q

What is the approach-avoidance conflict

A

Choosing an attractive option but incurring an unattractive debt

185
Q

What is Lazarus’s cognitive-mediation model?

A 
Three stages:
Primary appraisal (evaluate stressor)
Secondary appraisal (evaluate resources and options to manage)
Coping stage (choose and use strategy)
186
Q

What can coping strategies for stress be divided into?

A

Problem-focused - try to change external

Emotion-focused

187
Q

What are the four features of the locus of control theory?

A 
Ability (internal and stable)
Effort (internal unstable)
Task difficulty (external stable)
Luck (external unstable)
188
Q

Define consciousness

A

Awareness of stimuli

189
Q

What does Freud’s topographical model of the mind divide the mind into?

A

Conscious
Preconscious
Unconscious

190
Q

What does the conscious system do according to Freud?

A

Receives and processes information from the outside world and communicates it via speech and behaviour.

191
Q

What is attention cathexis according to Freud?

A

Investment of psychic energy on a particular idea/feeling to process it consciously

192
Q

What is the unconscious system according to Freud?

A

Contains contents of censored/repressed wishes, characterised by primary-process thinking.

193
Q

What is the unconscious system (Freud) governed by?

A

Pleasure principle

194
Q

How is Freud’s unconscious system evident to us?

A 
Freudian slips (parapraxes)
Dreams
195
Q

What is the purpose of Freud’s preconsious system?

A

Maintains a repressive barrier to censor unacceptable wishes and desires

196
Q

How did Carl Jung categorize the unconscious?

A

Personal unconsciousness - individual memories

Collective unconsciousness - - memories of a species passed down generations

197
Q

What is the arousal system?

A

Activation of the reticular activating system in brain stem + autonomic nervous system.

198
Q

What does arousal regulate?

A

Consciousness
Attention
Fight-or-flight response
Sexual activity

199
Q

What is ultradian?

A

Biological cycle lasting less than a day

200
Q

What is the name of a biological cycle lasting more than a day?

A

Infradian

201
Q

What regulates biorhythms?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucles in anterior hypothalamus

202
Q

What is sleep-deprivation psychosis

A

Sleep deprivation leading to delusional ideations, paranoia, loss of sense of identity, disorganized speech

203
Q

Define hypnosi

A

State of consciousness involving focused attention and reduced peripheral awareness

204
Q

Define meditation

A

Inducing a mode of consciousness for the benefit or as an and itself.

205
Q

What are the two factors of the two-factor theory of intelligence?

A

General intelligence and specific factor.

206
Q

What does the two-factor theory of intelligence suggest individual differences are due to?

A

General intelligence

207
Q

Who created the two-factor theory of intelligence?

A

Spearman

208
Q

What does the Triarchic theory of intelligence suggest?

A

Intelligent behaviour arises from a balance of analytical, creative and practical abilities, implemented in context.

209
Q

Who created the triarchic theory of intelligence?

A

Sternberg

210
Q

What does the triarchic theory of intelligence suggest is needed for the three abilities of intelligence?

A

Knowledge-acquisition
Meta-component
Performance component

211
Q

What is the phenomenon that IQ increases from one generation to the next?

A

Flynn phenomenon

212
Q

Where is the largest gain in intelligence from one generation to the next?

A

Problem solving (fluid intelligence)

213
Q

Name common tests used to measure IQ in adults

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

214
Q

Name common tests used to measure IQ in children

A

Stanford-Binet scale (2-18)
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for children (6-16)
Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligene (4-6)

215
Q

What is delayed/forward conditioning?

A

Conditioned stimulus prior to unconditioned stimulus; this continues until unconditioned response appears.

216
Q

What is background conditioning?

A

Unconditioned stimulus presented before conditioned stimulus

217
Q

When is backword conditioning used?

A

Advertising

218
Q

What is simultaneous conditioning?

A

Unconditioned stimulus and conditioned stimulus presented together

219
Q

Which type of classical conditioning occurs in real life situations?

A

Simultaneous

220
Q

Who termed the term predictability in classical conditioning?

A

Rescorla

221
Q

What does predictability mean in classical conditioning?

A

Being able to predict the response based on the unconditioned stimulus.

222
Q

What is stimulus generalisation?

A

Spread of associative learning from one stimulus to another

223
Q

What is discrimination in classical conditioning?

A

Learned response to a specific stimuli and not to other, similar stimuli

224
Q

What is extinction in classical conditioning?

A

When the unconditioned stimulus - conditioned stimulus pairing no longer occurs, leading to disappearance of a learned response

225
Q

What is spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning?

A

Regaining a previously extinguished learned response after a period of time.

226
Q

What is the name of conditioning that leads to increase in frequency of behaviour following learning?

A

Reinforcement

227
Q

Which type of operant conditioning schedule is most resistant to extinction?

A

Variable ratios (reward occurs after random number of responses)

228
Q

What does contingency mean in operant conditioning?

A

Learning the probability

229
Q

What is avoidance conditioning?

A

When an organism learns to avoid certain responses or situations.

230
Q

What is escape conditioning?

A

Places in which panic occurs are avoided/escaped from.

231
Q

What is flooding in operant conditioning?

A

Exposure to feared stimulus takes place for a substantial amount of time so the accompanying anxiety response fades.

232
Q

What is implosion in operant conditioning?

A

When a person is exposed to an imagined feared stimulus for a substantial amount of time so the anxiety response fades.

233
Q

What is shaping/successive approximation in operant conditioning?

A

Desirable behaviour pattern is learnt by successive reinforcement of behaviours closer to desired one.

234
Q

When is shaping used in operant conditioning?

A

When the target behaviour is yet to appear.

235
Q

What is chaining in operant conditioning?

A

Reinforcing a series of related behaviours, each of which provides the cue for the next to obtain a reinforcer.

236
Q

When is chaining used?

A

When the target behaviour is notable in some form.

237
Q

What is incubation?

A

An emotional response increases in strength if brief but repeated exposure of the stimulus.

238
Q

What is stimulus preparednesness (Seligman)?

A

Stimuli (as per evolution) that were threatening to hunter-gatherers are wired into our system, eliciting immediate responses - phobia develops more readily for such prepared stimuli.

239
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

When confronted with aversive stimuli from which escape is impossible, an organism stops making attempts to escape.

240
Q

What is cueing/prompting?

A

Specific cues used to elicit specific behaviours.

241
Q

What is fading?

A

Process of unlearning cue associations.

242
Q

What is the name of the apparatus used to test an infants perception of depth?

A

Visual cliff

243
Q

What is perceptual constancy?

A

The ability to perceive objects to be the same and unchanging despite varied inputs.

244
Q

What is visual acuity/focusing at birth?

A

20cm

245
Q

What is the pertinence model?

A

Deutsch-Normal late selection filter model: filtering occurs later after all inputs are analysed at a higher level.

246
Q

What is focused attention?

A

Ability to perceive individual items of information

247
Q

What is sustained attention?

A

Ability to maintain a consistent, behavioral response during continuous and repetitive activity (vigilance)

248
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Ability to avoid distractions from internal/external cues and maintain behavioural/cognitive set in face of competing stimuli

249
Q

What is alternating attention?

A

Ability of mental flexibility that allows people to fix their focus of attention

250
Q

What is working memory?

A

Allows cognitive processes to be performed on data that is in STM

251
Q

What is procedural/implicit memory?

A

Procedural memory for skills/habits.

Non-conscious

252
Q

Which type of memory is not affected by organic amnesia from hippocampus?

A

Procedural/implicit

253
Q

What is priming?

A

Form of learning that occurs w/o conscious recall of the episode of learning.

254
Q

What is working memory important for?

A 
Eexecutive functions
Decision-making
Error detection and correction
New learning 
Judgement
255
Q

What is primacy in learning?

A

Remembering the first words in a list of words

256
Q

What is recency in learning?

A

Remembering the last words in a list of words

257
Q

In which type of amnesia is recency preserved?

A

Organic anterograde amnesia

258
Q

Modes of retrieval from LTm to STM?

A

Recognition
Recall (actively searching and reproducing)
Reintegration/reconstruction

259
Q

When is forgetting information at its maximum?

A

In first few hours

260
Q

Common test for auditory, verbal working memory?

A

Digit span

261
Q

Common test of recent verbal memory?

A

Name and address recall task - subject asked to recall items w/o prompt

262
Q

What is mood-conruent effect?

A

Ability to recall information more easily if it is congruent with current mood

263
Q

What is distortion?

A

Occurs during recall to ensure information fits the schema

264
Q

What is Shiffrin and Schneider’s theory of attention?

A

Two types of processing - controlled and automatic processing. Automatic processing involves attention to patterns and deviations. Controlled processing is employed when evaluating a situation in more detail.

265
Q

This type of reinforcement is the least resistant to extinction

A

Continuous reinforcement

266
Q

This type of reinforcement takes the longest to establish.

A

Intermittent reinforcement

267
Q

This type of reinforcement leads to highest rate of responding

A

Fixed ratio

268
Q

How can information be recalled from LTM to STM?

A
  1. Recognition (solving MCQs)
  2. Recall (actively searching and reproducing), 3.Reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past experiences based on certain cues).
269
Q

What are deficiency needs according to Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Physiological needs
Safety needs
Love and belonging needs
Esteem needs

270
Q

What was Hermann Ebbinghaus’s curve?

A

Memory loss is most likely in the first 9 hours, especially in the first hour

271
Q

What is blocking?

A

When the subjects are unable to access information that they know exists in their memory despite great efforts at recalling even in the presence of retrieval cues.

MRCPsych Part A - Al-Rashid Hospital (22 decks)

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