Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Basic Pharmacology Review with Antidotes > Flashcards

Basic Pharmacology Review with Antidotes Flashcards

0
Q

Antidote for OD on APAP/Tylenol

A

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Hepatotoxicity with acute OD

A

APAP, Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Non-narcotic analgesic

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Has no anti-inflammatory properties

A

APAP/Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 3 generic drugs that are NSAIDS

A

Aspiring (ASA), Motrin, Advil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dose for antiplatelet properties with daily dosing

A

typically 81-325mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NSAIDS therapeutic properties

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and thromboxane (stops platelet aggregation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SE for NSAIDS

A

Dizziness, confusion, tinnitus, epistaxis, N/V, GI bleed, bruising, gastritis, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug profiles for Narcotic analgesics

A

Morphine Sulfate, Meperidine, Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MOA-Narcotics

A

Binds to opioid receptors to decrease pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SE-Narcotics

A

Confusion, euphoria, sedation, pupil constriction, RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION, impaired coordination, N/V, urinary retention, constipation, physical and psychological dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Effect that narcotics produce to the eyes

A

constriction-miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 things that are vital to assess before giving narcotics

A

respiratory rate and patient’s pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should you evaluate during the administration of narcotics

A

the effectiveness of medication given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Antidote for narcotic OD (give generic and trade)

A

naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CNS agents (5 total)

A

Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, antiepileptics, antiepileptics/ Mood stabilizers, antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MOA-barbiturates and their ending

A

potentiates GABA (-barbital)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CNS agent that promotes sleep/calm anxiety and their ending

A

benzodiazepines (-lams and -pams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

classification of Phenytoin (Dilantin) and dose range

A

benzodiazepine, 10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

used as mood stabilizer

A

Clonazepam (Klonopin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prototype-anti-epileptics

A

phenytoin (Dilantin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

given for gingival hyperplasia

A

carbamazepine (Tegretol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

antiepileptic- phenytoin may only be given how?

A

IV- only in NS and administered slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3 drugs-anti-epileptics/mood stabilizers

A

carbamazepine (Tegretol), valproic acid (Depakote), gabapentine (Neurotin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ending for antipsychotics

A

-azine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MOA-anti-diabetic (insulin)

A

insulin binds to receptor sites on cells and allows glucose to enter the cell for energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SE-anti-diabetics

A

hypoglycemia, ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Drug profiles for anti-diabetic agents (6)

A

Insulin, sulfonylureas, biguanides, thiazolidinediones, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, meglitinides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

essential to know before administering anti-diabetics

A

onset, peak, and duration (also patients last glucose level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

nursing considerations with anti-diabetics

A

roll gently, rapid first only IV, monitor blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

classification of Digoxin (Lanoxin)

A

cardiac glycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prototype used for Congestive Heart Failure and/ A-Fib

A

Digoxin (Lanoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MOA-digoxin (2 effects on the heart)

A

positive inotrope, negative chronotrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SE-digoxin

A

bradycardia, arrhythmias, visual disturbances, HA, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, GI upset, N/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hypokalemia can increase toxicity with which drug

A

digoxin (Lanoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dose range for dig

A

0.5-2.0 mg/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What must you check before administering digoxin

A

heart rate (60-100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Antidote for digoxin

A

Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MOA-beta blockers

A

blocks effects of SNS at beta receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

SE-beta blockers

A

dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia, heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, and rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antidote for Beta-blocker overdose

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

must obtain before administration of beta blockers

A

heart rate and B/P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

monitor with beta-blockers

A

HR&B/P, I&O, wt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

classification of lidocaine (Xylocaine)

A

sodium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

SE-sodium channel blocker

A

drowsiness, v-tach, heart block, HTN, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

monitor with administration of lidocaine (Xylocaine)

A

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 calcium channel blockers that do not have the ending -dipine

A

diltiazem (Cardizem), verapamil (Calan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

SE- calcium channel blockers

A

hypotension, bradycardia, peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Nursing considerations-calcium channel blockers

A

monitor pulse and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

antidote for calcium channel blocker OD

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

nitrates SE

A

postural hypotension, HA, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

nursing consideration for why nitroglycerin isn’t taken PO but SL

A

large first pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

centrally acting agents MOA

A

binds to alpha 2 receptor sites and decreases outflow of the SNS from the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

drug-centrally acting agents

A

clonidine (Catapres)

55
Q

Alpha 1 Blockers ending

56
Q

classification (s) for alpha 1 blockers

A

anti-hypertensive and BPH

57
Q

ACE inhibitors ending

58
Q

ACE inhibitors MOA

A

inhibits the ACE in the lungs and prevents the formation of angiotensin II, this stops vasoconstriction and aldosterone

59
Q

SE-ACE inhibitors

A

CAPTOPRIL-cough, angioedema, proteinuria, taste change, orthostatic hypotension, pruritus, renal failure/rash, increased potassium, liver toxicity/leukopenia

60
Q

angiotensin II blockers ending

61
Q

Angiotensin II blockers MOA

A

binds to angiotensin II receptor sites

62
Q

Diuretics MOA

A

inhibit the reabsorption of Na and H2O

63
Q

what lab level must be checked before administering a diuretic?

64
Q

name a loop diuretic

A

furosemide (Lasix)

65
Q

loop diuretics ending

66
Q

name a potassium-sparing diuretic

A

spirolactone (Aldactone)

67
Q

name a thiazide diuretic

68
Q

heparin is a drug affecting what

A

coagulation (its an anticoagulant)

69
Q

what must you monitor in a patient while he is on heparin?

A

monitor PTT

70
Q

what is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine sulfate

71
Q

enoxaparin is the generic name for what drug

72
Q

the anti-coagulant warfarin-sodium (Coumadin) must be given with monitoring what 2 things?

A

monitor PT/INR

73
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?

74
Q

side effect that’s associated with anticoagulants?

A

hemorrhage

75
Q

name 3 antiplatelets

A

ASA, dipyridamole (Persantine), ticlopidine (Ticlid)

76
Q

name an anti-fibrinolytic

A

aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

77
Q

name two thrombolytics generic and trade name

A

streptokinase (Streptase) and alteplase (Activase)

78
Q

what is identifying organisms and the drugs that kill the bugs?

A

culture and sensitivity

79
Q

where is normal flora located?

A

oropharynx (bacteria, fungi, protozoa), upper and lower intestine, lower GU tract, conjunctive and skin.

80
Q

what are microbial agents that prevent pathogens from causing infection when normal flora are killed during broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.

A

normal flora

81
Q

name two drug resistant organisms

82
Q

antibiotics (8)

A 
penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
macrolides
quinolones
sulfonamides
83
Q

anti-tubercular that prevent peripheral neuritis

A

isoniazid (INH) and pyridoxine (Vit B6)

84
Q

side effects for aminoglycosides (antibiotic)

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

85
Q

name 4 anti-tuberculars

A

ethambutol (Myambutol), pyrazinamide, rifampin, streptomycin

86
Q

anti-viral agents for influenza A

A

amantadine and rimantadine

87
Q

anti-viral agent for HSV

A

acyclovir (Zovirax)

88
Q

anti-viral agents for CMV

A

cidofovir, ganciclovir, foscarnet

89
Q

bone marrow suppressor that was the first anti-HIV medication inhibiting WBC, limiting HIV presence in the body (nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor)

A

zidovudine (AZT)

90
Q

two drugs that are classified as non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

A

delavirdine (rescriptor) and nevirapine (viramune)

91
Q

antivirals that are classified as protease inhibitors

A

saquinavir (Invirase), ritonavir (Norvir), indinavir (Crixivan)

92
Q

ending-anti-fungal agents

93
Q

name 4 anti-fungal agents

A

griseofulvin, amphotericin B, diflucan (Fluconazole), Nystatin

94
Q

GI drug that neutralizes gastric acid

95
Q

magnesium is well known to cause

96
Q

Calcium and aluminum causes

A

constipation

97
Q

antacids should be avoided in what patient population?

A

renal patients

98
Q

drug antagonist that binds to H2 receptor sites to decrease HCL acid production and its ending

A

H2 antagonist(-tidine)

99
Q

drug classification that blocks all HCL acid production and its ending

A

proton pump inhibitors (-prazole)

100
Q

this drug classification is contraindicated in AAC

A

anti-diarrheals

101
Q

this drug class form a bulk stool and are safest and most natural

102
Q

what is an agent given to counteract the effects of poison?

103
Q

name the medication (inhaled form) that is mainly used as a mucolytic agent to help liquefy respiratory mucous secretions.

A

acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

104
Q

unlabeled use of this drug can be given before potentially nephrotoxic exposure occurs to prevent kidney damage

A

acetylcysteine

105
Q

MOA-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A

protects the liver by maintaining cell function and preventing acetaminophen metabolites

106
Q

List the standard maximum daily dose of APAP

A

3,000 mg/daily

107
Q

treatment must be given for OD on APAP within ___hours of ingestion

108
Q

whats the initial loading dose of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

109
Q

after the initial dose of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) (140 mg/kg), how many doses after are given and of how many mg/kg every how many hours?

A

17 doses

70 mg/kg/every 4 hours

110
Q

IV form for the antidote: acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

111
Q

Acetado is most effective if given within __hours of OD with acetaminophen

112
Q

Acetado (IV form antidote for APAP OD) can be given up to __ hours after OD

113
Q

Adverse reactions with activated charcoal (Actidose)

A

black stools, nausea, constipation, intestinal obstruction

114
Q

follow charcoal (Actidose) administration with what treatment that does not contain what ingredient?

A

stool softener or laxative without the ingredient: sorbitol

115
Q

MOA: anti-fibrinolytic

A

treats excessive bleeding from surgery or overactivation of fibrinolytic system

116
Q

AR: anti-fibrinolytic

A

dizziness, seizures, thrombosis, renal failure

117
Q

nursing considerations with aminocaproic acid

A

monitor coagulation studies

118
Q

the patient must have the ability to do what when given an anti-fibrinolytic?

A

ability to clot

119
Q

a chelating agent binds to what?

120
Q

deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal) is the antidote for what acute intoxication?

A

acute iron intoxication

121
Q

MOA: deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)

A

combines with iron in bowel lumen and prevents absorption

122
Q

adjunctive tx of acute iron intoxication

A

chelating agent

123
Q

what are the leading cause of poison death in children less than 6 years?

A

Iron pills

124
Q

what antidote is a benzodiazepine antagonist?

A

flumazenil (Romazicon)

125
Q

two specific antidotes mentioned that need to be monitored for resedation

A

narcan and rimantidin

126
Q

AR: deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)

A

blurred vision, diarrhea, hypersensitivity reactions/ anaphylaxis

127
Q

you must monitor this type of patient with impaired renal function during the administration of which drug?

A

deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)

128
Q

digoxin immune FAB (Digibind) is used for what

A

OD of dig. severe bradycardia, advanced heart block, ventricular tachycardia or v-fib, and severe hyperkalemia

129
Q

AR:digibind

A

heart failure, rapid ventricular rate, hypersensitivity reaction, anaphylaxis

130
Q

what must you monitor with digibind?

A

potassium level

131
Q

what is the parenteral form fo digibind?

A

40 mg/vial

132
Q

disulfiram (Antabuse) inhibits the enzyme that converts _____________to ________ ________

A

acetaldehyde to acetic acid

133
Q

AR: disulfiram (Antabuse)

A

drowsiness, impotence, disulfiram reaction with ethanol use, flushing, HA, dyspnea, nausea, copious vomiting, diaphoresis, thirst, confusion, anxiety, hypotension, severe respiratory/cardiovascular collapse, fatal MI

134
Q

nursing consideration with disulfiram (Antabuse)

A

avoid sources of alcohol for 14 days after the last dose. never give without a pt’s knowledge.

Pharmacology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions