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Exam2 ECG/Basic Labs/Pharm > Basic labs > Flashcards

Basic labs Flashcards

1
Q

Hematology

A

The lab dept concerned with identifying disease related to the blood; CBC, UA, ESRs, coag studies, fluid cell counts

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2
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count; RBCs and indices, WBC w/ or w/o diff, hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelets

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3
Q

RBC membrane

A

Elastic, lipid bilayer, cytoskeleton, membrane proteins

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4
Q

Hemoglobin structure

A

Iron, protoporphyrin, globin

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5
Q

Hemoglobin function

A

Carry oxygen (bind it and release it)

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6
Q

MCV

A

Mean corpuscular volume; estimates average size of red cell; classified as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic

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7
Q

MCH

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin; How much hemoglobin is inside the RBC; used in combo w/ MCHC; classified as hypochromic or normochromic

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8
Q

MCHC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration; used in conjunction with MCH to determine amount of hemoglobin; classified as hypochromic or normochromic

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9
Q

RDW

A

RBC distribution width; amt of size variation;used to quantify the amount of anisocytosis; graded by severity 1+, 2+, 3+

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10
Q

Normchromia

A

RBC should lack a nucleus; should be consistent in size and shape; should be deformable and selectively permeable

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11
Q

What are possible causes to have an increased number of macrocytes (MCV > 100fL) in the blood?

A
  • B12/Folic acid deficiency
  • Accelerated erythropoiesis (spitting out of new RBCs)
  • liver disease
  • post-splenectomy
  • chemotherapy
  • hypothyroidism
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12
Q

What are some possible causes/pathology of too many microcytes (MCV < 80 fL) and/or hypochromic (MCHC < 33%) in the blood?

A

Abnormal hemoglobin synthesis
*iron deficiency
*deficiency of heme synthesis (siderblastic anemia)
*deficiency of globin synthesis (thalassemia)
Chronic disease states

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13
Q

Piokilocytosis

A

Variation in shape

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14
Q

Presentation of target cells could be indicative of what?

A
  • Liver dysfunction
  • various anemias
  • Hgb-opathies
  • thalassemia
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15
Q

Presentation of spherocytes in the blood could be indicative of what?

A
  • hereditary
  • hemolytic anemia
  • age
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16
Q

Presentation of Stomatocytes in the blood could be indicative of what?

A

Cirrhosis

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17
Q

What are the 6 types of WBCs?

A
  • neutrophils
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • Band (young neutrophils)
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18
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 40-75% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Neutrophils

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19
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 30-40% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Lymphocytes

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20
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 2-8% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Monocytes

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21
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 1-4% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Eosinophils

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22
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 0.5-1% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Basophils

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23
Q

Which WBC usually comprises 0-3% of the WBCs in normal blood?

A

Band cells (young neutrophils)

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24
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms

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25
Q

Someone who has an infection or has been using steroids could expect to have an elevated # of which WBCs?

A

Neutrophils

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26
Q

A decreased number of neutrophils could mean:

A
  • immune reaction
  • gram negative sepsis
  • drugs
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27
Q

What does it mean when someone has a left shift?

A

Means that the body is dumping out an increased number of band cell/immature neutrophils

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28
Q

What is the function of lymphocytes?

A
  • production of anti-bodies by B cells

* cytotoxic T cells and Helper T cells

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29
Q

If someone has an increase in lymphocytes, they may have:

A
  • viral infection
  • EBV
  • pertussis
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30
Q

If someone has a decrease in lymphocytes, they may have:

A
  • immuno-deficiency (HIV)
  • severe infection
  • long term corticosteroid use
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31
Q

Atypical lymphocytes could mean the person is positive for:

A

Infectious mononucleosis (EBV)

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32
Q

Function of monocytes

A

Circulating precursors to the phagocyte

Called macrophage in the tissues

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33
Q

Monocytes, in the tissue, are called

A

Macrophages

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34
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Kill antibody coated parasite via granule release

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35
Q

When are eosinophil levels increased?

A

During parasitic infection and allergic reactions

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36
Q

Basophils are elevated during __________ and release ____________

A

Inflammation; histamine

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37
Q

What is the primary role of platelets?

A

Maintain vascular integrity

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38
Q

What is the essential function of platelets?

A

Blood clotting

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39
Q

What is the hemostatic function of platelets (thrombocytes)?

A

Primary phase in platelet aggregation

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40
Q

If you think someone has a blood clotting disorder, you would want to order a CBC to look at their _______ count.

A

Platelet

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41
Q

If you think someone has a blood disorder, you would order a CBC to look at their

A

RBC indicies

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42
Q

If you think someone is anemic, polycythemia, or they are hypoxic for no obvious reason, you could order a CBC to look at their ________ & _________

A

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

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43
Q

What are the two main functions of electrolytes?

A

Maintain a healthy water balance and stabilize pH

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44
Q

Renal regulation involves which 4 electrolytes?

A
  • sodium
  • potassium
  • carbon dioxide
  • choride
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45
Q

Which specific salts are the major determinants of extracellular osmolality?

A

Sodium

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46
Q

Which electrolyte is found primarily extracellular?

A

Sodium

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47
Q

Does aldosterone conserve or release sodium?

A

Conserves it;

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48
Q

What stimulates aldosterone to signal the kidneys to reabsorb sodium?

A

Low levels of sodium

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49
Q

Natriuretic hormone conserves or releases sodium?

A

Releases

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50
Q

What stimulates natriuretic hormone to tell the kidneys to excrete sodium?

A

Elevated levels of sodium

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51
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) releases or reabsorbs H20?

A

Reabsorbs

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52
Q

What hormone controls the reabsorption of water at the distal tubules, either diluting or concentrating the amount of sodium?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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53
Q

Hyponatremia triggers ___________ hormone to increase reabsorption of water and conserve sodium to increase the levels of sodium in the body

A

Aldosterone

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54
Q

Hypernatremia triggers ____________ hormone to decrease reabsorption of water, thus excreting more sodium in the urine to decrease the levels of sodium

A

Natriuretic

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55
Q

Who is the major cation within the cell?

A

Potassium

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56
Q

Which electrolyte maintains the cell membrane’s electrical potential, esp. neuromuscular tissue?

A

Potassium

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57
Q

Minor changes in what electrolyte can have significant consequences to cardiac function?

A

Potassium

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58
Q

Which electrolyte contributes to the metabolic portion of acid/base balance by having the kidneys exchange hydrogen ions to maintain pH?

A

Potassium

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59
Q

This hormone is stimulated by increased levels of potassium and said hormone then acts on the kidneys to excrete more potassium

A

Aldosterone

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60
Q

As _________ electrolyte is reabsorbed, _________ electrolyte is lost

A

Na+; K+

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61
Q

Alkalosis tends to increase or decrease levels of potassium?

A

Increase

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62
Q

Alkalosis causes potassium to shift into or out of the cell?

A

Into

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63
Q

Acidosis tends to increase or decrease potassium levels?

A

Decrease

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64
Q

Acidosis causes potassium to shift into or out of the cell?

A

Out of

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65
Q

Total CO2 is a measurement of:

A

*carbonic acid (H2C03)
*dissolved carbon dioxide
Serum bicarbonate (HCO3-)

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66
Q

What is the primary role of carbon dioxide?

A

Maintains a stable pH and acid/base balance

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67
Q

What is the secondary role of carbon dioxide?

A

Maintain electrical neutrality

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68
Q

C02 is excreted and reabsorbed by which organ?

A

Kidneys

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69
Q

A person who is suffering from severe vomiting would have increased levels or decreased levels of CO2?

A

Increased

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70
Q

A person in metabolic alkalosis will have increased levels or decreased levels of C02?

A

Increased

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71
Q

A person with chronic diarrhea will have increased levels or decreased levels of C02?

A

Decreased

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72
Q

A person who chronically uses loop diuretics will have increased to decreased levels of C02?

A

Decreased

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73
Q

A person in renal failure will have increased or decreased levels of C02?

A

Decreased

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74
Q

A person in diabetic ketoacidosis will have increased or decreased levels of C02?

A

Decreased

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75
Q

A person who is literally starving will have increased or decreased levels of C02?

A

Decreased

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76
Q

Which electrolyte is the major extracellular anion?

A

Cl

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77
Q

which electrolyte moves in and out of the cell with sodium and potassium, respectively?

A

Chloride

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78
Q

Chloride is reabsorbed/excreted in direct opposition to?

A

Bicarbonate to maintain acid/base balance

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79
Q

What is the primary role of Chloride?

A

Maintain electrical neutrality and follows Na+ loss/excess to do this

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80
Q

What major affect do Chloride have?

A

It affects water balance because H20 moves with Na+ and Cl-

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81
Q

As Cl- moves into a cell, what moves out?

A

HC03-

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82
Q

As Cl- moves out of a cell, what moves in to help maintain acid/base balance?

A

HC03-

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83
Q

A basic metabolic panel (BMP) evaluates what organ(s) function(s)?

A

Kidney, bone, parathyroid, pancreas, liver

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84
Q

End product of protein metabolism in the liver

A

Urea

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85
Q

Combines with urea and free ammonia in liver

A

Nitrogen

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86
Q

BUN (blood urea nitrogen) indirectly measures:

A

Renal function
GFR
Liver function

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87
Q

BUN levels are influenced by

A

Protein intake
Hydration status
GI Bleeds

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88
Q

Which two components make up a renal function study?

A

BUN and creatinine

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89
Q

Hyperuricemia is seen in:

A

Alcoholism
Leukemia
Metastatic cancer
DM

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90
Q

Hypouricemia can be caused by:

A

Idiopathic
Chronic renal disease
Acidosis
Hypothyroidism

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91
Q

1/2 of total calcium is bound mainly to?

A

Albumin

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92
Q

Calcium is necessary for:

A

Metabolic enzymatic pathway

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93
Q

Calcium is vital to:

A

Muscle contraction

Cardiac and neural blood clotting

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94
Q

Calcium levels can be used to evaluate:

A

Parathyroid function

Calcium metabolism

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95
Q

Calcium levels are used to monitor:

A

Renal failure
Renal transplantation
Hyperparathyroidism
Various malignancies

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96
Q

Complete Metabolic Panel consists of:

A
  • sodium
  • potassium
  • chloride
  • BUN
  • creatinine
  • glucose
  • calcium
  • aspartate aminotransferase
  • alk phos
  • protein
  • bilirubin
  • carbon dioxide
  • alanine aminotransferase
  • albumin
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97
Q

Alkaline phosphates (ALP) is used to detect and monitor disease of:

A

Liver and Bone

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98
Q

The most sensitive test in indication of a metastatic tumor of the liver

A

Intra-hepatic ALP

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99
Q

An increase in extra-hepatic ALP is primarily indicative of:

A

New bone growth

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100
Q

You may see an increase in extra-hepatic ALP with all of the following:

A 
Osteoblastic metastatic tumor
Paget’s disease
Healing Fx’s
RA
Hyperparathyroidism
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101
Q

Bilirubin levels can be used to evaluate?

A

Liver function
Hemolytic anemia
Jaundice in newborns

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102
Q

What happens to RBCs in the spleen?

A

Broken down into heme and globin; heme is further catabolized into biliverdine

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103
Q

In the spleen, biliverdin is converted to bilirubin. This is indirect/unconjugated or direct/conjugated bilirubin?

A

Indirect/unconjugated

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104
Q

Where does bilirubin go from indirect/unconjugated to direct/conjugated?

A

In the liver

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105
Q

What protein makes up roughly 60% of the total protein in the blood?

A

Albumin

106
Q

What is the major effect of albumin within the blood?

A

To maintain colloidal osmotic pressure

107
Q

What is the function of albumin, other than to maintain osmotic pressure?

A

Transportation of hormones, vitamins, enzymes, and meds

108
Q

Where is albumin synthesized?

A

Liver

109
Q

Which protein levels can reflect liver function and nutritional status?

A

Albumin

110
Q

Total serum protein is a combo of:

A

Albumin and globulins

111
Q

Who monitors liver and kidney functions?

A

Proteins

112
Q

Where are globulins synthesized?

A

Liver and immune system

113
Q

What are some of the functions of globulins

A
  • helps determine chances of infection/multiple myeloma
  • fights infection
  • transports metal (iron)
114
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) enzyme is release and levels rise when

A

An injury or disease has caused cells to lyse, specifically heart muscle cells, liver cells, or skeletal muscle cells

115
Q

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme whose levels will rise when

A

There is a dysfunction in the liver

116
Q

Alanine aminotransferase is sensitive and specific to

A

Hepatocellular disease

117
Q

What cells secrete amylase?

A

Acinar cells

118
Q

If a patient comes in with acute abdominal pain, what enzyme should you evaluate?

A

Amylase

119
Q

Increased levels in amylase could indicate:

A

Acute/chronic pancreatitis
GI disease
Acute cholecystokinin

120
Q

Lipase can be used to detect:

A

Acute pancreatitis
Renal insufficiency
Intestinal infarction or obstruction

121
Q

Which enzyme is more useful in the late diagnosis of acute pancreatitis, and why?

A

Lipase b/c it peaks later than amylase and remains elevated longer than amylase.

122
Q

Which enzyme is more useful in the early diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

A

Amylase b/c it peaks sooner than lipase

123
Q

Total cholesterol is the most accurate predictor of the risk of:

A

Coronary artery disease

124
Q

Which organ metabolizes ingested cholesterol?

A

Liver

125
Q

Subnormal levels of cholesterol could indicate:

A

Severe liver disease or malnutrition

126
Q

Positional changes affect the results of what?

A

Total cholesterol

127
Q

Lipoproteins transport _______, ______, and _______ through the blood system

A

Cholesterols, triglycerides, other soluble fats

128
Q

Lipoproteins levels are influenced by:

A

Genetics
Diet
Lifestyle
Medications

129
Q

LDL carries cholesterol from ______ to ________

A

Liver, cells

130
Q

High levels of LDL could be indicative of:

A

CAD

Peripheral vascular disease

131
Q

Low levels of LDL could be indicative of:

A

Cardio-protective mechanism

132
Q

HDL is produced where?

A

Liver

133
Q

What is the purpose of HDL?

A

Remove cholesterol from the tissue and vascular endothelium

134
Q

What is HDL’s goal?

A

Remove lipids from endothelium and protect against heart disease

135
Q

High levels of HDL could be indicative of:

A

Cardio-protective mechanism

136
Q

Low levels of HDL could be indicative of:

A

Risk of CAD

137
Q

Who is in charge of carrying triglycerides?

A

VLDL

138
Q

Glycerol + fatty acid = ?

A

Triglycerides

139
Q

Which organ forms triglycerides?

A

Liver

140
Q

How are triglycerides transported?

A

Mainly by VLDL; LDL to a lesser extent

141
Q

What is the main purpose of triglycerides?

A

Storage for energy

142
Q

What are the essential functions that are controlled by the thyroid?

A

Regulation of energy metabolism
BMR
Promotion of protein synthesis and growth

143
Q

Prostate specific antigen is found where?

A

Prostatic lumen

144
Q

PSA is used to monitor treatment for:

A

BPH
Infection
Cancer

145
Q

Hemoglobin A1C is primarily used to:

A

Diagnose and monitor diabetes treatment

146
Q

What test is used to determine the cause of metabolic acidosis?

A

Anion gap

147
Q

Anion gap is the difference between

A

Cations and anions in the extracellular fluid

148
Q

An increased anion gap could signify:

A
  • renal failure
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • lactic acid
  • diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Alcoholic ketoacidosis
  • Starvation
  • GI loss
  • hypoaldosteronism
149
Q

Decreased anion gap could signify:

A
  • multiple myeloma
  • excess alkali ingestion
  • chronic vomiting/suction
  • hyperaldosteronism
150
Q

Arterial blood gasses are used to monitor:

A
  • patients on ventilators
  • nonventilator patients
  • preoperative baseline parameters
  • regulate electrolyte therapy
151
Q

What are the 4 acids found in blood?

A

Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
Dietary acids
Lactic acid
Ketoacidosis

152
Q

An increase in H+ in the blood = _________in pH, which means the blood is _________?

A

Decrease; acidic

153
Q

An decrease in H+ in the blood = ___________ in pH, which means the blood is ____________.

A

Increase; alkaline

154
Q

UA is a non-invasive study for patient’s with:

A 
Abdominal pain
Back pain
Dysuria
Hematuria
Urinary frequency
Urinary leakage
Fever of unknown origin (FUO)
155
Q

If the urine is cloudy, could mean the presence of:

A

Pus
WBCs
RBCs
Bacteria

156
Q

If the urine is dark red, it could indicate

A

Bleeding from the kidney

157
Q

If the urine is bright red, it could indicate:

A

Bleeding from the lower urinary tract

158
Q

If the urine is dark yellow, it could indicate the presence of

A

Bilirubin

159
Q

If the urine is green, it could indicate the presence of:

A

Pseudomonas infection

160
Q

What medication can make the urine orange?

A

Pyridium

161
Q

What medication can make the urine brown?

A

Nitrofurantoin

162
Q

What medication can make the urine bright yellow/orange?

A

Rifampin

163
Q

Strong, sweet smell of acetone in urine could indicate:

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

164
Q

Foul odor to urine could indicate:

A

UTI

165
Q

Fecal odor to urine could indicate

A

Enterovesicle fistula

166
Q

Acidic urine could indicate possible:

A

Metabolic/resp. Acidosis
Starvation
Dehydration
High protein diet

167
Q

Alkaline urine could indicate the possibility of:

A

UTI
Bacteria
Diet high in citrus fruits/veggies
Some medications (streptomycin, neomycin)

168
Q

Increase in bilirubin in the urine could indicate:

A

Obstruction of the bile duct (i.e. gallstone)

169
Q

What labs do you need for the kidney?

A

GFR, BUN, Creatinine, Electrolytes, magnesium, protein/albumin and globulins, PH and PCO2

170
Q

primary determinant of extracellular fluid volume

A

Na

171
Q

important for function of excitable cells such as nerves, muscles, and heart

A

K

172
Q

important for fluid balance and acid base status

A

Cl

173
Q

Protein/albumin and globulins - kidney

A
  • detects nutritional status

- severe infection, dehydration, renal disease

174
Q

Magnesium - kidney

A

regulated by kidneys

175
Q

PH and PCO2 -kidney

A

move together

176
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

pH>7.45
CO3>30
Cause: vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration

177
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

pH<7.35
CO3<24
cause: increased acid production, decreased renal acid secretion

178
Q

Labs you need for bone

A

calcium, phosphate and alkaline phosphate, magnesium, vitamin D

179
Q

Phosphate (PO4) and alkaline phosphate

A

necessary for bone formation, acid base balance, storage and transfer of energy

180
Q

Magnesium - bone

A

concentrated in bone and muscles

-regulated by kidneys

181
Q

What labs are needed for the pancreas?

A

glucose, amylase, lipase

182
Q

Glucose - pancreas

A

measures blood glucose

183
Q

Lipase- pancreas

A

used to detect acute pancreatitis

184
Q

What labs are needed for the liver?

A

glucose, alkaline phosphate, total bilirubin, ammonia (NH3), protein/albumin and globulins, AST, ALT, lipid panel

185
Q

Total bilirubin

A
  • processed by the liver

- elevated bilirubin could indicate cirrhosis, hepatitis, jaundice

186
Q

Ammonia (NH3)

A
  • evaluates liver function and metabolism
  • the liver converts ammonia from blood to urea
  • if the liver is damage, then increased ammonia levels are noted
187
Q

Protein/albumin and globulins

A
  • detects nutritional status
  • increased causes: hepatitis
  • decreased causes: liver disease
188
Q

AST

A

found in liver, cardiac muscle, kidney, brain and lungs

189
Q

ALT

A

primarily found in the liver but also in muscle

190
Q

Both AST and ALT

A
  • are indicators of liver disease

- sensitive to hepatic inflammation and necrosis

191
Q

What labs are needed for the parathyroid?

A

calcium

192
Q

What labs are needed for the thyroid?

A

TSH, T3 and T4 levels

193
Q

Low TSH, high T3 and T4

A

hyperthyroidism

194
Q

High TSH, low T3 and T4

A

hypothyroidism

195
Q

What labs are needed for the prostate?

A

PSA

196
Q

What labs are needed for the lungs?

A

pH and PCO2

197
Q

pH and PCO2 - lungs

A

move opposite

198
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

pH > 7.45
CO2 < 35
Cause: COPD, CHF, Pain

199
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

pH < 7.35
CO2 >45
Cause: ALS, asthma, COPD

200
Q

What labs are needed for GU?

A

UA
34
UA
should be clear yellow

201
Q

Red Blood Cell - lifespan

A

120 days

202
Q

Hemoglobin

A
  • measurement based on spectrometric absorbance
  • assesses anemia, blood loss, and bone marrow suppression
  • function: carry oxygen, bind and release
203
Q

Hematocrit

A
  • assesses blood loss and fluid balance
  • also called PCV, is a ratio
  • 3:1 ratio
204
Q

Platelets

A

Clotting

-thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis

205
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

low platelet count

206
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

high platelet count

207
Q

White Blood Cells

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

208
Q

Neutrophils

40 to 75%

A
  • phagocytosis and killing microorganisms
  • elevated = infections, steroid use
  • left shift
209
Q

Lymphocytes

30 to 40%

A
  • production of antibodies (B-cells)
  • cytotoxic and helper function (T-cells)
  • viral infections, EBV, pertussis, immune-deficiency (HIV), corticosteroids, severe infection
210
Q

Monocytes

A
  • part of the innate immune system
  • circulating precursor to the phagocyte
  • called a macrophage in the tissues
  • replenishing resent macrophages under normal states
  • move quickly in response to inflammation signals
211
Q

Eosinophils

1 to 4%

A
  • kills antibody - coated parasites via granola release
  • increased during parasitic infection and allergic reactions >4%
  • reaction to foods, allergens or acid reflux, can inflame or injure the esophageal tissue
212
Q

Basophils

0.5 to 1%

A
  • AKA: mast cells
  • very rarely seen <1%
  • elevated during inflammation (HSN)
  • play a role in both parasitic infections and allergies
213
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

it is an orange-yellow pigment formed in the liver by the breakdown of hemoglobin and excreted in bile

214
Q

Used to evaluate bilirubin

A
  • liver function
  • hemolytic anemia
  • jaundice in newborns
215
Q

Bilirubin - total

A

sum of 70-85% indirect (unconjugated) and direct (conjugated)

216
Q

Total bilirubin process - spleen

A
  • RBC breakdown into heme and globin

- Heme: catabolized to form Biliverdin in the spleen

217
Q

Total bilirubin process - converted

A
  • biliverdin is converted to bilirubin

- this is indirect (unconjuated) bilirubin

218
Q

Where is unconjugated bilirubin converted?

A

spleen

219
Q

Total bilirubin process - liver

A
  • indirect bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronide

- becoming direct (conjugated) bilirubin

220
Q

Where is direct (conjugated) bilirubin converted?

A

liver

221
Q

Conjugated

A

bilirubin travels from liver to small intestine

222
Q

Unconjugated

A

bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood

223
Q

Total Cholesterol

A
  • most accurate predictor of the risk of Coronary Heart Disease
  • liver metabolizes ingested cholesterol
  • positional changes can affect results (its in hospital are expected to have lower level of TC than outpatients)
224
Q

LDL

“Bad Cholesterol”

A
  • LDL carry cholesterol from liver to cells
  • High levels = > risk CAD/Peripheral Vascular Disease
  • Low levels = cardio-protective
225
Q

HDL

“Good Cholesterol”

A
  • unsaturated fats
  • mainly in liver, used to remove cholesterol from tissue and vascular endothelium
  • high levels = cardio-protective
  • low levels = >risk of CAD
226
Q

Triglycerides

A
  • type of fat (lipid) found in the blood and stored in fat cells
  • risk for atherosclerosis
  • formed in the liver
  • transported by LDL and VLDL
  • acts as a storage for energy
227
Q

Total Cholesterol/HDL Ratio

A
  • predictor of heart disease risk

- calculated by total cholesterol/HDL

228
Q

VLDL

A
  • very low density lipoprotein

- predominant carrier of triglycerides

229
Q

Urine Analysis

A

monitors chronic renal disease and some metabolic disease

230
Q

Yellow color measures

A

hydration and dehydration

231
Q

Cloudy color urine

A

pus, WBC’s, RBC’s, or bacteria

232
Q

Dark red urine

A

bleeding with kidney (hematuria)

233
Q

Bright red urine

A

bleeding from the lower urinary tract (hematuria)

234
Q

Dark yellow urine

A

could indicate presence of bilirubin

235
Q

Green urine

A

pseudomonas infection

236
Q

Food that can affect urine color

A

beet, blackberries, rhubarb - pink or red

237
Q

Mediations that can affect urine color

A

Pyridium - organe
Nitrofurantoin - brown
Rifampin - yellow orange

238
Q

Odor

A
  • strong sweet smell of acetone = diabetic ketoacidosis
  • foul order = urinary tract infection
  • fecal order = enterovesicle fistula
239
Q

pH - acidic

A

possible metabolic/respiratory acidosis, starvation, dehydration, high protein die
<6.5

240
Q

pH - alkaline

A

UTI, bacteria, high diet in citrus fruits/veggies, some medications
>7.0

241
Q

Specific Gravity

A
  • AKA weight of particles in urine
  • measures the concentration of chemical particles (wastes and electrolytes) in urine
  • high = concentrated urine (dehydration )
  • low = diluted urine (chronic renal disease)
  • good indicator of kidneys ability to concentrate urine and hydration
242
Q

Proteinuria

A

usually measure albumin

243
Q

Proteinuria - indicator

A
  • glomerular damage

- basement membrane

244
Q

Proteinuria - possible dx

A
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • DM complications
  • High BP
  • UTI
245
Q

Proteinuria - persistence

A
  • requires further workup

- 24 hour urine or electrophoresis

246
Q

Leukocyte Esterase (WBC)

A

positive = UTI, need for C&S

247
Q

Nitrites

A

positive = UTI, need for C&S

248
Q

Ketones

A

positive = poorly controlled diabetic or hyperglycemia from massive fatty acid catabolism

249
Q

Aldosterone

A
  • conserves Na+
  • stimulated by >levels increases renal excretion of K+
  • opposite of Na+ regulation
  • aldosterone hormone
250
Q

Aldosterone hormone

A

stimulated by low levels of Na+ causing kidneys to reabsorb Na+ thus increasing Na+

251
Q

Hyponatremia

A
  • triggers aldosterone
  • increases reabsorption
  • sonservation of Na+
  • Na+ level increases
252
Q

Hypernatremia

A
  • triggers natriuretic
  • decrease reabsorption
  • excretion of Na+
  • Na+ level decrease
253
Q

Aldosterone blockers cause

A
  • modest diuresis of natruesis

- inhibits potassium and hydrogen ion secretion

254
Q

Vitamin D

A

indicator of risk for osteoporosis

255
Q

Glucose - liver

A

criteria for diagnosing DM

256
Q

Normchromia

A

normal RBCs that lack a nucleus and organelles

257
Q

Hyperchromia

A
  • MCHC <36% RBC with decreased surface to volume ratio
  • seen in hemolysis and burn
  • spherocytes
258
Q

Spherocytes

A

cells with no central pallor

259
Q

Macrocytes

A

MCV>100 fL

  • macrocytic anemia
  • macrocytes seen in acute blood los, polychromasia is usually present
260
Q

Hypochromia

A

central area of pallor, literally means low color, many times this is seen in IDA often referred to a microcytic/hypochromic anemia

Exam2 ECG/Basic Labs/Pharm (5 decks)

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