Bar Exam October 2023 Flashcards

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1
Q

Q: What is the best evidence rule?

A

A: The best evidence rule prevents a party who could produce the original document from tendering a copy (Myers v DPP; McIver v McKenzie)

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2
Q

Q: What is the key to the best evidence rule?

A

A: Is there a better means of proof.

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3
Q

Exceptions: Q: What are 5 exceptions to the best evidence rule?

A

If the other party makes an admission. Where a stranger in possession fails to produce a document after being issued with a subpoena. Where an opponent has failed to respond to a notice to produce. Production is impossible (e.g. inscription on a tomb). Cannot be found without due search.

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4
Q

Q: What should you do if you are not in possession of secondary evidence, and the opposing party has failed to respond to a notice to produce? .

A

A: File a subpoena

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5
Q

Q: Does the best evidence rule apply in both state and federal courts?

A

A: Only State, the Cth evidence Act abolished the rule.

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6
Q

Q: If a question relates to the tendering of a document in a CTH Court, what provisions of the Cth apply are relevant.

A

A: Proof of the contents of a document is housed in s 48 of the Cth Act. Requests for the production of documents can be made through s 167.

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7
Q

Q: What is the difference between a formal and informal admission?

A

A: A formal admission binds a party, while an informal admission can be explained away.

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8
Q

Q: What is the common law definition of an admission?

A

A: What a party himself admits to be true, may reasonably be presumed to be so (Slatterie v Pooley).

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9
Q

Q: The prosecution wishes to tender one paragraph from a transcript of a confession.

A

A: object on the basis that the entire confession ought to be tendered because everything ought to be read which is fairly connected to that admission (Lyell v Kennedy). The reason for this is so that exculpatory evidence that was also given by the accused should be admitted to give context to the admission (Nguyen v R).

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10
Q

Q: When acting for a co-accused, can the prosecution rely on an admission made by another co-accused against your client? State relevant principle.

A

A: Not unless it’s a joint criminal enterprise, (Ahern; Tripodi). s 8, competent to give evidence in their defence but not compellable.

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11
Q

Q: If strict proof or authority to act in a civil case may cause unnecessary expense, delay or inconvenience, how may the Court direct that evidence be given?

A

A: In any way that the Court directs under s 129A(2) of the QLD Ev Act.

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12
Q

Q: What is the general principle of ‘vicarious admissions’ and give 2 examples (one from civil and one from criminal) where such could be made.

A

A: Admissions by those in privity with a party to litigation may be given in evidence against the party (Ahern; Tripodi). In crim, acts done by one co-conspirator are receivable against another if done in a concerted plan. In civil, a solicitor can make admissions on behalf of their client.

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13
Q

Q: What is the general principle which underscores vicarious admissions in cases of conspiracy?

A

A: Agency (Ahern v R).

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14
Q

Q: What two ways can a confession can be excluded at common law?

A

Threat promise or inducement by person in authority (McDermott v R)
Basal involuntariness. If it was obtained at a time when the accused’s mind was so unbalanced as to render it wholly unsafe to act upon (Jackson v R).

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15
Q

Q: What is the authority for excluding a evidence obtained in an illegal or improper manner at common law?

A

Bunning v Cross. Known at common law as the Ireland discrestion.

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16
Q

Q: What is the authority and what are circumstances where it would be unfair to admit a confession against an accused?

A

A: s 130 of the Ev Act QLD - where evidence is of only slight probative value and the prejudicial effect is substantial (R v Hasler). Take into account age, race, intellect, education.

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17
Q

Q: How are confessions excluded at law in QLD?

A

S 416 of the PP&R Act states that they must not be induced by a threat or promise.
S 10 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act states that a confession following a threat or promise will be deemed to have been so unless the contrary is shown.

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18
Q

Q: What is the leading hearsay statement and state the authority.

A

A: evidence of a statement made to a witness by a person who is not himself called as a witness may or may not be hearsay. It is inadmissible when the object of the evidence is to establish the truth of what is contained in the statement. It is not hearsay and is admissible when it is proposed to establish by the evidence, not the truth of the statement, but the fact that it was made.

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19
Q

Q: Give 3 reasons why hearsay should be rejected.

A

A: it’s not the best evidence or given on oath or affirmation (Teper v. R); it may be concocted; a party is unable to confront the maker of a statement.

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20
Q

Q: What’s an example of a question which would invoke an answer intended to infringe on the rule against narrative or prior consistent statements?

A

A: Did you give a statement to police at the scene of the accident that is identical to the version that you’ve just given in Court?

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21
Q

Q: What are 3 situations in which evidence of a prior consistent statement is admissible?

A

A: when it relates to a complaint in a sexual matters (Nominal Defendant v Clements), forms part of the res gestae, or negatives a suggestion that the witness’s evidence is an afterthought (Nominal Defendant v Clements).

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22
Q

Q: Give an example of an implied assertion by conduct and an implied assertion by a statement.

A

A: Implied statement: John called out “stop hitting me Peter” (Ratten v R). Implied by conduct: Peter can away from the crime scene (Holloway v McFeeters).

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23
Q

Q: What is the definition of original evidence?

A

A: evidence is said to be original when a witness narrates another person’s statement for some purpose other than that of inducing the court to accept it as true (Ritz Hotel Ltd v Charles of the Ritz Ltd).

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24
Q

Q: What is the leading statement on non expert opinion.

A

A: The law makes allowance by permitting witnesses to state their opinion without specialised knowledge when it’s impossible for them to separate their inferences from the facts on which the inferences are based (Weal v Bottom).

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25
Q

Q: When is it necessary to obtain expert evidence?

A

A: whenever the subject matter of inquiry is such that inexperienced persons are unlikely to form a correct judgment on it without such assistance (Clark v Ryan).

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26
Q

Q: What are the 7 conditions of admissibility of expert opinion.

A

1, It must be demonstrated that there is an organised branch of knowledge in which the witness is an expert (Clark v Ryan).
2, There must be an aspect of the field whereby because of the witnesses specified training, study or experience, the witness has become an expert (R v Robb).
3, It must be demonstrated that the opinion proffered is wholly or substantially based on the witnesses expert knowledge. This requirement is a corollary of the first and second requirement.
4, The witness must identify the assumed primary facts on which the opinion is offered (HG v R)
5, Opinion is not admissible unless evidence has or will be admitted which is capable of supporting the findings of assumed primary facts which are sufficiently like those assumed primary facts to render the opinion of the expert of value (Farrell v R).
6, There must be a demonstration that the facts on which the opinion is based form a proper foundation for it. This requirement is a corollary of the 4th and 5th requirements.
7, The opinion requires demonstration or examination of the scientific or other intellectual basis of the conclusions reached and how this basis applies to the facts assumed so as to produce the opinion propounded (Dasreef v Hawchar).

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27
Q

Q: At common law, what must a non expert opinion witness possess for the opinion to be accepted?

A

A: The witness must have qualifications, in the sense of the intelligence and powers of observation according to the witness’s experience of life and affairs (Warming v. O’Sullivan).

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28
Q

Q: What, if possible, should be avoided from an expert testimony.

A

A: Their opinion on the ultimate issue If avoidable (Brodie v Singleton Shire Council).

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29
Q

Q: What is required if an expert has had colleagues perform experiments and tests?

A

A: Scientific tests run by assistants of the expert witness on which the expert witness relies must be called (R v Frizell). If people who carried out work for the expert do not give evidence, the evidence of the expert witness may be excluded (R v Sing)

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30
Q

Q: What is the definition of opinion.

A

A: An opinion is an inference drawn from observed or communicable data - from assumed or observed facts (Hannes v DPP).

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31
Q

Give an example of how s 77 of the Cth Ev Act may operate?

A

A: An example is a report about the value of land tendered to establish the recipient’s state of mind.

32
Q

When directions are made which relate to the commission of expert evidence, what is encouraged by the Court.

A

A: For a single expert to be used by the parties.

33
Q

Q: What’s the definition of a leading question.

A

A: One which either suggests the answer desired, or assumes the existence of disputed facts (Stephen’s digest).

34
Q

Q: What is the appropriate form of questioning in cross examination?

A

A: any question the judge is prepared to allow (Mooney v James).

35
Q

Q: What are exceptions to the rule against asking leading questions in evidence in chief.

A

A: a witness may be led on the formal introductory part of his testimony, questions which relate to identification,
s 33 of the evidence Act provides that police officers can give evidence in chief by being led through his statement,
no objection is made to the question and the parties are represented by Australian Legal Practitioner’s,
question relates to a matter that’s not in dispute; or
the witness is an expert (s 37 corresponds with the common law).

36
Q

Q: At common law, when may a witness refresh their memory?

A

A: The witness needs to do so, the document was compiled when the facts were fresh in the witness’s memory, the witness can confirm that the document is accurate.

37
Q

Q: What is appropriate if there is objection to a witness refreshing their memory?

A

A: The existence of the conditions of admissibility can be tested on the void dire (Re van Belen).

38
Q

Q: What is the principle against the reception of prior consistent statements?

A

A: A party may not in general call evidence supporting the credibility of a witness called by that party (R v. Connolly).

39
Q

Q: Give a reason why prior consistent statements are inadmissible?

A

A: It lengthens trials by spawning false issues.

40
Q

Q: Where is the Longman direction housed in statute?

A

A: s 165B of the Evidence Act and s 132BA of the QLD EA applies in cases where an accused has suffered forensic disadvantage by reason of a delay in a complaint.

41
Q

Q: What is the difference between an unfavourable and a hostile witness?

A

A: An unfavourable witness is one called by a party to prove a particular fact in issue or relevant to the issue who fails to prove such a fact, or proves an opposite fact. A hostile witness is one who is not desirous of telling the truth at the instance of the party calling the witness (R v. Prefas).

42
Q

Q: State the rule in Browne v Dunn.

A

A: It is necessary to put to an opponent’s witness in cross-examination the nature of the case upon which it is proposed to rely in contradiction of his evidence.

43
Q

Q: When does the rule in Browne v Dunn not apply?

A

A: the witness is on notice that the witness’s version is in contest. Where the witness’s story is so incredible and romancing a character that the most effective cross examination would be to ask him to leave the box. Another reason for the absence of cross examination may be delicacy.

44
Q

Q: What are the consequences for non-compliance with the rule in Browne v Dunn?

A

A: if cross-examining counsel fails to cross examine on a particular point, they may be taken to accept it and may not be permitted to address in a fashion which asks the court not to accept it, or precluded from raising the matter on appeal. It may result in a direction to the jury that the failure by counsel to put certain matters goes to the weight of the evidence, but the judge must not tell the jury that a breach of the rule may mean that they can more readily accept or reject the evidence. The witness’s evidence may be accepted particularly if it has not been contradicted by other evidence. The trial judge may require the witness to be re-called for further cross examination. On appeal the Court may disregard a submission which was not tested during the trial.

45
Q

Q: What are two reasons for the finality rule?

A

A: Save time and avoid a multiplicity of issues.

46
Q

Q: What is an example of a collateral fact?

A

A: Collateral facts are facts not constituting the matters directly in dispute between the parties (Goldsmith v Sandilands).

47
Q

Q: What are three exceptions to the rule against prior consistent statements.

A

A: fresh complaints in sexual matters; and, rebut allegations of a recent invention (Nominal Defendant v Clements). within the res gestae

48
Q

Q: What is the definition of a hostile witness.

A

A: One who is unwilling the tell the turth in the interests of justice (R v Hayden & Slattery).

49
Q

Q: What is the finality rule?

A

A: Answers to collateral questions are final (Bennett v Piddington & Wood).

50
Q

Q: What are four exceptions to the finality rule?

A

A: prior inconsistent statements (McLellan v Bowyer); prior criminal history (s 16 of the Ev Act QLD); Bias (R v Nichols); Reputation for a lack of veracity (R v BDX).

51
Q

Q: What’s the definition of prejudice?

A

A: damage in some unacceptable way, for example, by provoking some irrational, emotional or illogical response, or by giving the evidence more weight than it truly deserves (R v Suteski).

52
Q

Q: How can evidence be excluded under s 130 of the evidence act QLD.

A

A: When the evidence is of slight probative value and the prejudicial effect is substantial (R v. Hasler).

53
Q

Q: What is the degree of proof in a civil case (give two authorities in your answer)?

A

A: More probable than not (Briginshaw v Briginshaw). Or, showing the odds of at least 51 to 49 that such-and-such has taken place or will do so (Davies v Taylor).

54
Q

Q: What is the standard of proof where the accused bears the legal burden?

A

A: balance of probabilities (R v Carr-Briant).

55
Q

Q: What is the standard of proof in contempt proceedings?

A

A: All charges for contempt of court, whether civil or criminal, must be proved beyond reasonable doubt (Keeley v Brooking).

56
Q

Q: In QLD, what is the standard of proof in sentencing?

A

A sentencing judge may act on any allegation of fact which is admitted or not challenged if it is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that it is true (s 132C of the Ev Act).

57
Q

Q: What is the standard of proof in professional disciplinary proceedings?

A

A: The civil standard applies in professional disciplinary proceedings, but the degree of satisfaction for which the civil standard calls may vary according to the gravity of the fact to be proved (Re a solicitor).

58
Q

Q: What can a judge do in an evenly balanced civil case?

A

A: SImply state that the plaintiff has failed to discharge the burden of proof. Judge is not required to choose between two equally improbable causes (Rhesa Shipping v Edmunds).

59
Q

Q: What is the standard of proof in a criminal case?

A

A: Beyond a reasonable doubt - of course it is possible but not in the least probably (Woolmington v DPP). Applied in R v Mullen in QLD

60
Q

Q: Explain the legal burden?

A

A: The burden of having an issue decided in ones favour.

61
Q

Q: Describe the evidential burden?

A

A: The burden of ensuring that enough evidence is adduced to justify the court considering an issue raised by the party bearing it.

62
Q

Q: How is a burden of proof discharged?

A

A: By satisfying the standard of proof.

63
Q

Q: Describe the tactical burden?

A

A: Adducing enough evidence in rebuttal when an absence thereof may result in an adverse finding.

64
Q

Q: How do you discharge the ultimate burden of proof?

A

A: Discharge the legal burden on all the issues.

65
Q

Q: What are the two exceptions to the general rule that a party that bears the legal burden also bears the evidential burden?

A

A: The accused bears the legal burden on any statutory defences, which are required to be discharged on the balance of probabilities (Sodeman v. R). The accused bears the evidential burden on any remaining defences, when the Crown retains the legal burden of disproof beyond a reasonable doubt once the accused has discharged the evidential burden (R v. Lafaele).

66
Q

Q: Give two examples of how ID evidence can be ruled inadmissible?

A

A: If the witness gives a dock ID without a previous positive ID. Or, if police officers are asked to identify a suspect from CCTV because they have previous experience with the suspect. This evidence was held to be irrelevant as there was no logical connection with a fact in issue (Smith v R).

67
Q

Q: Give an example of how the weight of ID evidence can be affected?

A

A: If the witness is given any impression prior to a parade that the accused is a suspect (R v Easom).

68
Q

Q: What is the preferred means of ID?

A

A: ID parade (Alexander v R).

69
Q

Q: When is an ID by a photo appropriate?

A

A: When it’s not possible or appropriate to hold an ID parade.

70
Q

Q: What type of direction is appropriate when the reliability of ID evidence is disputed.

A

A: Dominican. The trial judge must warn the jury of the weaknesses in the ID evidence.

71
Q

Q: Explain s 79 of the Judiciary Act.

A

A: The law of evidence of a state in which the action is heard is applicable, unless there is a contrary provision in the law of the Cth.

72
Q

What is the standard of proof for establishing the admissibility of confessions?

A

Balance of probabilities. Best done on the voir dire.

73
Q

What is the definition of circumstantial evidence?

A

Any fact, from the existence of which the judge or jury may infer the existence of a fact in issue Festa v R.

74
Q

What is the definition of res gestae

A

The statement was made under the influence of the event to which it related, without any real opportunity for invention or untruth (R v Andrews)

75
Q

What is the presumption of regularity?

A

Establishes due appointment and capacity to act

76
Q

Describe the presumption of mechanical instruments?

A

The presumption that mechanical instruments were in order when they were used

77
Q

In what situations may the Court direct evidence can be given in a particular manner?

A

Handwriting
ID
Documents
Proof of authority
S 129A