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PHM State Test > Bacti > Flashcards

Bacti Flashcards

1
Q

A gram negative diplococci that is oxidase positive is isolated from a clinical specimen. How should it be reported?

A

Gram negative diplococci that is oxidase positive isolated.

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2
Q

A question about anaerobes. Maybe what is the cause of most anaerobic infections?

A

Endogenous (coming from within the body, ie normal flora)

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3
Q

Can Treponemas be differentiated morphologically or serologically?

A

No, but location in certain geographical areas, clinical manifestation, dark-field and serological reactions can help.

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4
Q

Distinguishing feature of Brucella abortus?

A

Positive CO2, positive H2S

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5
Q

Distinguishing feature of Group B Strep (Strep agalactiae)?

A

Positive CAMP test and infant meningitis.

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6
Q

Distinguishing feature of Streptobacillus moniliformis?

A

Puffballs or string of pearls

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7
Q

Having a terminal spore is characteristic of which organism?

A

Clostridium tetani

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8
Q

How can you differentiate between Listeria and Francisella?

A

Listera: Gram positive rod, motile, oxidase negative, catalase positive. Francisella: Gram negative rod, non-motile, oxidase negative, catalase positive.

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9
Q

How can you differentiate between Neisseria and Actinobacter?

A

Actinobacter is oxidase negative and grows at 25C.

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10
Q

How do you differentiate between Salmonella and Edwardsiella?

A

Indole (Salmonella is indole negative)

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11
Q

How do you differentiate between the various species of Brucella?

A

H2S production, growth in CO2, urea, resistance/susceptibility to fuschin (dye solubility).

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12
Q

How do you differentiate Listeria monocytogens from Listeria innocua?

A

Beta hemolysis (L. monocytogens is positive). Also CAMP test.

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13
Q

How do you differentiate Vibrio cholera from other Vibrio species?

A

Vibrio cholera does not require the addition of NaCl to media to grow. Also, TCBS media (yellow colony).

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14
Q

How does O/F media allow for determination of oxidation?

A

Can be overlaid with mineral oil to make it an anaerobic environment.

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15
Q

How does O/F media work?

A

High carbs with low peptones

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16
Q

How does Salmonella typhi differ from non-typhi Salmonella?

A

Salmonella typhi has gas from glucose, is ornathine decarboxylase positive and citrate positive.

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17
Q

In the US, what is not a common cause of meningitis?

A

Staph aureus

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18
Q

Is Staphylococcus saprophyticus sensitive or resistant to Novobiocin?

A

Resistant

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19
Q

Is the toxin produced from Staphylococcus heat labile or stable?

A

Heat stable, pre-formed toxin (think Staph aureus, food poisoning, fried rice)

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20
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea ferments which carbs? What about neisseria meningitidis?

A

gonorrhea ferments glucose. N. meningitidis ferments glucose and maltose.

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21
Q

Streptococcus bovis belongs to which Lancefield group?

A

Group D: Non-enterococcus Streptococcus

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22
Q

Vibrio cholera 01 is which of the following: Classic/El Tor biotypes, Pandemic, Toxin producing or all of the above?

A

All of the above.

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23
Q

What are the best conditions to grow Camplyobacter in?

A

5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2 (Microaerophilic).

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24
Q

What are the biochemcial and clinical reasons for the ONPG test?

A

To identify late lactose fermenters. O-Nitrophenol turns yellow when positive.

25
Q

What are the significant reactions for Streptococus bovis?

A

Optochin resistant, positive VP and Esculin, sensitive to SXT (Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole).

26
Q

What are the significant reactions for Streptococus pneumoniae?

A

Optochin sensitive, positive bile solubility, alpha hemolytic, positive quelling reaction.

27
Q

What are the significant reactions of Brucella?

A

Gram negative rod or coccobacillus, oxidase positive, catalase positive, urea positive, non-motile.

28
Q

What carbohydrate is fermented by ALL members of Enterobacteriacea?

A

Glucose

29
Q

What disease does Treponema carateum cause?

A

Pinta

30
Q

What indicator is used for ensuring anaerobic conditions in media?

A

Methylene blue

31
Q

What is the best specimen for Bordetella pertussis?

A

Nasopharyngeal swab (NP swab)

32
Q

What is the beta-galactosidase relationship to ONPG?

A

Hydrolyzes ONPG to ONP and Galactose.

33
Q

What is the biochemical reaction that produces indole?

A

Tryptophan reduced to Tryptophanase (Indole)

34
Q

What is the definition of a disinfectant?

A

An agent that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily spore-forming organism.

35
Q

What is the morphology of Franciscella tularensis?

A

Small, coccobacillus

36
Q

What is the purpose of the lactose pre-enrichment broth for Salmonella in food?

A

Used to resuscitate damaged cells and allow for low number of organisms to increase.

37
Q

What media is used to grow Bordetella?

A

Regan-Lowe, Bordet-Gengou, Jones-Kendrick charcoal

38
Q

What medias can be used to grow Neisseria?

A

MTM, GC-Lect, NYC, Martin-Lewis, JEMBEC

39
Q

What organism causes non-gonococcal urethritis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

40
Q

What organism is a gram negative rod, TSI is K/K, oxidase positive, motility positive (polar flagella), glucose/lactose negative, growth at 42C?

A

Pseudomonas

41
Q

What test can be used to differentiate Clostridium and Bacillus?

A

Catalase and aeobic endospore formation.

42
Q

What tests of morphology can be used to differentiate between Group A Strep and Group B Strep?

A

Group B Strep is CAMP and Hippurate positive.

43
Q

What tests of morphology can be used to differentiate between Listeria and Corynebacterium?

A

Motility and morphology

44
Q

What tests of morphology can be used to differentiate between Staphylococcus epidermatidis and Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Staph aureus is coagulase positive

45
Q

What tests of morphology can be used to differentiate between Stapylococcus and Streptococcus?

A

Staph is catalase positive

46
Q

What tests of morphology can be used to differentiate between Streptococcus viridans and Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Strep pnsumo is Optichin sensitive and Bile solubility positive

47
Q

Which bacteria can you get from a dog bite?

A

Pasturella multocida

48
Q

Which bacteria causes rat bite fever?

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

49
Q

Which gram positive cocci can be lancet shaped?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

50
Q

Which organism is a gram positive cocci, catalase negative, hippurate positive, CAMP positive?

A

Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)

51
Q

Which organism is a gram positive cocci, catalase positive, Coagulase negative that causes endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus epidermatidis

52
Q

Which organism is a gram positive short rods, oxidase positive, lactose positive, H2S production, non-motile?

A

Erysipelothrix

53
Q

Which organism requires cold enrichment?

A

Yersinia

54
Q

Which organism requires X and V factors?

A

Haemophilus (influenzae, aegyptius, haemolyticus)

55
Q

Which STD is asymptomatic and causes PID?

A

Chlamydia

56
Q

Which test can be used to differentiate E. coli from Shigella?

A

ONPG

57
Q

Which test can be used to differentiate Listeria and Enterococcus? Which test CANNOT?

A

Catalase can be used (listeria is positive, Enterococcus is negative). Bile esculin cannot be used (both are positive).

58
Q

You isolate a gram negative diplococci identified as Neisseria gonorrhea. Under what circumstances should this be confirmed by additional testing?

A

Always, regardless of where or whom it’s isolated from.

59
Q

You isolate clear colonies from MAC agar that shows a 3+ reaction with Shigella Group A antiserum and no reaction to Group B, C, or D. What is the next step?

A

Perform biochemical tests to rule out isolate as E. coli

PHM State Test (7 decks)

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